0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 1050 2100 3150 810 2 / 30 Which items would affect a sole trader’s gross profit? carriage inwards cash discounts allowed commission received trade discounts received 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 1 only 3 / 30 $85 700 $80 500 $82 500 $83 700 4 / 30 The following transactions took place. owner’s withdrawal of inventory for private use purchase of new shop fixtures on credit writing off an irrecoverable debt Which transactions would be recorded in the general journal? 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 5 / 30 C B D A 6 / 30 On 1 January 2021, W Limited had total revenue reserves of $122 000. During the year ended 31 December 2021, the following took place. A dividend of $7500 was paid. An amount of $10 000 was transferred from retained earnings to general reserve. Premises were revalued upwards by $19 800. For the year ended 31 December 2021, W Limited made a profit for the year of $32 000. What was the total of revenue reserves at 31 December 2021? $146 500 $136 500 $156 300 $141 800 7 / 30 A manufacturing company employs 20 workers who are paid a basic rate of $30 per hour for a 40-hour week. To meet a special order, the workers each worked 50 hours and were paid a premium of 40% over basic rate for the overtime. What was the value of wages paid to meet the special order? $32 400 $33 600 $30 000 $42 000 8 / 30 $10 000 $50 000 $30 000 $20 000 9 / 30 $5000 under absorbed $15 000 over absorbed $15 000 under absorbed $5000 over absorbed 10 / 30 The balance on the purchases ledger control account did not agree with the total of balances from the purchases ledger accounts. The following errors were then discovered. Contra entries had not been entered in the general journal. Debit balances on the purchases ledger had not been included in the control account. Discount allowed total had been included in the control account. Goods returned to a supplier had not been recorded in the purchases returns journal. Which errors will require entries being made in the purchases ledger? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 11 / 30 A manufacturer has a target profit of $80 000 per annum. Last year the business made a profit of $60 000 when 10 000 units were produced and sold. Contribution was $10 per unit. In order to achieve the target profit the plan is to increase advertising by $10 000 per annum. Variable cost per unit and selling price per unit will remain unchanged. What will be the total fixed cost if this plan is carried out? $50 000 $40 000 $30 000 $20 000 12 / 30 $875 000 $883 000 $867 000 $848 000 13 / 30 What may help a book-keeper detect errors in the accounting records of a business? books of original entry sales ledger control account statement of financial position trial balance 2 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 3 14 / 30 $16.875 $30 $45 $11.25 15 / 30 Which statements are correct? Dividends can be paid out of the general reserve. Rights issues can be made from the share premium account. The general reserve can be created from retained earnings. 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 2 1 only 16 / 30 X → Y → Z Z → Y → X Y → X → Z Y → Z → X 17 / 30 A business uses absorption costing to set its selling prices. Which overheads are accounted for by the use of the overhead absorption rate? variable production, administrative and selling variable production only total production only total production, administrative and selling 18 / 30 $1 056 000 $1 586 000 $1 306 000 $1 406 000 19 / 30 Frieda’s provision for the doubtful debts account for the year included a debit entry representing the change in the amount provided. The rate of provision for doubtful debts has not changed. What might have happened during the year to make this entry necessary? Credit control procedures had been improved. Credit control procedures had been reduced. Total trade receivables had decreased. Total trade receivables had increased. 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 20 / 30 P and Q were in partnership, sharing profits and losses equally. R was admitted to the partnership. The terms of R’s admission were as follows. R introduced capital of $20 000 cash and a vehicle valued at $6000. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $14 000. Goodwill was valued at $10 000, but will not be retained in the books of account. The new future profit-sharing ratio will be P, Q, R, 2 : 2: 1. What was the opening balance on R’s capital account? $28 000 $21 200 $28 800 $24 000 21 / 30 A trader bought a machine on 1 January 2019. He depreciated it at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line method. He sold this machine on 1 January 2021 for $4000. The profit on disposal was $200. How much had the machine cost on 1 January 2019? $5250 $4750 $4560 $5040 22 / 30 An employee works a 35-hour week and is paid an hourly rate of $24. In addition to basic pay she receives a bonus of 25% of her hourly rate. This is calculated using time saved against the target units produced. Each unit should take 15 minutes to produce. For a 35-hour week she produced 170 units. Of these, 2 units were rejected and her total pay was reduced by $2.50 per unit. What were her wages for the week? $885 $840 $890 $880 23 / 30 $40 000 $32 000 $28 000 $38 000 24 / 30 2.33 : 1 1.27 : 1 0.64 : 1 4.67 : 1 25 / 30 B C A D 26 / 30 In March, a company’s overhead absorption rate was $2 per machine hour. In April this rate increased. What had increased in April causing the change in the overhead absorption rate? number of actual machine hours worked number of budgeted machine hours cost of insurance for the factory hourly pay rate of production workers 27 / 30 L and M are partners sharing profits and losses equally. This year M’s share of the profit is $18 000. Next year they plan to change the partnership agreement so that L has an annual salary of $10 000 and a one-third share of any profits or losses. What does the total partnership profit for next year need to be for M to receive the same amount of profit as this year? $37 000 $42 000 $22 000 $34 000 28 / 30 $84 000 $72 000 $68 000 $60 000 29 / 30 Which statement describes a cost centre rather than a cost unit? any location where costs are incurred a measurable part of a product or service a location where only variable costs are incurred a part of a product or service for which costs are calculated 30 / 30 Which factors may cause a partnership to revalue its tangible non-current assets? admission of a new partner change in the profit-sharing ratios retirement of a partner 1 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
2 / 30
Which items would affect a sole trader’s gross profit?
