HomeCambridge International AS & A Level Past papers Cambridge international AS & A Level Past Papers Practice Practice with Past Papers Question Bank – Different Questions every time A Levels | Accounting (9706) A Levels | Biology (9700) A Levels | Chemistry (9701) A Levels | Economics (9708) A Levels | Physics (9702) 0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 23.88% 33.29% 54.71% 45.29% 2 / 30 $883 000 $848 000 $867 000 $875 000 3 / 30 O → N → M M → O → N N → O → M M → N → O 4 / 30 material X only material Y only all three inputs direct labour only 5 / 30 Charlie and Daphne are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :1. Their fixed capital account balances at 31 December 2019 were $20 000 and $13 000 respectively. They changed the terms of the partnership on 1 January 2020 to introduce interest on capital at the rate of 10% per annum. Which effect did this change have on Charlie’s total share of profit for the year ended 31 December 2020? decrease of $700 increase of $700 decrease of $200 increase of $200 6 / 30 X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital account balances of $200 000. Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account. Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000. How much capital did Z contribute? $70 000 $20 000 $40 000 $50 000 7 / 30 X and Y were in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. Z was admitted as a partner and the profit and loss sharing ratio for X, Y and Z will be 2 :2 :1 respectively. On the date of admission, the value of non-current assets was increased by $48 000. Goodwill was valued at $30 000 but would not be retained in the books of account. What was the effect on X’s capital account? increased by $31 200 increased by $27 000 increased by $19 200 increased by $24 000 8 / 30 A business receives rent from letting part of its premises. On 1 January 2022, there was a balance brought forward of $1000 in the rent receivable account in respect of one month’s rent received in advance. During the year ended 31 December 2022, the business received further amounts totalling $13 000 to cover the period from 1 February 2022 to 31 January 2023. A rent increase of 10% was introduced from 1 April 2022. The statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 2022 incorrectly included an amount of $13 000 for rent receivable. What was the effect of this error on the profit for the year? $100 understated $1100 overstated $1100 understated $100 overstated 9 / 30 Which costs are charged to individual jobs in a job costing system? direct labour plus direct materials plus production overhead direct labour plus direct materials direct labour plus production overhead direct materials plus production overhead 10 / 30 X is a sole trader. Which statement about X is correct? Her accounts include both a capital and a current account. She can take drawings in excess of the profit for the year. She can receive an annual salary. She can receive interest on the capital she has invested in the business. 11 / 30 A C D B 12 / 30 1.20 times 1.58 times 6.42 times 4.86 times 13 / 30 14.0% 15.9% 11.3% 8.1% 14 / 30 Goods, $1200, sent to a customer on a sale or return basis have not been recorded in the sales journal. Which accounting concept has been applied? materiality realisation matching going concern 15 / 30 D A B C 16 / 30 How might an under-absorption of overheads arise? Overheads have been over-budgeted. Overheads have been under-budgeted. Production was less than budgeted. Production was more than budgeted. 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 17 / 30 $21 400 $20 800 $18 600 $19 200 18 / 30 362 500 325 813 19 / 30 Which actions would, in general, improve the acid test ratio of a business in the short term? delaying trade payables selling inventory selling surplus non-current assets trade receivables paying their debts 3 only 2 and 3 1 and 4 4 only 20 / 30 Which item is an example of capital expenditure? cost of repairs to an office building cost of repainting business name on delivery van legal cost paid to purchase an office building legal cost to collect outstanding receivables 21 / 30 B A C D 22 / 30 Which of these items require entries to be made in the general journal? purchase of a non-current asset on credit sale of inventory to a customer on credit the owner taking drawings from their business in cash writing off an irrecoverable debt 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 23 / 30 Why does a business prepare budgets? to control their expenditure to value the assets and liabilities of the organisation to assess their non-financial performance to strategically plan several years ahead 24 / 30 A partnership maintains separate capital accounts and current accounts. Which statements are correct? The capital accounts represent the retained earnings of the business. The capital accounts show the total amount owed to each partner. The capital accounts and current accounts equal the net assets. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 1 and 2 25 / 30 Which statements concerning the use of a budgetary control system are correct? Managers should receive a copy of the budget. Managers should agree with the aims and objectives of the budget. Managers should be consulted when the budget is prepared. Managers should be committed to attaining budget outcomes. 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 26 / 30 At the end of the year, Barack’s draft accounts showed a capital account balance of $4300. His drawings account included a debit entry of $150 for goods taken for his own use. Barack realised that this entry had been recorded in error at selling price rather than cost price. He sells goods with a mark-up of 50%. What is the correct closing capital account balance? $4225 $4350 $4250 $4300 27 / 30 $600 000 $440 000 $360 000 $400 000 28 / 30 C B A D 29 / 30 Which group would appear only on the credit side of a sales ledger control account? irrecoverable debts written off, cash refunds, sales cash refunds, contras with the purchases ledger control accounts, sales returns cash refunds, contras with the purchases ledger control accounts, sales irrecoverable debts written off, cash received, discounts allowed 30 / 30 A business marks up all of its products by 20% on total cost to calculate a selling price. Each unit of product uses 4 hours of direct labour and 2 kilos of direct material. The correct overhead absorption rate to be used is $8 per direct labour hour. In error the book-keeper used a rate of $13 per direct labour hour. What was the effect of this error on the selling price of one unit of the product? $12 $24 $5 $20 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct? It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase. It prevents blood from becoming too acidic by removing excess hydrogen ions. It can only occur when oxygen associates with haemoglobin. 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 / 40 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can form between two single water molecules? 2 4 1 3 3 / 40 β-glucose and β-galactose α-glucose and β-galactose α-glucose and α-galactose β-glucose and α-galactose 4 / 40 Which disease is caused by a eukaryote? malaria smallpox measles cholera 5 / 40 C B A D 6 / 40 Which set of steps is the best method for conducting the emulsion test for lipids? Add 2 cm3 of water to the sample. Pour the water into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of ethanol. Lipids are present if the mixture becomes cloudy. Add 2 cm3 of water to the sample and shake. Pour the water into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of ethanol and boil. Lipids are present if the mixture becomes cloudy. Add 2 cm3 of ethanol to the sample and shake. Pour the ethanol into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of water and boil. Lipids are present if the mixture becomes clear. Add 2 cm3 of ethanol to the sample and shake. Pour the ethanol into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of water and shake again. Lipids are present if the mixture becomes cloudy. 7 / 40 What is an effect of an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood? increased concentration of haemoglobinic acid decreased concentration of hydrogencarbonate ions in blood plasma increased movement of chloride ions out of red blood cells decreased concentration of carbaminohaemoglobin 8 / 40 Which statement is correct? Sucrose, deoxyribose and amylopectin are all polysaccharides. Cellulose, glucose and catalase are all polymers. Deoxyribose, fructose and ribose are all monosaccharides. Amylase, ribose and phospholipid are all macromolecules. 9 / 40 D B A C 10 / 40 D C A B 11 / 40 non-immobilised, 75 ºC immobilised, 75 ºC immobilised, 37 ºC non-immobilised, 37 ºC 12 / 40 D C B A 13 / 40 C B D A 14 / 40 D C A B 15 / 40 The jellyfish, Turritopsis dohrnii, is described as being immortal. If T. dohrnii is not eaten by predators or diseased, it seems to be able to live forever. There is no way to determine the biological age of a T. dohrnii individual. Which feature of the cells in T. dohrnii could explain these observations? a very short S phase in the cell cycle fewer chromosomes than other eukaryotic organisms an ability to restore telomeres to their original length very long G phases in the cell cycle 16 / 40 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 17 / 40 The eyepiece of a microscope is fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer scale is placed on the microscope. Which statements about the stage micrometer scale are correct? The scale can be used to measure the actual length of cells directly. The scale allows you to calibrate the eyepiece graticule. Less of the scale is visible as the objective lens changes from 10 to 40. 