HomeCambridge International AS & A Level Past papers Cambridge international AS & A Level Past Papers Practice Practice with Past Papers Question Bank – Different Questions every time A Levels | Accounting (9706) A Levels | Biology (9700) A Levels | Chemistry (9701) A Levels | Economics (9708) A Levels | Physics (9702) 0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 On 1 January 2019, a non-current asset was purchased at a cost of $290 000. Delivery and installation costs of $10 000 were also paid. The reducing balance method is used to depreciate the asset at a rate of 20% per annum. A full year’s depreciation is charged in the year of acquisition and none in the year of disposal. On 31 December 2021, the non-current asset was sold for $205 000. Disposal costs of $5000 were also paid. What was the profit on disposal? $13 000 $14 400 $8000 $46 400 2 / 30 The correction of which error would require an entry in the suspense account? Vehicle repairs, $100, were debited to the vehicles at cost account. A sales invoice, $45, was omitted from the sales journal. Drawings, $60, were debited in the cash book and were credited to the drawings account. Wages, $150, were correctly recorded in the wages account and debited in the cash book. 3 / 30 $11 920 $11 080 $10 240 $10 720 4 / 30 B A D C 5 / 30 Which statements about depreciation are correct? It is an application of the matching concept. It provides funds for the replacement of a non-current asset. It spreads the cost of a non-current asset over its useful life. 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 6 / 30 A business has two production departments: machining and assembly. The budgeted direct labour hours for each department are: machining 4000 assembly 16 000. The business has calculated overhead absorption rates as: machining $12 per direct machining hour assembly $7.70 per direct labour hour. Insurance of $4800 relating to the assembly department was incorrectly omitted when making the calculations. What is the correct overhead absorption rate for the assembly department? $6.40 $8.00 $7.94 $8.80 7 / 30 Which statement is correct? The balance on the irrecoverable debts account is carried down to the next accounting period. The balance on the provision for doubtful debts account is calculated before the deduction of irrecoverable debts. The balance on the provision for doubtful debts account is not included in a trial balance. The balance on the irrecoverable debts account is treated as an expense in the income statement. 8 / 30 Which statements about an unpresented cheque are correct? It arises as the result of an error of omission. It arises from a timing difference. It is used when preparing a bank reconciliation statement. 3 only 1 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 9 / 30 $10 500 $5500 $17 500 $12 500 10 / 30 $14 000 $15 000 $3000 $13 000 11 / 30 C B A D 12 / 30 $78 525 $72 475 $82 475 $72 475 13 / 30 Which statement about the purpose of a trial balance is correct? It ensures that all double-entry postings to ledgers are accurate. It shows that all transactions in a period have been recorded It assists the subsequent preparation of financial statements It ensures that all postings to books of prime entry are accurate. 14 / 30 Goods, $1200, sent to a customer on a sale or return basis have not been recorded in the sales journal. Which accounting concept has been applied? matching realisation going concern materiality 15 / 30 Which items will be included in the sales ledger control account? amounts owed by credit customers at the end of the previous month provision for doubtful debts total of the invoices sent out to credit customers total of the sales returns journal 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 16 / 30 D A C B 17 / 30 $114 000 $124 000 $167 000 $119 000 18 / 30 A trader depreciates loose tools using the revaluation method. Which account is credited at the end of the year to record depreciation on loose tools? provision for depreciation of loose tools disposal loose tools depreciation of loose tools 19 / 30 $35.00 $25.50 $34.50 $25.00 20 / 30 Why might a business use budgets? to determine the level of demand for its product to have a benchmark against which to assess actual performance to know how much raw material suppliers will be able to supply 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 only 21 / 30 20 000 24 000 18 000 15 000 22 / 30 16.25% too high 24.76% too low 24.76% too high 16.25% too low 23 / 30 D B C A 24 / 30 What is a limitation of absorption costing? It is not accepted for preparing published financial statements. It does not take into account all costs of production. It is not useful for improving the organisation’s performance. It does not comply with accounting principles 25 / 30 42 days 46 days 56 days 63 days 26 / 30 D A C B 27 / 30 $4400 $3200 $600 $7000 28 / 30 $49 550 $72 150 $76 050 $53 450 29 / 30 Which values per unit are not sufficient to enable the calculation of the contribution to sales ratio? variable cost, fixed cost, profit contribution, fixed cost selling price, fixed cost, profit selling price, variable cost 30 / 30 A B D C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 The statements describe the process of translation. A peptide bond forms between adjacent amino acids. Hydrogen bonds form between the anticodon and the codon. mRNA binds to the ribosome. tRNA enters the ribosome carrying a specific amino acid. In which order does this process take place? 