3 / 30
4 / 30
The following transactions took place.
5 / 30
6 / 30
On 1 January 2021, W Limited had total revenue reserves of $122 000. During the year ended 31 December 2021, the following took place.
7 / 30
A manufacturing company employs 20 workers who are paid a basic rate of $30 per hour for a 40-hour week. To meet a special order, the workers each worked 50 hours and were paid a premium of 40% over basic rate for the overtime. What was the value of wages paid to meet the special order?
8 / 30
9 / 30
10 / 30
The balance on the purchases ledger control account did not agree with the total of balances from the purchases ledger accounts. The following errors were then discovered.
11 / 30
A manufacturer has a target profit of $80 000 per annum. Last year the business made a profit of $60 000 when 10 000 units were produced and sold. Contribution was $10 per unit. In order to achieve the target profit the plan is to increase advertising by $10 000 per annum. Variable cost per unit and selling price per unit will remain unchanged. What will be the total fixed cost if this plan is carried out?
12 / 30
13 / 30
What may help a book-keeper detect errors in the accounting records of a business?
14 / 30
15 / 30
Which statements are correct?
16 / 30
17 / 30
A business uses absorption costing to set its selling prices. Which overheads are accounted for by the use of the overhead absorption rate?
18 / 30
19 / 30
Frieda’s provision for the doubtful debts account for the year included a debit entry representing the change in the amount provided. The rate of provision for doubtful debts has not changed. What might have happened during the year to make this entry necessary?
20 / 30
P and Q were in partnership, sharing profits and losses equally. R was admitted to the partnership. The terms of R’s admission were as follows.
21 / 30
A trader bought a machine on 1 January 2019. He depreciated it at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line method. He sold this machine on 1 January 2021 for $4000. The profit on disposal was $200. How much had the machine cost on 1 January 2019?
22 / 30
An employee works a 35-hour week and is paid an hourly rate of $24. In addition to basic pay she receives a bonus of 25% of her hourly rate. This is calculated using time saved against the target units produced. Each unit should take 15 minutes to produce. For a 35-hour week she produced 170 units. Of these, 2 units were rejected and her total pay was reduced by $2.50 per unit. What were her wages for the week?
23 / 30
24 / 30
25 / 30
26 / 30
In March, a company’s overhead absorption rate was $2 per machine hour. In April this rate increased. What had increased in April causing the change in the overhead absorption rate?
27 / 30
L and M are partners sharing profits and losses equally. This year M’s share of the profit is $18 000. Next year they plan to change the partnership agreement so that L has an annual salary of $10 000 and a one-third share of any profits or losses. What does the total partnership profit for next year need to be for M to receive the same amount of profit as this year?
28 / 30
29 / 30
Which statement describes a cost centre rather than a cost unit?
30 / 30
Which factors may cause a partnership to revalue its tangible non-current assets?
