Cambridge international AS & A Level Past Papers Practice

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A Levels | Accounting (9706)
Question Count : 30

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Accounting (9706)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

Which statement relating to depreciation is not correct?

2 / 30

The non-current asset turnover of a business improved between 2020 and 2021, even though the
net revenue was the same for both years.
What caused the improvement in the ratio?

3 / 30

4 / 30

A business has a financial year end of 31 December. It purchased a vehicle on 1 January 2019
for $30 000.
The business depreciates vehicles at the rate of 20% per annum using the reducing balance
method. Depreciation is charged on a month-by-month basis.
The vehicle was sold on 30 September 2021.
A profit on disposal of $3000 had been calculated. However, no entries had been made to record
the depreciation for 2021.
What was the effect of not recording the depreciation for 2021 on the profit on disposal?

5 / 30

Which error would not affect the agreement of the totals of a trial balance?

6 / 30

Which statements are correct about the first in first out (FIFO) method for inventory valuation?

  1. issues to production are valued at the most recent purchase prices
  2.  issues to production are valued at the oldest purchase prices
  3.  provides a higher profit during periods of inflation
  4. provides a lower profit during periods of inflation

7 / 30

8 / 30

Dua and Noor are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally.
They admitted Zee and now share profits and losses in the ratio Dua :Noor:Zee, 2 :2: 1.
On admission of Zee, tangible assets were reduced in value by $20 000 and goodwill was valued
at $60 000, but was not retained in the books of account.
What was the net decrease on Noor’s capital account?

9 / 30

A bank statement shows a credit balance of $1500.
A payment of $500 and a receipt of $1250 were included in the cash book but have not yet
appeared on the bank statement.
Bank interest payable of $1100 had been correctly recorded in the cash book but due to a bank
error had been recorded in the bank statement as $1000.
What is the cash book balance?

10 / 30

How might an under-absorption of overheads arise?

  1. Overheads have been over-budgeted.
  2. Overheads have been under-budgeted.
  3. Production was less than budgeted.
  4. Production was more than budgeted.

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13 / 30

What is the advantage of keeping a full set of double entry books of account?

14 / 30

At the start of the year on 1 January, a business had an inventory of stationery which had cost
$3740. On that date, $1200 was owed to suppliers for stationery.
During the financial year ended 31 December, a total of $38 800 was paid for stationery. Some
old stationery was sold to staff for $240.
At the end of the year on 31 December, the business had an inventory of stationery valued at
cost, $4200. On that date, $1800 was owed to suppliers for stationery.
Which figure should be included in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December
for stationery?

15 / 30

A business purchased a non-current asset for $500 000 with an expected life of 20 years. After
that time it was expected to be sold for $100 000. It was depreciated using the straight-line
method.
The non-current asset was sold after 10 years for $120 000 with selling costs of $10 000.
What was the loss on disposal?

16 / 30

A sole trader has a draft profit for the year of $47 500.
No entries have been made in respect of the following.

  1. At the end of the year trade receivables were $5600 more than the previous year.
    However, an irrecoverable debt of $360 had not been written off. The trader
    maintains a provision of doubtful debts of 5%.
  2. A machine had been sold for $4000. It had a net book value of $3500.
    What will be the correct profit for the year?

17 / 30

18 / 30

A business makes a provision for doubtful debts of 4%. At 31 March 2021 the value of trade
receivables after deducting the provision was $153 600. For the year ended 31 March 2022, there
was an increase of $960 in the provision for doubtful debts.
What was the value of trade receivables at 31 March 2022 after deducting the provision for
doubtful debts?

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20 / 30

The following transactions took place.

  1. owner’s withdrawal of inventory for private use
  2. purchase of new shop fixtures on credit
  3. writing off an irrecoverable debt
    Which transactions would be recorded in the general journal?

21 / 30

Which item is an example of capital expenditure?

22 / 30

What is the purpose of providing for depreciation?

23 / 30

24 / 30

X and Y were in partnership sharing profits and losses equally.
On 1 January, P was admitted into the partnership. He contributed $20 000 cash and $10 000
other assets.
The non-current assets were revalued upwards by $12 000 on this date.
There was no adjustment for goodwill.
Profits and losses continued to be shared equally.
What was the balance on P’s capital account after all relevant entries had been made?

25 / 30

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27 / 30

A business marks up all of its products by 20% on total cost to calculate a selling price.
Each unit of product uses 4 hours of direct labour and 2 kilos of direct material.
The correct overhead absorption rate to be used is $8 per direct labour hour.
In error the book-keeper used a rate of $13 per direct labour hour.
What was the effect of this error on the selling price of one unit of the product?

