Cambridge international AS & A Level Past Papers Practice

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A Levels | Accounting (9706)
Question Count : 30

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Accounting (9706)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

Which statements identify the advantages of using a purchases ledger control account as part of
the accounting system?

  1. Compensating errors within the purchases ledger can be found more easily.
  2. Errors of commission within the purchases ledger will be detected.
  3. The honesty of staff working on the accounts of trade payables is checked.
  4. The total amount owing to trade payables can be ascertained quickly.

2 / 30

A trader rents a vehicle for $10 000 which allows him to cover 20 000 miles per financial year. If
this mileage is exceeded, an additional charge of $5000 is made.
Which type of cost is this an example of?

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A business has a year end of 31 December. It purchased a non-current asset on 1 January 2020
for $100 000. The asset was depreciated using the reducing balance method at 20% per annum.
It was sold for $40 000 on 1 January 2022.
What was the loss on disposal?

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Which items are capital expenditure?

  1. payment of wages to staff to install new equipment
  2. purchase of a new computer for office
  3. purchase of spare parts for factory equipment
  4. use of factory machinery to repair owner’s car

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What are possible limitations of a budgetary control system?

  1. Budgets are based on estimates.
  2. Budgets may lead to staff demotivation.
  3. Budgets may prevent managers from being creative.

6 / 30

A manufacturer has a target profit of $80 000 per annum. Last year the business made a profit of
$60 000 when 10 000 units were produced and sold. Contribution was $10 per unit.
In order to achieve the target profit the plan is to increase advertising by $10 000 per annum.
Variable cost per unit and selling price per unit will remain unchanged.
What will be the total fixed cost if this plan is carried out?

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X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital
account balances of $200 000.
Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill
was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account.
Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000.
How much capital did Z contribute?

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15 / 30

A company received its bank statement dated 30 June showing a credit balance of $6890. The
cash book on this date had a debit balance of $7234. The following items were discovered.

  1. Bank charges of $54 had not been entered in the cash book.
  2. Deposits made to the bank on 30 June for $490 had not been shown on the bank
    statement.
  3. Suppliers had not banked cheques for $200.

Which figure should be used for bank in the statement of financial position at 30 June?

16 / 30

Raj, a supplier of goods, has calculated the following ratios from the financial statements of a
possible new customer.

  1. current ratio
  2. non-current asset turnover
  3. trade payables turnover
  4. trade receivables turnover
    Which ratios would help Raj decide whether or not to supply goods?

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The selling price of a product remains constant.
In which circumstances will the break-even point in units decrease?

  1. increase in labour costs per unit
  2. decrease in material costs per unit
  3. decrease in variable costs per unit
  4. increase in total fixed costs

21 / 30

The balance on the purchases ledger control account did not agree with the total of balances
from the purchases ledger accounts. The following errors were then discovered.

  1. Contra entries had not been entered in the general journal.
  2. Debit balances on the purchases ledger had not been included in the control
    account.
  3. Discount allowed total had been included in the control account.
  4. Goods returned to a supplier had not been recorded in the purchases returns
    journal.
    Which errors will require entries being made in the purchases ledger?

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A company wants to sell 50 000 units and achieve a profit of $600 000. It has variable costs of
$60 per unit and total fixed overheads of $400 000.
What is the selling price per unit it needs to charge to achieve the required profit?

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25 / 30

A trial balance did not agree and the book-keeper found the following errors.

  1. A bank overdraft of $100 had been shown as a debit in the trial balance.
  2. A cash purchase of $160 had been entered in the purchases account as $150; the
    purchase was entered correctly in the cash account.
  3. A telephone invoice for $400 had been debited to the insurance account.

The book-keeper opened a suspense account in order to correct the errors.
What was the opening entry in the suspense account?

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27 / 30

The bank statement of a business showed a credit balance of $4520. This did not agree with the
cash book. The following were discovered.

  1. Bank charges of $89 had not been entered in the cash book.
  2. There were unpresented cheques paid to suppliers of $680.
  3. A dishonoured cheque for $210 appeared on the bank statement, but was not
    shown in the cash book.
  4. Sales receipts of $750 had been entered in the cash book, but did not appear on the
    bank statement.
    What is the bank balance to be shown in the statement of financial position?

28 / 30

Which costs are part of the marginal cost of a product?

  1. direct material
  2. fixed production
  3. fixed selling and distribution
  4. variable production

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The correction of which error would require an entry in the suspense account?