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which molecule is a disaccharide and a reducing sugar? glucose fructose sucrose maltose 2 / 40 1 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 3 / 40 D C B A 4 / 40 C A D B 5 / 40 D B C A 6 / 40 Which parts of a cell contain ribosomes? chloroplast mitochondrion Golgi body cytoplasm 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 7 / 40 Which statements explain why transpiration is an inevitable consequence of gas exchange in plants? Hydrolysis reactions are taking place in cells. ATP production is occurring. Stomata must be open. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 8 / 40 Which statement describes the structure of ATP? It is a DNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates. It is a DNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates. It is an RNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates. It is an RNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates. 9 / 40 ×2.5 ×400 ×40 ×25 10 / 40 Bread contains a mixture of polypeptides known as gluten. Two of the polypeptides found in gluten are glutenin and gliadin. Which statement describes the tertiary structure of a protein? α-helical sections are found in glutenin and gliadin. A large proportion of the amino acids in gliadin are glutamine. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are found on the inside of glutenin. Disulfide bonds form between glutenin and gliadin. 11 / 40 The statements list some of the events in the cardiac cycle. They are not in the correct order. The impulse travels through Purkyne tissue. A wave of excitation sweeps across the atria The atrioventricular node delays the impulse for a fraction of a second. The sinoatrial node contracts. The wave of excitation sweeps upwards from the base of the ventricles. The ventricles contract. The atria contract. Which statement describes the sixth of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle? 3 1 4 5 12 / 40 Which pair of molecules only includes macromolecules that can be found in animal cells? collagen and glycogen amylase and amylopectin deoxyribose and starch sucrose and haemoglobin 13 / 40 C B A D 14 / 40 Which statement about B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes is correct? They produce memory cells to respond to an antigen when exposed in the future. They divide to form clones when meeting an antitoxin in a cell. They become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor. They release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate release of antibodies. 15 / 40 B C A D 16 / 40 Which statements about light microscopy are always correct? The greater the resolution of a light microscope, the greater the detail that can be seen. The greater the magnification of a light microscope, the greater the detail that can be seen. Increasing the magnification of a light microscope up to its limit of resolution allows more detail to be seen. The shorter the wavelength of light used in a light microscope, the greater the detail that can be seen. 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 17 / 40 A bacterial circular DNA molecule is 2 600 150 base pairs long. 26% of the bases are adenine. How many cytosine bases would be in the DNA molecule? 1 352 078 624 036 676 039 1 248 072 18 / 40 B D C A 19 / 40 Which feature is correct for all known viruses? non-cellular structure capsid made of lipid and protein DNA core outer envelope of phospholipid 20 / 40 C D B A 21 / 40 What happens during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart? The atrioventricular node transmits an electrical signal to the apex of the heart. The pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the atria. The atrioventricular valves close and the semilunar valves open. 2 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 3 only 22 / 40 C A B D 23 / 40 33 36 41 18 24 / 40 B D A C 25 / 40 By which process does sucrose move through phloem sieve tube elements? diffusion active transport mass flow facilitated diffusion 26 / 40 Which statements about the cardiac cycle are correct? The atrioventricular valves close during atrial systole. The left and right ventricles contract together. There is a time delay as the electrical impulse passes from the atrioventricular node to the sinoatrial node. Electrical impulses pass along the Purkyne tissue to the ventricles. 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 2 and 4 27 / 40 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 28 / 40 Which descriptions apply to phloem sieve tube elements and to xylem vessel elements? no cytoplasm no end walls no nucleus 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 29 / 40 D A C B 30 / 40 Mass flow is the bulk movement of materials from one place to another. How many of the vessels listed carry fluids by mass flow? ● artery ● phloem sieve tube ● vein ● xylem vessel 1 4 3 2 31 / 40 A student used Benedict’s solution to test a sample known to contain carbohydrate. At the end of the test the solution was blue. Which carbohydrate could be present in the sample? maltose fructose glucose sucrose 32 / 40 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 33 / 40 B A D C 34 / 40 Which statements explain the differences between a primary and a secondary response to exposure to the same antigen? The primary response is slow, because there are only a few B-lymphocytes that are specific to the antigen. The secondary response is faster, because there are many memory cells specific to the antigen. More antibodies are produced during the secondary response, because many of the memory cells differentiate into plasma cells specific to the antigen. 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 35 / 40 Which tissue types are present in the walls of all blood vessels? collagen elastic endothelial smooth muscle 1, 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 36 / 40 What describes cellulose? an unreactive linear chain of 1-4 β-glucose a branched chain of 1-4 β-glucose a branched chain of 1-4 α-glucose an unreactive linear chain of 1-4 α-glucose 37 / 40 small bronchiole only trachea and bronchus trachea only small bronchiole and bronchus 38 / 40 Which statement supports the theory of active loading of sucrose into companion cells? The pH decreases in the cytoplasm of the companion cells compared with the cell wall. The pH decreases in the sieve tube elements compared with the companion cells. The pH decreases in the companion cells and sieve tube elements. The pH decreases in the cell wall of the companion cells compared with the cytoplasm. 39 / 40 A C B D 40 / 40 Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria? They contain 80S ribosomes. They can transcribe their circular DNA. They can translate mRNA. They are enclosed by double membranes. 1, 2, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Which molecule is a disaccharide and a reducing sugar?
2 / 40
3 / 40
4 / 40
5 / 40
6 / 40
Which parts of a cell contain ribosomes?
7 / 40
Which statements explain why transpiration is an inevitable consequence of gas exchange in plants?
8 / 40
Which statement describes the structure of ATP?