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 4 → 2 → 1 → 3 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 2 / 40 Which have properties that are dependent on hydrogen bonds? cellulose a molecule of haemoglobin water 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 / 40 C B A D 4 / 40 1 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 5 / 40 ×250 ×1000 ×400 ×4000 6 / 40 D B C A 7 / 40 Some animals produce antimicrobial proteins which protect them from pathogens. These proteins could be used to kill human pathogens, however when used as a medicine they are broken down by protein-digesting enzymes. Replacing one of the amino acids found in the protein with an amino acid that had been synthesised in the laboratory resulted in a modified protein that was not broken down. What could explain why this modified protein was not broken down by the protein-digesting enzymes? The modified protein has a different tertiary structure to the original protein. The modified protein is not complementary in shape to the enzyme’s active site. The modified protein is unable to induce a fit with the protein-digesting enzyme. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 8 / 40 7 2 5 3 9 / 40 Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria? They contain 80S ribosomes. They can transcribe their circular DNA. They can translate mRNA. They are enclosed by double membranes. 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 only 10 / 40 Which statement about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) is correct for an enzyme with a low affinity for its substrate? It has a high Km and reaches Vmax at a low substrate concentration. It has a high Kmm and reaches Vmax at a high substrate concentration. It has a low Km and reaches Vmax at a low substrate concentration. It has a low Km and reaches Vmax at a high substrate concentration 11 / 40 B D C A 12 / 40 What describes cellulose? an unreactive linear chain of 1-4 α-glucose a branched chain of 1-4 β-glucose a branched chain of 1-4 α-glucose an unreactive linear chain of 1-4 β-glucose 13 / 40 A D C B 14 / 40 C A B D 15 / 40 When animal cells are cultured, salt solution is added to keep the cells alive. What is the purpose of the salt solution? to prevent net movement of water into or out of the cells to prevent diffusion of other ions in or out of the cells to allow facilitated diffusion of salts into the cells to provide a source of energy for active transport 16 / 40 B A C D 17 / 40 C B A D 18 / 40 …GTA CCA CTG GAT… …CAU CCU GAC CUA… …CAC CCC GAA CUG… …GUA GGA CUG GAU… 19 / 40 A B C D 20 / 40 D B A C 21 / 40 A C D B 22 / 40 B C D A 23 / 40 D C B A 24 / 40 Telomeres prevent the loss of genes from the ends of chromosomes during DNA replication, but they become shorter each time they are copied. In cancer cells and stem cells, the telomeres remain the same length. Which statement is correct for all human cells? Telomeres are repaired by the enzyme RNA polymerase. Adding telomeres could increase the rate of ageing of cells. If telomeres become too short, a cell may stop dividing. Telomeres prevent all damage occurring to DNA molecules. 25 / 40 D B A C 26 / 40 A C B D 27 / 40 C D B A 28 / 40 A D B C 29 / 40 3 → 1 → 4 → 5 → 2 3 → 4 → 1 → 2 → 5 1 → 3 → 4 → 2 → 5 1 → 3 → 4 → 5 → 2 30 / 40 D B A C 31 / 40 D C A B 32 / 40 B D A C 33 / 40 75 120 150 80 34 / 40 2 5 4 7 35 / 40 A C D B 36 / 40 Some foods contain hydrogenated vegetable fats. These are unsaturated fats that have been converted to saturated fats. Which property of the fats will have changed? They will remain liquid at room temperature. They will have more double bonds in their molecules. Their hydrocarbon chains will fit together more closely. Their solubility in water will increase. 37 / 40 Which properties of water molecules are important in the upward flow of water through the xylem? Water molecules are attracted to each other by hydrogen bonding. Water molecules are attracted to cellulose by adhesion Water molecules have high cohesion in water columns. 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 38 / 40 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct? Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine. Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes. Adenine forms the same number of hydrogen bonds with thymine as it does with uracil. The base pairs in a molecule of DNA are of equal length and equal width. 