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 18 / 40 A cuboidal epithelium cell has a length of 2 µm. The cell is an approximate cube shape. What is the most accurate estimate of the surface area : volume ratio of this cuboidal epithelium cell? 1 : 2 2 : 1 1 : 3 3 : 1 19 / 40 An indicator mixed with agar forms a pink colour. The pink-coloured agar becomes colourless when put in acid. Blocks of pink-coloured agar are cut to different sizes and put in acid. All other variables are kept constant. Which block becomes colourless most quickly? 6 mm × 12 mm × 12 mm 6 mm × 6 mm × 6 mm 12 mm × 12 mm × 12 mm 3 mm × 30 mm × 30 mm 20 / 40 During metaphase, a scientist stains the chromosomes of a diploid animal cell with fluorescent dye to allow the telomeres to be observed. This cell has 26 chromosomes. How many telomeres will the scientist observe? 104 52 78 26 21 / 40 A D C B 22 / 40 D C A B 23 / 40 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 24 / 40 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 4 and 6 3, 4, 5 and 6 2, 3 and 5 25 / 40 170μm 80μm 14μm 140μm 26 / 40 1, 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 only 27 / 40 Hexose sugars and water molecules are joined by condensation reactions to make alginic acid. Alginic acid is a linear polysaccharide containing 1,6 glycosidic bonds between each hexose sugar. Alginic acid is formed from two monomers joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds. Alternate monosaccharides are arranged in opposite directions; this is also seen in glycogen molecules. 28 / 40 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 29 / 40 Which feature is visible with a light microscope using a natural light source? phospholipid bilayer of width 8 nm ribosome of diameter 20 nm DNA molecule of diameter 2 nm Paramecium cell of diameter 200 µm 30 / 40 A gene codes for the production of a protein, p53, that binds to damaged DNA during interphase and prevents its replication. A carcinogen in cigarette smoke mutates the gene coding for the p53 protein, preventing production of the protein. Which statement explains why this mutation may cause cancer? Cells with no p53 are able to undergo mitosis. Cells with no p53 replicate their damaged DNA. The carcinogen in cigarette smoke increases the rate of cell division. The mutated p53 causes uncontrolled cell division. 31 / 40 B D A C 32 / 40 B D C A 33 / 40 A D C B 34 / 40 D A B C 35 / 40 Insulin is a globular protein involved in cell signalling. It is transported in the blood plasma from the cells that synthesise it to its target cells. A molecule of insulin contains six sulfur-containing amino acids and has two polypeptide chains. Which statements about insulin are correct? An insulin molecule has a quaternary structure. Insulin polypeptides are held together by six disulfide bonds. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups would be found in the centre of an insulin molecule. 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 36 / 40 Which transport mechanism does not require a concentration gradient to be present in order to take place? facilitated diffusion transpiration osmosis exocytosis 37 / 40 How many of these processes produce genetically identical cells? ● growth of plant roots ● replacement of dead human skin cells ● repair of damaged muscle tissue ● asexual reproduction of coral 3 4 1 2 38 / 40 A student wrote three statements about cell signalling. A signal chemical always has the same shape as a protein receptor on a target cell. An increase in temperature may decrease the effect of cell to cell signalling. A mutation may decrease production of active protein receptors for the cell surface membrane. Which statements are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 only 39 / 40 Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable temperature? It has a low specific heat capacity. It has a high latent heat of vaporisation. It has a low latent heat of vaporisation. It has a high specific heat capacity. 