9 / 40
10 / 40
Bread contains a mixture of polypeptides known as gluten. Two of the polypeptides found in gluten are glutenin and gliadin. Which statement describes the tertiary structure of a protein?
11 / 40
The statements list some of the events in the cardiac cycle. They are not in the correct order.
Which statement describes the sixth of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle?
12 / 40
Which pair of molecules only includes macromolecules that can be found in animal cells?
13 / 40
14 / 40
Which statement about B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes is correct?
15 / 40
16 / 40
Which statements about light microscopy are always correct?
17 / 40
A bacterial circular DNA molecule is 2 600 150 base pairs long. 26% of the bases are adenine. How many cytosine bases would be in the DNA molecule?
18 / 40
19 / 40
Which feature is correct for all known viruses?
20 / 40
21 / 40
What happens during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart?
22 / 40
23 / 40
24 / 40
25 / 40
By which process does sucrose move through phloem sieve tube elements?
26 / 40
Which statements about the cardiac cycle are correct?
27 / 40
28 / 40
Which descriptions apply to phloem sieve tube elements and to xylem vessel elements?
29 / 40
30 / 40
Mass flow is the bulk movement of materials from one place to another. How many of the vessels listed carry fluids by mass flow? ● artery ● phloem sieve tube ● vein ● xylem vessel
31 / 40
A student used Benedict’s solution to test a sample known to contain carbohydrate. At the end of the test the solution was blue. Which carbohydrate could be present in the sample?
32 / 40
33 / 40
34 / 40
Which statements explain the differences between a primary and a secondary response to exposure to the same antigen?
35 / 40
Which tissue types are present in the walls of all blood vessels?
36 / 40
What describes cellulose?
37 / 40
38 / 40
Which statement supports the theory of active loading of sucrose into companion cells?
39 / 40
40 / 40
Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria?
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A C B D 2 / 40 B D A C 3 / 40 B C A D 4 / 40 This question refers to isolated gaseous atoms in the ground state. In which atom are all electrons paired? S Si Ba Br 5 / 40 Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct? The reaction is slower with 1-chloropropane because the C–Cl bond is stronger than the C–Br bond. The hydrolysis reaction between water and 1-iodopropane is faster because the C–Br bond is less polar than the C–I bond. The mechanism of the reaction involves the formation of a stable carbocation. The hydrolysis reaction with water is very slow because water is a weak electrophile. 6 / 40 B C D A 7 / 40 CHCl=CHCl CH3CCl=CH2 CH2=CHCl CH3CCl=CHCl 8 / 40 Equal volumes of saturated solutions of magnesium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide and strontium hydroxide are completely neutralised with dilute sulfuric acid. The water is gently evaporated from each of the resulting solutions, leaving the corresponding solid sulfates. These solid sulfates are completely dissolved in the minimum volume of water needed to produce saturated solutions. Which statement about the volumes of water needed to dissolve the sulfates is correct? The strontium sulfate will require the greatest volume of water. They will all require the same volume of water. The calcium sulfate will require the greatest volume of water The magnesium sulfate will require the greatest volume of water. 9 / 40 Which equation represents the reaction whose standard enthalpy change is the standard enthalpy change of formation of water? 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) 2H(g) + O(g) → H2O(l) H2(g) + ½O2(g) → H2O(l) H+ (aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l) 10 / 40 Which reagents and conditions would result in the formation of butanenitrile, CH3CH2CH2CN? 1-bromobutane heated under pressure with ammonia in ethanol propanone heated with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of potassium cyanide propanal heated with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of potassium cyanide 1-bromopropane heated with potassium cyanide in ethanol 11 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction that proceeds through initiation, propagation and termination steps? C6H13CHO + HCN → C6H13CH(OH)CN C6H12 + H2O → C6H13OH C5H11Br + NaOH → C5H11OH + NaBr C4H10 + Cl2 → C4H9Cl + HCl 12 / 40 D C B A 13 / 40 Sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon and phosphorus are all elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table. Three statements about the oxides and chlorides of these elements are given. The ionically bonded oxides all react with dilute hydrochloric acid All metal chlorides produce neutral solutions when added to water The two most electronegative elements both form covalently bonded chlorides. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 14 / 40 2,5-dibromo-2-methylhexane 3,6-dibromo-2-methylhexane 2,6-dibromo-2-methylhexane 3,5-dibromo-2-methylhexane 15 / 40 Which reaction mixture produces an acidic gas? calcium and aqueous hydrochloric acid sodium oxide and water potassium chloride and concentrated sulfuric acid aqueous ammonium nitrate and solid calcium oxide 16 / 40 A C D B 17 / 40 D C A B 18 / 40 The nitrogen partial pressure is increased to 150 kPa. The iron is removed. Both the nitrogen and hydrogen partial pressures are changed to 100 kPa. The temperature is increased to 500 °C. 19 / 40 Which statement about the first ionisation energies of magnesium and neon is correct? Magnesium has the greater numerical value and both are exothermic. Neon has the greater numerical value and both are exothermic. Neon has the greater numerical value and both are endothermic. Magnesium has the greater numerical value and both are endothermic. 20 / 40 If 1 mole of hexane combusts in an excess of oxygen, how many moles of products are formed? 11 12 14 13 21 / 40 D B A C 22 / 40 6 4 2 5 23 / 40 C D B A 24 / 40 LiAlH4 contains AlH4– ions in which aluminium has an oxidation state of +3. LiAlH4 reacts with water, as shown. LiAlH4 + 4H2O → 4H2 + LiOH + Al(OH)3 In this reaction, each of the four water molecules produces one hydroxide ion. It does this by losing one H+ ion, which reacts with the LiAlH4. Which changes in oxidation number occur in this reaction? H decreases by 2 and also increases by 1. H increases by 1 and also decreases by 1. Al increases by 1 and H decreases by 1. O decreases by 1 and H increases by 1. 25 / 40 A D B C 26 / 40 207.67 207.25 207.50 207.00 27 / 40 D A B C 28 / 40 Two moles of VO2+ions react with one mole of zinc atoms in the presence of dilute acid. The products include Zn2+ ions and an ion, Y. Ion Y contains vanadium. Only zinc and vanadium change oxidation state in the reaction. What is ion Y? VO3– VO2+ VO+ VO22+ 29 / 40 A student adds 3 mol of acidified K2Cr2O7 to an excess of I– ions. The chromium is all reduced to Cr3+ and I– ions are oxidised to I2. The I2 released is reduced back to I– ions by X mol of S2O3 2– ions. 1 mol of I2 is reduced by 2 mol of S2O3 2– ions. What is the value of X? 18 3 9 6 30 / 40 C A B D 31 / 40 A student mixes 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide solution with 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid. The temperature increases by 2.5 °C. No heat is lost to the surroundings. The final mixture has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J cm-3K-1. What is the molar enthalpy change for the reaction? –60 kJ mol-1 –30 kJ mol-1 –0.15 kJ mol-1 –150 kJ mol-1 32 / 40 0.318 mol dm–3 0.636 mol dm–3 0.252 mol dm–3 0.175 mol dm–3 33 / 40 Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium? There are more delocalised electrons in calcium than in barium as it has a lower ionisation energy The structure of calcium is partly giant molecular. There is greater repulsion between barium atoms as they have more complete electron shells than calcium atoms Calcium cations are smaller than barium cations and have a stronger attraction to the delocalised electrons. 34 / 40 D A B C 35 / 40 B A D C 36 / 40 B A C D 37 / 40 Which pair of alcohols are isomers of each other? butan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol pentan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol butan-1-ol and 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol 38 / 40 D B A C 39 / 40 B C A D 40 / 40 0.50 mol 1.17 mol 2.50 mol 1.33 mol NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
This question refers to isolated gaseous atoms in the ground state. In which atom are all electrons paired?
Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct?
Equal volumes of saturated solutions of magnesium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide and strontium hydroxide are completely neutralised with dilute sulfuric acid. The water is gently evaporated from each of the resulting solutions, leaving the corresponding solid sulfates. These solid sulfates are completely dissolved in the minimum volume of water needed to produce saturated solutions. Which statement about the volumes of water needed to dissolve the sulfates is correct?
Which equation represents the reaction whose standard enthalpy change is the standard enthalpy change of formation of water?
Which reagents and conditions would result in the formation of butanenitrile, CH3CH2CH2CN?
Which equation represents a reaction that proceeds through initiation, propagation and termination steps?
Sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon and phosphorus are all elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table. Three statements about the oxides and chlorides of these elements are given.
Which reaction mixture produces an acidic gas?
Which statement about the first ionisation energies of magnesium and neon is correct?
If 1 mole of hexane combusts in an excess of oxygen, how many moles of products are formed?
LiAlH4 contains AlH4– ions in which aluminium has an oxidation state of +3. LiAlH4 reacts with water, as shown.
LiAlH4 + 4H2O → 4H2 + LiOH + Al(OH)3
In this reaction, each of the four water molecules produces one hydroxide ion. It does this by losing one H+ ion, which reacts with the LiAlH4. Which changes in oxidation number occur in this reaction?
Two moles of VO2+ions react with one mole of zinc atoms in the presence of dilute acid. The products include Zn2+ ions and an ion, Y. Ion Y contains vanadium. Only zinc and vanadium change oxidation state in the reaction. What is ion Y?