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 39 / 40 C B D A 40 / 40 A B D C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 How many moles of oxygen, O2, are needed to burn 1 mol of ethane if the products of the reaction are water and carbon only? 1.5 5 3.5 3 2 / 40 D C B A 3 / 40 The equation for a chemical reaction is shown. All substances are in their standard states. XeF6 + 3H2O → XeO3 + 6HF Which statement describes the standard enthalpy change of reaction for this reaction? the enthalpy change when one mole of water reacts the enthalpy change when six moles of hydrogen fluoride are produced the enthalpy change when a total of one mole of reactants is reacted the enthalpy change when a total of one mole of products is produced 4 / 40 A D C B 5 / 40 D A C B 6 / 40 Hydrated cobalt(II) sulfate loses water when heated to give anhydrous cobalt(II) sulfate. All the water of crystallisation is lost to the atmosphere as steam. When 3.10 g of hydrated cobalt(II) sulfate, CoSO4•xH2O, is heated to constant mass the loss in mass is 1.39 g. What is the value of x, to the nearest whole number? 7 6 4 11 7 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction that proceeds through initiation, propagation and termination steps? C6H13CHO + HCN → C6H13CH(OH)CN C4H10 + Cl2 → C4H9Cl + HCl C5H11Br + NaOH → C5H11OH + NaBr C6H12 + H2O → C6H13OH 8 / 40 A C B D 9 / 40 C D A B 10 / 40 A D B C 11 / 40 Mixture R consists of one mole of C3H6 and one mole of C4H6. What is the minimum number of moles of oxygen molecules needed for complete combustion of mixture R? 10 6.5 20 7 12 / 40 B D C A 13 / 40 Which pair of reagents react together in a redox reaction? CH3CH2CH2OH + concentrated H3PO4 CH3CHCH2 + Br2 CH3COCH3 + HCN HCO2C2H5 + dilute H2SO4 14 / 40 6 8 4 16 15 / 40 Which gas will behave least like an ideal gas at 150 °C and 101 kPa? fluorine krypton ammonia steam 16 / 40 Alkynes are hydrocarbons that contain one triple C≡C bond. Like alkenes, alkynes take part in addition reactions. A saturated compound can be formed. For example, ethyne, H–C≡C–H, reacts with an excess of hydrogen to form ethane. Propyne, C3H4, undergoes an addition reaction with an excess of hydrogen bromide in two stages. Markovnikov’s rule applies to the addition of HBr at each stage. What is the main product obtained when propyne reacts with an excess of hydrogen bromide? CH2BrCH2CH2Br CH3CHBrCH2Br CH3CBr2CH3 CH3CH2CHBr2 17 / 40 D C B A 18 / 40 +100.6 kJ mol–1 +887.6 kJ mol–1 +2091 kJ mol–1 +1095.8 kJmol–1 19 / 40 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 20 / 40 B C D A 21 / 40 D C B A 22 / 40 D B C A 23 / 40 1.4 g 2.8 g 4.2 g 2.1 g 24 / 40 C B D A 25 / 40 Ammonium ions are converted into nitrate ions by bacteria. What is the change in the oxidation number of nitrogen? +9 +8 -6 +6 26 / 40 A 200 cm3 sample of water has an amount of oxygen gas dissolved in it This amount of oxygen gas has a volume of 6.00 cm3 when measured at 1.00 × 105Pa and 35°C. What is the concentration of oxygen gas in the water? (You should assume that oxygen behaves as an ideal gas.) 1.25 × 10-3 mol dm-3 1.03 × 10-2 mol dm-2 1.17 × 10-3 mol dm-3 2.34 × 10-4mol dm-3 27 / 40 The conversion of propan-1-ol into propan-2-ol can be completed in a two-stage synthesis. The first stage is to heat the propan-1-ol with concentrated sulfuric acid. Which reagent would be needed to complete the second stage? steam with phosphoric acid hot concentrated acidified manganate(VII) ions aqueous sodium hydroxide cold dilute acidified manganate(VII) ions 28 / 40 Which reaction mixture produces an acidic gas? calcium and aqueous hydrochloric acid aqueous ammonium nitrate and solid calcium oxide potassium chloride and concentrated sulfuric acid sodium oxide and water 29 / 40 A student mixed 25.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid with an equal volume of 4.00 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide. The initial temperature of both solutions was 15.0°C. The maximum temperature recorded was 30.0°C. The heat capacity of the final solution can be assumed to be 4.18 J K-1 g-1 and the density of this solution can be assumed to be 1.00 g cm-3. Using these results, what is the enthalpy change of neutralisation of hydrochloric acid? –15.7 kJ mol-1 –3.14 kJ mol-1 –62.7 kJ mol-1 –31.4 kJ mol-1 30 / 40 Which compound gives both: an orange precipitate with 2,4-DNPH reagent and a yellow precipitate with alkaline I2(aq)? methanal propanal propanone ethanol 31 / 40 Which compound has the smallest difference in electronegativity between its two elements? LiBr KF LiF KBr 32 / 40 A D C B 33 / 40 C A B D 34 / 40 Four properties of beryllium, Be, or a beryllium compound are listed. Which property is different from the property of magnesium or the equivalent magnesium compound? Be(NO3 )2 decomposes on heating to form a metal oxide, NO2 and O2 ; Mg(NO3 )2 does not. Be reacts with O2 when heated in air; Mg does not. Be reacts with aqueous H2SO4 to form a metal sulfate and H2; Mg does not. BeCl2 reacts