40 / 40 centriole vesicle lysosome ribosome NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Compound X, C5H10O3, has one chiral carbon atom per molecule. Compound X produces bubbles with Na but not with Na2CO3. Which formula could represent compound X? (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>C(OH)CO<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> CH<sub>3</sub>CH(OH)CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)CO<sub>2</sub>H HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)CO<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C(CH<sub>3</sub>)(OH)CO<sub>2</sub>H 2 / 40 1.33 mol 0.50 mol 1.17 mol 2.50 mol 3 / 40 D C A B 4 / 40 Which statement about aluminium chloride is correct? Anhydrous aluminium chloride reacts vigorously with water to form a solution with a pH greater than 7. Aluminium chloride has a much higher melting point than magnesium chloride due to the small size of the aluminium ion. The bonding between aluminium and chlorine is strongly ionic due to the large difference in electronegativity. Each Al2Cl6 molecule found in aluminium chloride vapour contains two coordinate bonds. 5 / 40 D C A B 6 / 40 A B D C 7 / 40 C D A B 8 / 40 The enthalpy change for neutralisation of HNO3(aq) with NaOH(aq) is –57.0 kJ mol–1. In an experiment, 20.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 HNO3 is mixed with 30.0 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm–3 NaOH in an insulated container. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0 °C. It can be assumed that the heat capacity of the product mixture is 4.2 J cm–3°C–1 and that there are no heat losses. What is the maximum final temperature of the mixture? 41.3°C 46.7°C 52.1°C 44.0°C 9 / 40 Three statements about potassium and chlorine and their ions are listed. The atomic radius of a potassium atom is greater than the atomic radius of a chlorine atom. The first ionisation energy of potassium is greater than the first ionisation energy of chlorine. The ionic radius of a potassium ion is greater than the ionic radius of a chloride ion. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 only 2 only 10 / 40 The ionic equation shows iodide ions reacting with manganate(VII) ions in acidic solution. uMnO4– + vH+ + wI – → xMn2+ + yH2O + zI2 The letters u, v, w, x, y and z all represent whole numbers. Two or more of u, v, w, x, y and z are the same as each other. What is the lowest possible value of v ? 8 2 16 10 11 / 40 What is the least number of carbon atoms in a non-cyclic alkane molecule that has a chiral centre? 9 7 10 8 12 / 40 A D B C 13 / 40 Which type of reaction happens during the hydrolysis of 2-bromopropane? free radical substitution nucleophilic substitution nucleophilic addition electrophilic addition 14 / 40 B C D A 15 / 40 Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct? Silver iodide is soluble in a concentrated aqueous solution of ammonia. The square planar ammonium ion contains a dative covalent bond. Ammonia gas is produced when an aqueous solution containing the ammonium ion is reacted with a strong acid. The ammonium ion has the same number of electrons as a methane molecule. 16 / 40 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 17 / 40 At least one of the recorded observations is incorrect. The compound was sodium chloride, NaCl. The compound was phosphorus pentachloride, PCl5. The compound was magnesium chloride, MgCl2. 18 / 40 In this question, alkenes and cyclic alkanes should be considered. How many structural isomers of C4H8 are there? 6 5 4 3 19 / 40 Ions of Z are positively charged. Ions of V and Z have the same number of full electron shells. V has more outer electrons than Z. Z has a greater electronegativity than V. 20 / 40 Which reagent will react with pentan-3-ol to give a mixture of stereoisomers? hydrogen chloride concentrated sulfuric acid acidified potassium dichromate ethanoic acid in the presence of a little concentrated H2SO4 21 / 40 The equation shows a reaction that occurs between carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide in a catalytic converter. 2CO(g)+2NO(g)→2CO2(g)+N2(g) Which statement is correct? The reaction reduces the possibility of the formation of photochemical smog. The reaction results in increased ozone depletion. The reaction prevents greenhouse gas emissions into the atmosphere. The catalyst used is finely divided iron. 22 / 40 –61 kJ mol–1 +61 kJ mol–1 +753 kJ mol–1 –753 kJ mol–1 23 / 40 D A C B 24 / 40 D A C B 25 / 40 D A B C 26 / 40 Which atom has the same number of electrons as the hydroxide ion, OH–? Mg F Na Ne 27 / 40 C A B D 28 / 40 Element X has the second largest atomic radius in its period. An atom of X has three occupied electron shells only. The oxide of X is shaken with water. What could be the pH of the resulting solution? 14 5 9 7 29 / 40 Mixture R consists of one mole of C3H6 and one mole of C4H6. What is the minimum number of moles of oxygen molecules needed for complete combustion of mixture R? 7 10 20 6.5 30 / 40 D A C B 31 / 40 How many bonds are present in one H–C≡C–C(CH3)=CH(CH3) molecule? 