30 / 30

The totals of a trial balance did not agree and the following errors were discovered.

  1. A cheque for $27 000 for the sale of a non-current asset had been credited to the
    sales account. The corresponding entry was correct.
  2. The purchase on credit of a new motor vehicle for $27 000 had been omitted from
    the supplier’s account. The corresponding entry was correct.
  3. Entries in the cash book for a transfer from cash to bank for $27 000 had been
    reversed.
  4. The purchases account had been overcast by $27 000.

Which errors would have led to the trial balance totals being different?

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A Levels | Biology (9700)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Biology (9700)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

The statements describe the structure of a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of certain plants.

  1. The polysaccharide is composed of two different monosaccharides.
  2. The monosaccharides are joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.
  3. The polysaccharide contains pentose sugars.
    Which statements are also true for cellulose?

2 / 40

In the hybridoma method, what is grown by cell culture to produce monoclonal antibodies?

3 / 40

Which events occur during ventricular systole?

  1. Atrioventricular valves close.
  2. Muscle in ventricle walls relaxes.
  3. Semilunar valves open.

4 / 40

Which properties of phospholipids explain why single layers of phospholipids added to water
immediately form bilayers?

  1. The hydrophobic fatty acid chains repel water molecules so the tails pack together.
  2. The non-polar fatty acid chains are attracted to each other by hydrophobic
    interactions.
  3. Hydrogen bonds form between the phosphate groups and water.

5 / 40

Which nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?

6 / 40

CYP3A4 is an important enzyme in the human digestive system where it is needed to break
down a range of different toxins. The activity of CYP3A4 has been shown to be reduced by
substances called furanocoumarins. Furanocoumarins are found in some fruits and so dangerous
concentrations of toxins may develop in the human digestive system when fruits containing
furanocoumarins are eaten.
From the information provided, what can be concluded about molecules of the enzyme CYP3A4?

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8 / 40

Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by bacteria.
Which events explain how bacteria become resistant to penicillin?

  1. The number of bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin increases.
  2. Resistance to penicillin is the result of a mutation in a bacterium.
  3. Bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin pass the allele to their daughter
    cells.
  4. The mutation for resistance to penicillin is always caused by the presence of
    penicillin.

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What contributes to the upward movement of water in a xylem vessel of a plant?

  1. cohesion of water molecules by hydrogen bonding
  2. adhesion of water molecules to the cellulose walls of xylem vessels by hydrogen
    bonding
  3. removal of water from xylem vessels in a leaf reduces the hydrostatic pressure in
    the xylem

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12 / 40

A prokaryotic cell, 1 m in diameter, is magnified 50 000 times on an electron micrograph.
What is the diameter as shown in the electron micrograph?

13 / 40

Which statements about the cardiac cycle are correct?

  1. The atrioventricular valves close during atrial systole.
  2. The left and right ventricles contract together.
  3. There is a time delay as the electrical impulse passes from the atrioventricular node
    to the sinoatrial node.
  4. Electrical impulses pass along the Purkyne tissue to the ventricles.

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19 / 40

Which features of an organism are affected by a drug that kills cells that are dividing mitotically?

  1. cell repair
  2. cell replacement
  3. number of stem cells
  4. tissue repair
  5. tumour formation

20 / 40

A bacterial circular DNA molecule is 2 600 150 base pairs long. 26% of the bases are adenine.
How many cytosine bases would be in the DNA molecule?

21 / 40

Which statements are correct for the lock and key hypothesis and the induced fit hypothesis of
enzyme action?

  1. The substrate is the same shape as the active site.
  2. The substrate is held in place in the active site by temporary bonds.
  3. The enzyme and sometimes the substrate change shape slightly as the substrate
    molecule enters the enzyme.

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Which statement about the role of DNA polymerase in the process of semi-conservative
replication of DNA is correct?

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Which structures are found in palisade mesophyll cells and photosynthetic prokaryotes?

  1. cell surface membrane
  2. cellulose wall
  3. ribosomes
  4. chloroplasts

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Which range of cell diameters is typical for prokaryotic cells?

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34 / 40

Different substances, such as sucrose and amino acids, can move in different directions in the
phloem sieve tube elements.
Which statement explains this?

35 / 40

3 The PDx1 protein is found in a wide range of animal species where it is regarded as essential for
normal metabolism. In sand rats, the gene coding for the PDx1 protein has a much lower
proportion of A and T nucleotides than PDx1 genes from other animals.
Finding the complete DNA sequence of the PDx1 gene in sand rats has been difficult.
Sequencing involves splitting off nucleotides one at a time from single-stranded DNA.
What could account for the difficulty in finding the DNA sequence of the PDx1 gene in sand rats?