with water to form fumes of HCl ; MgCl2 does not. 35 / 40 X is a mixture of two stereoisomers; Y is a mixture of four stereoisomers. X is a mixture of two stereoisomers; Y does not have stereoisomers. X is a mixture of four stereoisomers; Y is a mixture of four stereoisomers. X is a mixture of four stereoisomers; Y does not have stereoisomers 36 / 40 2-hydroxypropanoic acid 3-hydroxypropanoic acid 2-hydroxybutanoic acid hydroxyethanoic acid 37 / 40 D A B C 38 / 40 4.46 × 10–9 4.76 × 10–5 2.24 × 108 7.14 × 10 –5 39 / 40 C A D B 40 / 40 9.63 × 10–1 1.93 × 10–3 4.81 × 10–4 9.63 × 10–4 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 C B A D 2 / 30 D B C A 3 / 30 What is the main characteristic of a planned economy? The price mechanism allocates scarce resources through the actions of buyers and sellers. All goods and services are produced by privately-owned firms. All goods and services are produced by state-owned firms Privately-owned firms produce private goods and state-owned firms produce public goods 4 / 30 $160 million $120 million $280 million $220 million 5 / 30 A country had a current account surplus of $141bn. Which policy may its government implement to reduce this surplus in the short run? an increase in interest rates a decrease in direct taxes an increase of import duties a decrease in regulations to encourage more foreign firms to locate in this country 6 / 30 What is necessary for consumer surplus to be zero? Demand is perfectly elastic. Supply is perfectly inelastic. Demand is perfectly inelastic. Supply is perfectly elastic. 7 / 30 What is ‘a produced means of further production’? enterprise land capital labour 8 / 30 Which change affecting the foreign exchange market for the US$ would be most likely to result in a shift to the right of the demand curve and a movement along the supply curve? US pharmaceutical companies experience a fall in demand for their products from the rest of the world. The US government intervenes in the foreign exchange market so as to bring about a drop in the value of the US$. The US government reduces subsidies on exports to the EU. Foreign currency speculators in Switzerland believe that the US$ is undervalued and act accordingly. 9 / 30 What can be best understood from a knowledge of a country’s terms of trade? the value of its real exchange rate the purchasing power of its exports its balance of payments performance the standard of living within the country 10 / 30 Why does the basic economic problem of scarcity apply to both the rich and the poor? The choices people make are not dependent on income inequalities. Human wants exceed what can be produced from available resources. Natural resources are unevenly distributed amongst nations. Consumers pay the same prices for goods and services to satisfy their wants. 11 / 30 Food prices in a country increased by 20% in three months due to an infectious virus. Which statement about the cause of this rise in food prices is normative? Supply of foreign food was reduced because of closed borders. Consumers were scared of running out of food. Transport costs increased by 10%. Farm workers demanded higher wages to cover extra hours worked. 12 / 30 110.0 111.0 97.8 90.9 13 / 30 The number of passenger journeys remained the same since privatisation. Average prices were higher in 2012 than 2015. Profits have increased since privatisation. Average prices were higher in 2015 than 2014. 14 / 30 Which list has the most words that are more likely to relate to a positive statement than to a normative statement? actual, ethics, fact, was, testable contestable, is, motive, subjective, moral describe, better, should, value, emotion bias, objective, ought, opinion, tastes 15 / 30 What is an example of contractionary fiscal policy? an increase in the money supply an increase in the budget surplus an increase in the budget deficit an increase in the interest rate 16 / 30 Z and W Y and Z W and X X and Y 17 / 30 When will the demand curve for motorcycles shift to the left? when the price of motorcycles falls when the tax on motorcycles rises when the price of public transport rises when the price of cars falls 18 / 30 The central bank of an economy decides to raise interest rates in order to attract capital inflows and improve the financial account of the balance of payments. When is the central bank’s decision least likely to be effective? when the currency of the economy is expected to lose its value when the economy is politically and economically stable when the reserves of foreign currencies held by the central bank are high and rising when the interest rate of the economy is higher than that of other countries 19 / 30 B D A C 20 / 30 In which situation is the price elasticity of supply for a product most likely to be relatively low? Demand for the product comes from a wide range of customers. The main raw material used in the production of the product is in abundant supply. Producers in closely related industries can easily switch to making the product. Manufacture of the product requires highly skilled labour. 