A student adds 3 mol of acidified K2Cr2O7 to an excess of I– ions.
The chromium is all reduced to Cr3+ and I– ions are oxidised to I2.
The I2 released is reduced back to I– ions by X mol of S2O3 2– ions.
1 mol of I2 is reduced by 2 mol of S2O3 2– ions.
What is the value of X?
A student mixes 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide solution with 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid. The temperature increases by 2.5 °C. No heat is lost to the surroundings.
The final mixture has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J cm-3K-1.
What is the molar enthalpy change for the reaction?
Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium?
Which pair of alcohols are isomers of each other?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 An increase in what will shift the aggregate demand curve in an economy to the right? consumer savings general price level budget deficit interest rate 2 / 30 Which statement correctly describes the shape of the demand curve for a normal good? It shows a positive relationship between income and quantity demanded. It shows a positive relationship between the price of the good and quantity demanded. It shows an inverse relationship between income and quantity demanded. It shows an inverse relationship between the price of the good and quantity demanded. 3 / 30 What is not a function of money? It is a measure of satisfaction. It is a medium of exchange. It is a unit of account. It is a store of value. 4 / 30 The £ depreciated against the US$ and appreciated against the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and depreciated against the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and the € The £ depreciated against the US$ and the €. 5 / 30 What would be the best policy to increase the value of a currency? Impose tariffs on imported goods with price-inelastic demand. Increase interest rates. Sell the currency on the foreign exchange markets. Reduce income tax. 6 / 30 B C D A 7 / 30 A change in which factor will be least likely to alter a consumer’s ability to pay for a product? a consumer’s income a change in the price of the product a consumer’s tastes a fall in the tax on goods and services 8 / 30 Which measure to correct a balance of payments current account deficit would be classified as an expenditure-reducing policy? an introduction of foreign exchange controls a revaluation of the currency an increase in direct taxes a reduction in interest rates 9 / 30 What is unlikely to occur with an increase in the provision of public goods? opportunity cost reduction in tax consumer non-excludability improved use of resources 10 / 30 A C B D 11 / 30 Which factor of production is needed first in order to set up a new business? enterprise capital land labour 12 / 30 What is least likely to rise as a result of the use of expansionary fiscal policy? nominal income aggregate demand inflation budget surplus 13 / 30 X and Y are substitutes. X and Y are in joint supply. Y is a derived demand from X. X and Y are complements. 14 / 30 an initial fall in consumer expenditure followed by a rise an initial rise in consumer expenditure followed by a fall a fall in consumer expenditure across the whole period a rise in consumer expenditure across the whole period 15 / 30 B D A C 16 / 30 In which situation will a country’s terms of trade improve? The prices of its imports rise by less than the prices of its exports. Its volume of imports rises less than its volume of exports. Its total value of imports rises less than its total value of exports. The value of its external payments rises by less than the value of its external receipts. 17 / 30 It will encourage the development of renewable sources of electricity. It will increase the probability of power cuts. It will increase producer surplus. It will encourage producers to build more power stations in the future. 18 / 30 B A D C 19 / 30 Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax? import duties in Brazil that are imposed on imported goods corporation tax in India that is imposed on the profits of companies stamp duty in Malaysia that is the tax on the purchase of a residential property specific tax in South Africa imposed on the purchase of cigarettes 20 / 30 Gini coefficients are not comparable between income and wealth because one is a flow concept and the other is a stock concept. Wealth inequality is greater in country P than in country Q. Income inequality is greater in country P than in country Q. Wealth inequality is greater than income inequality in both countries. 21 / 30 x x – y x + y y 22 / 30 A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its balance of payments. What is likely to decrease as a consequence? the prices of imports into the country the prices of imports into the country the exports of capital from the country the level of employment in the country 23 / 30 What will be the result of a subsidy that is given to the producers of a good with an inelastic demand curve? The equilibrium price of the good will fall by a larger percentage than the rise in equilibrium quantity. The equilibrium price of the good will fall by a smaller percentage than the rise in equilibrium quantity. The equilibrium price of the good will fall by a smaller percentage than the fall in equilibrium quantity. The equilibrium price of the good will fall by a larger percentage than the fall in equilibrium quantity. 24 / 30 Which change will not affect the balance of payments current account? a rise in foreign aid flows a rise in export and import prices a rise in foreign direct investment a rise in international exchange rates 25 / 30 PQUT ORWY PRWT QRWU 26 / 30 D C A B 27 / 30 B C A D 28 / 30 Which list has the most words that are more likely to relate to a positive statement than to a normative statement? contestable, is, motive, subjective, moral bias, objective, ought, opinion, tastes describe, better, should, value, emotion actual, ethics, fact, was, testable 29 / 30 Why does the basic economic problem of scarcity apply to both the rich and the poor? Human wants exceed what can be produced from available resources. Natural resources are unevenly distributed amongst nations. The choices people make are not dependent on income inequalities. Consumers pay the same prices for goods and services to satisfy their wants. 30 / 30 The terms of trade have deteriorated. The volume of imports increasingly exceeds the volume of exports. Export prices have increased each year. The general level of prices has fallen. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
An increase in what will shift the aggregate demand curve in an economy to the right?