  1. The PDx1 gene is present in only a small proportion of nuclei.
  2. The PDx1 gene is transcribed in only some cells.
  3. The strength of the hydrogen bonding between the two strands of the PDx1 gene is
    unusually high.

36 / 40

What explains how the maximum volume of oxygen is taken up as blood passes through the
capillaries of the lungs?

37 / 40

Emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A person with
emphysema has difficulties in breathing out.

Why does emphysema cause difficulties in breathing out?

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40 / 40

Which xerophytic adaptations reduce the water potential gradient between leaf surface and
atmosphere?

  1. rolled leaves
  2. hairy leaves
  3. sunken stomata
  4. fewer stomata
  5. fleshy leaves

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A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Chemistry (9701)

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1 / 40

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3 / 40

1.0 mol of an organic compound, J, requires 6.0 mol of oxygen for complete combustion.
1.0 mol of J reacts with sodium, producing 0.50 mol of a gas that gives a ‘pop’ with a lighted splint.
J reacts with an excess of hot acidified potassium manganate(VII) to produce an organic
compound which gives an orange-red precipitate with 2,4-DNPH reagent.
Which compound is J?

4 / 40

T is an organic compound which contains 66.7% by mass of carbon. T also contains one atom of
oxygen per molecule.
T reacts with alkaline I2(aq) to produce a yellow precipitate.
What is T?

5 / 40

Which element has the second smallest atomic radius in its group and the second highest
electrical conductivity in its period?

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7 / 40

In polymer G every carbon atom in the polymer chain is bonded to one hydrogen atom and one
methyl group.
Which alkene could be polymerised to make polymer G?

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10 / 40

Which statement for the element in Period 3 and Group 13 of the Periodic Table is correct?

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Which statement about Group 17 elements and compounds is correct?

13 / 40

The enthalpy change for neutralisation of HNO3(aq) with NaOH(aq) is –57.0 kJ mol–1.
In an experiment, 20.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 HNO3 is mixed with 30.0 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm–3 NaOH
in an insulated container. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0 °C.
It can be assumed that the heat capacity of the product mixture is 4.2 J cm–3°C–1 and that there
are no heat losses.
What is the maximum final temperature of the mixture?

14 / 40

How many esters have the molecular formula C4H8O2?

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This question refers to isolated gaseous atoms in the ground state.
In which atom are all electrons paired?

17 / 40

The ester ethyl butanoate can be hydrolysed using an excess of dilute sodium hydroxide solution.
Which substance is a product of this reaction?

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Which pair of reagents react together in a redox reaction?

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Which statement about the first ionisation energies of magnesium and neon is correct?

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25 / 40

Each of the chlorides listed is added to water.

  1. aluminium chloride
  2. magnesium chloride
  3. silicon tetrachloride
  4. phosphorus pentachloride

Which chlorides form an aqueous solution that reacts with sodium carbonate to produce
carbon dioxide?

26 / 40

Structural and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question.
P has molecular formula C5H10O.
P produces an orange precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH reagent).
How many isomeric structures does P have?

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28 / 40

Alkynes are hydrocarbons that contain one triple C≡C bond.
Like alkenes, alkynes take part in addition reactions. A saturated compound can be formed.
For example, ethyne, H–C≡C–H, reacts with an excess of hydrogen to form ethane.

Propyne, C3H4, undergoes an addition reaction with an excess of hydrogen bromide in two stages.
Markovnikov’s rule applies to the addition of HBr at each stage.
What is the main product obtained when propyne reacts with an excess of hydrogen bromide?

29 / 40

17.6 g of pentan-1-ol is completely combusted.
Which volume of gaseous products is formed when measured at s.t.p.?

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Which atom has the same number of electrons as the hydroxide ion, OH–?

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In which species are the numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons all different?

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The standard enthalpy of formation of NO2(g) is +33.2 kJ mol–1.

The standard enthalpy of formation of N2O4(g) is +9.2 kJ mol–1.

What is the standard enthalpy change for the reaction 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)?

38 / 40

Solid R is added to a solution of ammonium nitrate and the mixture is heated. A gas is given off
which turns red litmus to blue.
What could be R?

39 / 40

Which reagent:

  • can confirm the presence of a carbonyl group in an organic compound
  • does not distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?