21 / 30 What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation? direct taxes exchange rate interest rate budget deficit 22 / 30 What is least likely to rise as a result of the use of expansionary fiscal policy? budget surplus nominal income aggregate demand inflation 23 / 30 A C D B 24 / 30 Why does the basic economic problem of scarcity apply to both the rich and the poor? Natural resources are unevenly distributed amongst nations. Consumers pay the same prices for goods and services to satisfy their wants. Human wants exceed what can be produced from available resources. The choices people make are not dependent on income inequalities. 25 / 30 Which statement defines the price elasticity of supply? It is a measure of how the price of a good responds to a change in the quantity supplied. It is a measure of how the supply of good X responds to a change in the price of good Y. It is a measure of how the supply of a good responds to a change in its cost of production. It is a measure of how the quantity supplied of a good responds to a change in its price 26 / 30 A country operates a fixed exchange rate system. What will put pressure on the country to devalue its currency? an increase in its current account balance of payments deficit with other countries a decrease in the tariffs on its products imposed by other countries a decrease in the country’s inflation rate relative to the inflation rates of other countries an increase in the country’s interest rate relative to the interest rates of other countries 27 / 30 constant returns to scale in the production of both goods and services increasing returns to scale in the production of both goods and services infinite returns to scale in the production of both goods and services diminishing returns to scale in the production of both goods and services 28 / 30 B D C A 29 / 30 Product X has a price elasticity of supply (PES) of +2, whilst product Y has a PES of +0.2. Which statement about products X and Y is correct? After a price fall of 10%, more people would buy X than would buy Y. X has more substitutes than Y. A 20% price fall would lead to a greater decrease in production of Y than of X. After a price rise, it is more difficult to increase Y’s output than X’s. 30 / 30 A country has a floating exchange rate. An increase in which variable in the country will cause its currency to appreciate? the general price level the interest rate the trade deficit the budget deficit NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback 0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A C D B 2 / 40 B C A D 3 / 40 C B D A 4 / 40 1.5 N m 4.4 N m 6.5 N m 9.4 N m 5 / 40 The principle of superposition states that a certain quantity is added when two or more waves meet at a point. What is this quantity? intensity displacement amplitude wavelength 6 / 40 B A D C 7 / 40 Water is pumped through a nozzle at the end of a hose. The nozzle has a circular cross-section of diameter 50 mm. A mass of 100 kg of water takes a time of 2.0 s to move through the nozzle. The density of water is 1000 kgm–3. What is the speed of the water in the nozzle? 6.4 m s–1 51 m s–1 13 m s–1 25 m s–1 8 / 40 T2 = P2 + W2 T = P + W P = T cosθ and W = T sinθ W = P tanθ and W = T cosθ 9 / 40 A rigid sphere is held at rest on the sea bed. When the sphere is released, it rises to the surface of the sea. The seawater has a uniform density. Which statement about the sphere, from its release until it reaches the surface, is correct? The sphere always moves with constant velocity The upthrust on the sphere always decreases. The sphere always moves with constant acceleration. The upthrust on the sphere is always constant. 10 / 40 In an experiment on α-particle scattering, α-particles are directed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles pass straight through the foil or are deflected by a small angle. A small number of α-particles are deflected by a large angle. Which statement cannot be deduced from this experiment? The nucleus of an atom is small compared to the size of an atom. The nucleus of an atom contains protons. Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus. Atoms are mostly empty space. 11 / 40 X and Y are at rest at their maximum heights. X and Y travel the same distance. X and Y are fired with the same speed. X and Y take the same time to return to the ground. 12 / 40 The potential difference (p.d.) across a filament lamp is increased. Which statement is correct? The resistance of the lamp decreases because the temperature decreases. The resistance of the lamp decreases because the temperature increases. The resistance of the lamp increases because the temperature decreases. The resistance of the lamp increases because the temperature increases. 