5 11 13 16 32 / 40 Iodine and propanone react according to the following equation. I2(aq) + CH3COCH3(aq) → CH3COCH2I(aq) + HI(aq) If the concentration of propanone is increased, keeping the total reaction volume constant, the initial rate of the reaction also increases. What could be the reason for this? The particles are further apart at the higher concentration. The particles have more energy at the higher concentration. There are more collisions per second between particles at the higher concentration. A greater proportion of collisions are successful at the higher concentration 33 / 40 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. How many isomeric compounds with molecular formula C5H6O4 contain two –CO2H groups and one C=C double bond? 7 6 8 5 34 / 40 In the mass spectrum of a compound, Z, the relative abundances of the M and M+1 peaks are in the ratio 13 :1. What is compound Z? butyl butanoate hexan-3-one 2,2,3-trimethylhexane 3,3-dimethylpentan-1-ol 35 / 40 What is the electronic configuration of Mg2+? 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2 4s2 1s2 2s2 2p6 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 36 / 40 A student mixed 25.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid with an equal volume of 4.00 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide. The initial temperature of both solutions was 15.0°C. The maximum temperature recorded was 30.0°C. The heat capacity of the final solution can be assumed to be 4.18 J K-1 g-1 and the density of this solution can be assumed to be 1.00 g cm-3. Using these results, what is the enthalpy change of neutralisation of hydrochloric acid? –15.7 kJ mol-1 –31.4 kJ mol-1 –3.14 kJ mol-1 –62.7 kJ mol-1 37 / 40 Which compound produces butan-2-ol and ethanoic acid on hydrolysis? CH3CH(CH3)CO2CH2CH3 CH3CO2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 CH3CO2CH(CH3)2 CH3CH2CO2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 38 / 40 a decrease in pressure a decrease in temperature an increase in pressure an increase in temperature 39 / 40 Which pair of alcohols are isomers of each other? butan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol butan-1-ol and 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol pentan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol 40 / 40 Which reagents and conditions would result in the formation of butanenitrile, CH3CH2CH2CN? propanone heated with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of potassium cyanide propanal heated with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of potassium cyanide 1-bromobutane heated under pressure with ammonia in ethanol 1-bromopropane heated with potassium cyanide in ethanol NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 The prices of a country’s exports rise by 5% while the prices of its imports fall by 5%. What will definitely improve in the country as a result of these changes? exchange rate current account balance terms of trade balance of trade 2 / 30 Economic growth leads to increased levels of income and consumption per capita for the adult population. Which circumstances are needed for this to happen in an economy? an increase in economic efficiency through higher productivity of factor inputs a policy of progressive taxation to reduce inequalities a rise in the size of the working population due to immigration a change in technology that maintains the same level of output 3 / 30 Which statement correctly describes how an import quota works? It is a unit tax that raises the price of imported goods. It is a ban on the import of demerit goods. It imposes strict product regulations on imports. It limits the quantity of certain imported goods. 4 / 30 Which statement about the circular flow of income is correct? Exports and imports do not affect the equilibrium level of national income because they always cancel each other out. The greater the level of saving, the greater the level of injections in the form of investment must be. When a government increases withdrawals by increasing the rate of income tax, there must be an equivalent increase in injections to compensate. When consumers use past savings to increase their spending, there will be a rise in national income. 5 / 30 Direct tax in the UK is a proportional tax. Direct tax is unfair on the richer households in the UK. Poorer households do not pay enough direct tax in the UK. Rich households pay more direct tax than poor households in the UK. 6 / 30 C B A D 7 / 30 Income inequality is greater in country P than in country Q. Wealth inequality is greater than income inequality in both countries. Wealth inequality is greater in country P than in country Q. Gini coefficients are not comparable between income and wealth because one is a flow concept and the other is a stock concept. 