Which statement correctly describes the shape of the demand curve for a normal good?
What is not a function of money?
What would be the best policy to increase the value of a currency?
A change in which factor will be least likely to alter a consumer’s ability to pay for a product?
Which measure to correct a balance of payments current account deficit would be classified as an expenditure-reducing policy?
What is unlikely to occur with an increase in the provision of public goods?
Which factor of production is needed first in order to set up a new business?
What is least likely to rise as a result of the use of expansionary fiscal policy?
In which situation will a country’s terms of trade improve?
Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax?
A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its balance of payments. What is likely to decrease as a consequence?
What will be the result of a subsidy that is given to the producers of a good with an inelastic demand curve?
Which change will not affect the balance of payments current account?
Which list has the most words that are more likely to relate to a positive statement than to a normative statement?
Why does the basic economic problem of scarcity apply to both the rich and the poor?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 B C D A 2 / 40 A solid wooden cube rests on a horizontal surface. What gives the pressure exerted by the weight of the cube on the horizontal surface? the product of the acceleration of free fall, the density and the area of one face of the cube the product of the acceleration of free fall and the density of the cube the product of the acceleration of free fall, the density and the side length of the cube the product of the acceleration of free fall, the density and the volume of the cube 3 / 40 They have the same average speed. They travel the same distance. They have the same displacement. They have the same average velocity. 4 / 40 C D A B 5 / 40 200 Hz 100 Hz 300 Hz 500 Hz 6 / 40 1.6 0.13 0.63 8.0 7 / 40 An object is moving along the ground in a straight line at a constant speed. Which statement about the resultant force acting on the object is correct? The resultant force acting on the object is equal to the resistive force. The resultant force acting on the object is equal to zero. The resultant force acting on the object is equal to its weight. The resultant force acting on the object is equal to the product of its mass and its velocity. 8 / 40 the area under the graph the gradient of the graph twice the area under the graph the reciprocal of the gradient of the graph 9 / 40 A spring has an unstretched length of 4.50 cm. The spring is fixed at one end and a force of 35.0N is applied to the other end so that the spring extends. The spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a spring constant of 420 N m–1. What is the strain of the extended spring? 1.85 0.083 2.67 0.019 10 / 40 A C B D 11 / 40 D A B C 12 / 40 A technical article about diesel engines expresses the energy available from diesel fuel both as 41.8 MJ kg–1 and as 34.9GJ m–3. What is the density of diesel fuel? 1.20 × 106 kg m–3 8.35 × 105 kg m–3 1.20 × 103 kg m–3 8.35 × 102 kg m–3 13 / 40 1100 Hz 680 Hz 1400 Hz 430 Hz 14 / 40 Which unit is not an SI base unit? s A kg C 15 / 40 B C A D 16 / 40 T = P + W P = T cosθ and W = T sinθ W = P tanθ and W = T cosθ T2 = P2 + W2 17 / 40 A car is travelling at a constant velocity directly towards a man standing in the middle of the road. The driver sounds the car’s horn as a warning. The horn emits a sound wave of constant frequency. The frequency of the sound heard by the man is different from the frequency of the sound emitted by the horn. Which statement is correct? The sound waves continually accelerate as they move from the horn to the man. The wavelength of the sound heard by the man is less than the wavelength of the sound emitted by the horn. The frequency of the sound heard by the man depends on the distance between the car and the man. The frequency of the sound emitted by the horn is greater than the frequency of the sound heard by the man. 18 / 40 B D C A 19 / 40 A continuous progressive water wave in a ripple tank passes through a gap in a barrier and diffracts. The width of the gap is greater than the wavelength of the wave. Which change causes the wave to spread over a larger angle as it passes through the gap? a small decrease in the width of the gap a small increase in the frequency of the wave a small decrease in the wavelength of the wave a small increase in the height of the barrier 20 / 40 A D C B 21 / 40 In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone? The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons. The nucleus is charged. Most of the atom is empty space. Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus. 22 / 40 Which pair of quantities are physical quantities? charge and ampere period and potential difference pascal and strain efficiency and kilogram 23 / 40 A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm. Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk. Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5 ± 0.5) cm. Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4 ± 0.1) cm. Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct? It is less accurate but more precise than the measurement of student Y. It is less accurate and less precise than the measurement of student Y. It is more accurate and more precise than the measurement of student Y. It is more accurate but less precise than the measurement of student Y. 24 / 40 A B D C 25 / 40 A nucleus X is radioactive and decays into a nucleus Y. X and Y are isotopes of the same element. Which combination of particles could have been emitted during the decay process? 