13 / 40 410 kg 390 kg 40 kg 42 kg 14 / 40 2.0 m 2.0 m due south 3.1 m 3.1 m due south 15 / 40 B C D A 16 / 40 Which quantity is a physical quantity? potential difference minute kelvin flavour 17 / 40 B D A C 18 / 40 What is the difference between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity? A vector quantity has direction but a scalar quantity does not. A scalar quantity has direction but a vector quantity does not. A scalar quantity has magnitude but a vector quantity does not. A vector quantity has magnitude but a scalar quantity does not. 19 / 40 Two solid cubes X and Y are made of material of the same density. Cube X has twice the mass of cube Y. Cube X has sides of length x. Cube Y has sides of length y. What is the ratio x/y ? 2.00 1.41 1.26 8.00 20 / 40 A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15Ω and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the free electrons in nichrome is 9.0 × 1028 m–3. A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0V is applied between the ends of the wire. What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire? 2.5 × 10–5 m s–1 3.9 × 10–6 m s–1 9.8 × 10–7 m s–1 6.1 × 10–6 m s–1 21 / 40 uX + uY = vX – vY uX + uY = vX + vY uX – uY = vX – vY uX – uY = vX + vY 22 / 40 A beam of light from a laser is incident normally on a double slit. Interference fringes are seen on a screen placed parallel to the double slit. The separation of the two slits is a. The distance between the slits and the screen is D. The distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes is x. D and a are both halved. What is the distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes after these changes? 4x 2x x X/2 23 / 40 1% 11% 5% 8% 24 / 40 D B C A 25 / 40 An object is displaced horizontally to the right in a uniform vertical gravitational field. Which statement describes the change in the gravitational potential energy of the object? It decreases in direct proportion to the displacement. It increases in direct proportion to the square of the displacement. It does not change with the displacement. It increases in direct proportion to the displacement. 26 / 40 Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier? 4.8 × 10–19C 1.1 × 10–19C 4.0 × 10–19C 9.1 × 10–19C 27 / 40 A goods train passes through a station at a steady speed of 10 m s–1 at time t = 0. An express train is at rest at the station. The express train leaves the station with a uniform acceleration of 0.5 m s–2 just as the goods train goes past. Both trains move in the same direction on straight, parallel tracks. At which time t does the express train overtake the goods train? 40 s 20 s 6 s 10 s 28 / 40 In a large container in an oil refinery, three oils of different densities are mixed. No chemical activity occurs. The mixture consists of: 1200 kg of oil of density 1100 kgm–3 1500 kg of oil of density 860 kgm–3 4000 kg of oil of density 910 kgm–3. What is the density of the mixture? 1045 kgm–3 957 kgm–3 933 kgm–3 927 kgm–3 29 / 40 Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point. Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the waves meet? The two waves must be in phase with each other at the point. The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions. The two waves must be emitted from their sources with the same intensity. The two waves must have the same amplitude at the point. 30 / 40 Which statement about progressive waves is correct? They transfer energy away from their source. They are always transverse waves. They decrease in frequency as their speed increases. They can exist in solids but not liquids. 31 / 40 B D A C 32 / 40 A D C B 33 / 40 A car is travelling at a constant velocity directly towards a man standing in the middle of the road. The driver sounds the car’s horn as a warning. The horn emits a sound wave of constant frequency. The frequency of the sound heard by the man is different from the frequency of the sound emitted by the horn. Which statement is correct? The frequency of the sound heard by the man depends on the distance between the car and the man. The sound waves continually accelerate as they move from the horn to the man. The frequency of the sound emitted by the horn is greater than the frequency of the sound heard by the man. The wavelength of the sound heard by the man is less than the wavelength of the sound emitted by the horn. 34 / 40 Which quantity is a vector? Young modulus momentum temperature speed 35 / 40 D A B C 36 / 40 In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone? Most of the atom is empty space. Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus. The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons. The nucleus is charged. 37 / 40 B D A C 38 / 40 D B C A 39 / 40 An object is falling at a constant speed through a viscous liquid. FU is the upthrust on the object due to the liquid. WL is the weight of the liquid displaced by the object. WO is the weight of the object. Which equation must be correct? FU = WO + WL FU = WL FU = WO FU = WO – WL 40 / 40 A B C D NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback Book Trial Class