8 / 30 X to W Z to Y W to X Y to Z 9 / 30 OWYZ minus OYZ OWYZ minus OWY OXYZ minus WXY OXYZ minus OYZ 10 / 30 A government fixes a maximum price for a product in order to increase its consumption. What would be the likely outcome of such a policy? Consumption will rise if the maximum price is below the current equilibrium price. Consumption will fall if the maximum price is above the current equilibrium price. Production will fall if the maximum price is above the current equilibrium price. Production will fall if the maximum price is below the current equilibrium price 11 / 30 What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an increase in factor productivity? an upward shift of the aggregate supply curve downward shift of the aggregate demand curve downward shift of the aggregate supply curve an upward shift of the aggregate demand curve 12 / 30 D B C A 13 / 30 In a planned economy, what will determine the allocation of scarce resources? the decisions of central government the revenue generated from direct and indirect taxes the forces of demand and supply a mixture of private and central decision making 14 / 30 Why do some local governments subsidise the provision of bicycles to encourage their use? Consumers are unable to afford bicycles. Consumers are not aware of the external benefits of using bicycles. Consumers are afraid of having car accidents. Consumers ignore the external costs of using bicycles. 15 / 30 Why will a contractionary monetary policy reduce inflation? Banks will lend more. Consumers will pay more tax. Consumers will have higher disposable income. Consumers will save more. 16 / 30 Which measure is aimed directly at promoting international trade? increasing interest rates subsidies paid to export industries wage subsidy schemes during recessions decreasing existing quotas 17 / 30 The opportunity cost of producing corn is constant when moving from M to N. As the price of corn falls, more of it is demanded. Resources used in producing corn are more efficient than in producing wheat The opportunity cost of producing corn falls when moving from M to N 18 / 30 What does consumer surplus measure? the excess profit earned by the producer of a good the opportunity cost to the consumer of not buying a good the price the marginal consumer is willing to pay for a good the consumer’s gain from purchasing a good at a price below what they are willing to pay 19 / 30 C A B D 20 / 30 What would be likely to decrease inflation in an economy? an increase in taxes on imports a decrease in consumer saving an increase in labour productivity a decrease in unemployment 21 / 30 A country operates a fixed exchange rate. There is a major fall of international confidence in its government’s economic policies. What is likely to be the result? a fall in its foreign exchange rate a fall in its foreign exchange reserves a rise in its terms of trade a rise in its capital inflows 22 / 30 The £ appreciated against the US$ and the € The £ depreciated against the US$ and the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and depreciated against the €. The £ depreciated against the US$ and appreciated against the €. 23 / 30 What could be described as an expansionary fiscal policy? a decrease in the money supply a decrease in the budget surplus a decrease in the exchange rate a decrease in the budget deficit 24 / 30 It was constant in only one year. It rose in only two years. It fell in only two years. It fell in only one year. 25 / 30 Which statement correctly describes the shape of the demand curve for a normal good? It shows an inverse relationship between the price of the good and quantity demanded. It shows a positive relationship between the price of the good and quantity demanded. It shows a positive relationship between income and quantity demanded. It shows an inverse relationship between income and quantity demanded. 26 / 30 A country is suffering from severe deflation. What is most likely to prevent the deflation from worsening? increasing transfer payments to reduce inequality of income increasing interest rates to encourage more saving increasing income tax to help reduce the government’s budget deficit revaluing the currency to bring in more revenue from exports 27 / 30 What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation? exchange rate direct taxes interest rate budget deficit 28 / 30 What causes an inelastic market supply curve for an agricultural crop such as wheat? an efficient use of fertilisers causing crop production to rise the storage of excess production for future sale the very long time required to produce additional output a government decision to import crops at times of shortage 29 / 30 In the United States, rationing is the only solution to oil shortage. In Japan, there is self-sufficiency in oil. In Britain, oil has zero opportunity cost. In Russia, there is no shortage of oil. 30 / 30 –0.5 zero –1 infinity NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Waves are emitted from two coherent sources. Which statement about the waves must be correct? They are in phase. They have a constant phase difference. They are transverse waves. They have the same amplitude. 