2 α-particles and 1 β– particle 1 α-particle and 1 β– particle 1 α-particle and 2 β– particles 2 α-particles and 2 β– particles 26 / 40 Which quantity is a physical quantity? potential difference flavour kelvin minute 27 / 40 C A D B 28 / 40 B C D A 29 / 40 A B C D 30 / 40 2000Pa 780Pa 1200Pa 1600Pa 31 / 40 A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long stretched spring. Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave? The displacement measurements for the particles of the two waves are made at right angles to each other. The wavelength measurements for the two waves are made at right angles to each other. The velocities of the two waves are in the same direction. The energy transferred by the two waves is in the same direction. 32 / 40 B A C D 33 / 40 The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water? 4.19 s 3.75 s 4.19 s 3.99 s 34 / 40 Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point. Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the waves meet? The two waves must be emitted from their sources with the same intensity. The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions. The two waves must have the same amplitude at the point. The two waves must be in phase with each other at the point. 35 / 40 An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm. The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J. What is the stretched length of the spring? 5.0 cm 6.0 cm 8.0 cm 3.0 cm 36 / 40 7.36 m s–1 0.750 m s–1 3.00 m s–1 29.4 m s–1 37 / 40 0.87 I30 0.25 I30 0.75 I30 0.33 I30 38 / 40 A student attempts to derive the formula for kinetic energy EK. She begins by considering an object of mass m which is initially at rest. A constant force F applied to the object causes it to accelerate to final velocity v in displacement s. The kinetic energy gained by the object is equal to the work done on the object by the force F. Which equation would the student not need in order to derive the formula for EK? F = ma E = ½Fs v2 = u2 + 2as W = Fs 39 / 40 A sprinter takes a time of 11.0 s to run a 100 m race. She first accelerates uniformly from rest, reaching a speed of 10 ms–1. She then runs at a constant speed of 10 ms–1 until the finish line. What is the uniform acceleration of the sprinter for the first part of the race? 0.91 ms–2 1.7 ms–2 5.0 ms–2 0.5 ms–2 40 / 40 the velocity of the car the resultant force on the car the rate of change of kinetic energy of the car the kinetic energy of the car NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
A solid wooden cube rests on a horizontal surface. What gives the pressure exerted by the weight of the cube on the horizontal surface?
An object is moving along the ground in a straight line at a constant speed. Which statement about the resultant force acting on the object is correct?
A spring has an unstretched length of 4.50 cm. The spring is fixed at one end and a force of 35.0N is applied to the other end so that the spring extends. The spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a spring constant of 420 N m–1. What is the strain of the extended spring?
A technical article about diesel engines expresses the energy available from diesel fuel both as 41.8 MJ kg–1 and as 34.9GJ m–3. What is the density of diesel fuel?
Which unit is not an SI base unit?
A car is travelling at a constant velocity directly towards a man standing in the middle of the road. The driver sounds the car’s horn as a warning. The horn emits a sound wave of constant frequency. The frequency of the sound heard by the man is different from the frequency of the sound emitted by the horn. Which statement is correct?
A continuous progressive water wave in a ripple tank passes through a gap in a barrier and diffracts. The width of the gap is greater than the wavelength of the wave. Which change causes the wave to spread over a larger angle as it passes through the gap?
In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone?
Which pair of quantities are physical quantities?
A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm. Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk. Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5 ± 0.5) cm. Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4 ± 0.1) cm. Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct?
A nucleus X is radioactive and decays into a nucleus Y. X and Y are isotopes of the same element. Which combination of particles could have been emitted during the decay process?
Which quantity is a physical quantity?
A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long stretched spring. Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave?
The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?
Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point. Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the waves meet?
An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm. The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J. What is the stretched length of the spring?
A student attempts to derive the formula for kinetic energy EK. She begins by considering an object of mass m which is initially at rest. A constant force F applied to the object causes it to accelerate to final velocity v in displacement s. The kinetic energy gained by the object is equal to the work done on the object by the force F. Which equation would the student not need in order to derive the formula for EK?
A sprinter takes a time of 11.0 s to run a 100 m race. She first accelerates uniformly from rest, reaching a speed of 10 ms–1. She then runs at a constant speed of 10 ms–1 until the finish line.
What is the uniform acceleration of the sprinter for the first part of the race?