40 / 40

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A Levels | Economics (9708)
Question Count : 30

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Economics (9708)

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1 / 30

Why does an individual’s demand curve generally slope downwards to the right?

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What would not cause a shift in the demand curve for a good?

5 / 30

What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an
increase in factor productivity?

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7 / 30

Why might a country’s government impose a tax on fuel exports?

8 / 30

Which factor of production is needed first in order to set up a new business?

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13 / 30

A supply curve is represented by the equation
quantity supplied = 10 + 5P
where P = the price of the product.
Which price rise would cause the quantity supplied to double?

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What is definitely not involved when a transfer payment is made?

16 / 30

Trade in services is a component of the current account of the balance of payments.
What is an example of a trade in services?

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Which measure is aimed directly at promoting international trade?

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Which group is most likely to suffer during high inflation?

19 / 30

What is a transfer payment?

20 / 30

A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding
a fall in output.
Which action is most likely to meet its needs?

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What is a normative economic action based on?

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The cross-elasticity of demand of good S with respect to the price of good P is +1.5.
The cross-elasticity of demand of good S with respect to the price of good R is –1.5.
The cross-elasticity of demand of good P with respect to the price of good R is –1.5.

What can be concluded about goods P, R and S?

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Which combination of events is most likely to leave the demand curve for a normal good in the
same position?

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An increase in what will shift the aggregate demand curve in an economy to the right?

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29 / 30

A factory manufactures chairs. The manufacturing process is divided into a number of tasks.
What is a likely disadvantage of this division of labour?

30 / 30

What will lead to an improvement in the terms of trade?

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A Levels | Physics (9702)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Physics (9702)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

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5 / 40

Which statement about progressive waves is correct?

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Which equation, representing uniformly accelerated motion in a straight line, can be determined
using only the definition of acceleration?

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A sound wave of wavelength 0.50 m passes through a doorway of width 1.0 m between two
rooms.
Which change increases the amount of diffraction that takes place?

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An α-particle passes close to a gold nucleus and is deflected through an angle greater than 90°.
Which property of the α-particle changes as a result of the deflection?

18 / 40

A man of mass 75 kg runs up a staircase consisting of 30 steps. Each step is 20 cm high.
The man takes a time of 7.0 s to run from the bottom of the staircase to the top.
What is the average rate of increase of gravitational potential energy of the man?

19 / 40

A diffraction grating has 4.00 × 105 lines per metre. A beam of light of wavelength 589 × 10-9m is
incident normally on the diffraction grating.
What is the angle between the second-order maximum and the direction of the incident beam of`
light?

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21 / 40

A wire carries a current of 0.10 µA. The potential difference across the wire is 10 mV.
How much energy is dissipated by the wire in a time of 10 s?

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23 / 40

A miniature loudspeaker, initially at rest, falls vertically from a window in a high building. When
the speaker has fallen a distance of 10.0 m, it emits a very short pulse of sound of constant
frequency 256 Hz in all directions. The pulse of sound, travelling at a speed of 330 m s–1, is heard
by a person leaning out of the window.
Air resistance is negligible.
What is the frequency of the pulse of sound heard by the person?

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A man standing next to a stationary train hears sound of frequency 400 Hz emitted from the
train’s horn. The train then moves directly away from the man and sounds its horn when it has a
speed of 50 m s–1. The speed of sound in the air is 340 m s–1.
What is the difference in frequency of the sound heard by the man on the two occasions?

26 / 40

Which particle is a lepton?

27 / 40

A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long
stretched spring.
Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave?

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30 / 40

What represents a physical quantity?

31 / 40

What is meant by the efficiency of a system?

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Which statement about scalar and vector quantities is correct?

35 / 40

An alpha-particle has 2.2 × 10–13 J of kinetic energy.
What is the speed of the alpha-particle?

36 / 40

An observer is standing on a railway platform. A train passes the observer at constant speed
while emitting sound of constant frequency f from its whistle.
What does the observer hear?

37 / 40

Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier?

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39 / 40

Two waves of equal frequency and amplitude are travelling in opposite directions along a stretched
string. When they meet, they form a stationary wave with three nodes and two antinodes.
The frequency of both waves is doubled and a new stationary wave is formed.
How many antinodes are there in the new stationary wave?

40 / 40

A ship of mass 8.4 × 107 kg is approaching a harbour with speed 16.4 m s–1. By using reverse
thrust it can maintain a constant total stopping force of 920 000N.
How long will it take to stop?

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