2 / 40 Which statement about the alpha-particle scattering experiment provides evidence for the existence of the nucleus? Slower alpha-particles are deflected through larger angles. The number of alpha-particles deflected depends on the thickness of the foil. The kinetic energies of the deflected alpha-particles are unchanged. A tiny proportion of the alpha-particles are deflected through large angles. 3 / 40 12 N 8.0 N 6.0 N 4.0 N 4 / 40 The sum of the currents entering a junction in an electrical circuit is always equal to the sum of the currents leaving the junction. Why is this? It is a consequence of the conservation of potential difference. It is a consequence of the conservation of charge. It is a consequence of the conservation of electromotive force. It is a consequence of the conservation of energy. 5 / 40 B A C D 6 / 40 Which statement about a proton is correct? A proton is both a meson and a baryon. A proton is a baryon but not a meson. A proton is a meson but not a hadron. A proton is both a hadron and a meson. 7 / 40 1.3 0.22 0.75 4.5 8 / 40 10 N 20 N 17 N 5 N 9 / 40 2U U 4U U/4 10 / 40 2.0 × 10–6 Ωm 1.2 × 10–7 Ωm 1.6 × 10–7 Ωm 4.9 × 10–7 Ωm 11 / 40 8.7 N 20 N 10 N 5.0 N 12 / 40 C B D A 13 / 40 C A D B 14 / 40 They travel the same distance. They have the same average velocity. They have the same displacement. They have the same average speed. 15 / 40 What is the difference between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity? A scalar quantity has magnitude but a vector quantity does not. A vector quantity has direction but a scalar quantity does not. A scalar quantity has direction but a vector quantity does not. A vector quantity has magnitude but a scalar quantity does not. 16 / 40 A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm. Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk. Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5 ± 0.5) cm. Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4 ± 0.1) cm. Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct? It is less accurate but more precise than the measurement of student Y. It is more accurate but less precise than the measurement of student Y. It is less accurate and less precise than the measurement of student Y. It is more accurate and more precise than the measurement of student Y. 17 / 40 10.8V 6.35V 3.18V 2.65V 18 / 40 What is a statement of the principle of conservation of momentum? The total momentum of a system of interacting objects remains constant, providing no resultant external force acts on the system. A force is equal to the rate of change of momentum of the object upon which it acts. In a perfectly elastic collision, the relative momentum of the objects before impact is equal to their relative momentum after impact. The momentum of an object is the product of the mass of the object and its velocity. 19 / 40 A C B D 20 / 40 17 16 9 8 21 / 40 A D B C 22 / 40 D B A C 23 / 40 B A D C 24 / 40 An object is stretched until it reaches the elastic limit. Which statement must describe the stress on the object when it is at the elastic limit? It is the maximum stress the object can withstand before it breaks. It is the maximum stress for which the object obeys Hooke’s law. It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has elastic deformation. It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has plastic deformation. 25 / 40 A D C B 26 / 40 A D C B 27 / 40 12.1V 7.1V 2.1V 1.5V 28 / 40 A wire has a resistance of 30Ω. A second wire is made from the same material, has the same mass and is three times as long as the first wire. What is the resistance of the second wire? 30Ω 90Ω 10Ω 270Ω 29 / 40 Lamp Q emits four times as much power as lamp P Lamp P emits twice as much power as lamp Q. Lamp Q emits twice as much power as lamp P. Lamp P emits four times as much power as lamp Q. 30 / 40 A C B D 31 / 40 D C A B 32 / 40 2.7d 7.1d 0.41d 1.6d 33 / 40 A C B D 34 / 40 wavelength speed amplitude frequency 35 / 40 Which pair of quantities are physical quantities? charge and ampere efficiency and kilogram pascal and strain period and potential difference 36 / 40 Which list of unit prefixes decreases in magnitude from left to right? kilo, milli, pico pico, kilo, milli centi, deci, milli deci, milli, centi 37 / 40 D A B C 38 / 40 4 1 2 3 39 / 40 B A D C 40 / 40 3V 2V 0.5V 6V NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback Book Trial Class