28 / 30

29 / 30

An employee is paid $20 an hour basic pay for working seven hours a day. Overtime is paid at
the rate of time and a quarter (basic pay plus 25%). A bonus is also paid at the rate of time and a
half (basic pay plus 50%) for each unit produced in excess of eight units per day.
On Monday the employee worked 10 hours and produced 10 units.
How much did the employee earn on Monday?

30 / 30

How is break-even point in units calculated?

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A Levels | Biology (9700)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Biology (9700)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

What explains how a signal molecule produced by one cell can be detected by a target cell?

3 / 40

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6 / 40

Which molecules are present in all viruses?

  1. thymine
  2. adenine
  3. cytosine

7 / 40

A student calibrated an eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer.

  • Each division of the stage micrometer was 0.01 mm.
  • With a 10 magnification objective lens, 10 eyepiece graticule units matched
    10 divisions on the stage micrometer.

The same microscope was used with a 40, instead of a 10, magnification objective lens to
measure the diameter of an alveolus. The diameter of the alveolus was found to be 96 eyepiece
graticule units.
The eyepiece lens was not changed.
What is the best estimate for the diameter of the alveolus?

8 / 40

Which statements can be used to describe the structure of cellulose?

  1. a polymer of glucose monomers linked by β-1,4 glycosidic bonds
  2. a polysaccharide of hexose monomers
  3. an unbranched macromolecule made of β-glucose monomers

9 / 40

Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and
dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses
out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl–) in the chloride shift.
What is the importance of the chloride shift?

10 / 40

What are functions of T-lymphocytes?

  1. production of cytokines
  2. production of toxins
  3. recognition of an antigen bound to an antigen-presenting cell

11 / 40

Which have properties that are dependent on hydrogen bonds?

  1. cellulose
  2. a molecule of haemoglobin
  3. water

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13 / 40

14 / 40

What can combine with the haem group of a haemoglobin molecule?

  1. oxygen
  2. carbon dioxide
  3. carbon monoxide

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17 / 40

Plant cells were submerged in a solution with a water potential less negative than that found
inside the cells.
What describes the condition of the plant cells after 20 minutes?

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19 / 40

20 / 40

Which statement correctly explains why viruses are unaffected by penicillin?

21 / 40

Which terms describe the method by which water is transported within xylem vessel elements?

  1. cotransport
  2. cohesion-tension
  3. osmosis

22 / 40

23 / 40

The statements describe the process of translation.

  1. A peptide bond forms between adjacent amino acids.
  2. Hydrogen bonds form between the anticodon and the codon.
  3. mRNA binds to the ribosome.
  4. tRNA enters the ribosome carrying a specific amino acid.
    In which order does this process take place?

24 / 40

Which features of companion cells are essential to their function?

  1. They are connected to the sieve tube elements by plasmodesmata.
  2. They have a thicker cell wall than a sieve tube element.
  3. They contain a nucleus and mitochondria.

25 / 40

26 / 40

Which statement is correct for triglycerides and phospholipids?

27 / 40

Insulin is a globular protein involved in cell signalling. It is transported in the blood plasma from
the cells that synthesise it to its target cells. A molecule of insulin contains six sulfur-containing
amino acids and has two polypeptide chains.
Which statements about insulin are correct?

  1. An insulin molecule has a quaternary structure.
  2. Insulin polypeptides are held together by six disulfide bonds.
  3. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups would be found in the centre of an insulin
    molecule.

28 / 40

What enables triglycerides to perform their functions in living organisms?

  1. Triglycerides have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
  2. Triglycerides have a high ratio of carbon–hydrogen bonds to carbon atoms.
  3. Hydrolysis of triglycerides releases metabolic water.

29 / 40

T-lymphocytes have a protein, PD-1, on their surface. Some cancer cells have a receptor
molecule on their surface which binds with PD-1, inactivating the T-lymphocyte.
A monoclonal antibody, lambrolizumab, has been produced against this receptor.
Trials showed that in 54 of 135 people with advanced skin cancer who were given lambrolizumab
the tumours more than halved in volume. In six of the 57 people who were given the highest dose
the tumours disappeared.
What may be correctly concluded from this information?

  1. Lambrolizumab binds with a receptor on the surface of skin cancer cells.
  2. Cancer cells to which lambrolizumab is bound cannot inactivate T-lymphocytes.
  3. Lambrolizumab targets and kills skin cancer cells.
  4. Lambrolizumab allows a patient’s own immune system to kill cancer cells.

30 / 40

Steps 1, 2, 3 and 4 are used to test for a non-reducing sugar.

  1. Put 5 cm3 of solution into a test-tube.
  2. Add a few drops of acid.
  3. Neutralise with alkali.
  4. Add 6 cm3 of Benedict’s solution.

When is the solution heated or boiled?

31 / 40

32 / 40

It is suggested that primitive prokaryotic cells may be ancestors of certain organelles in
eukaryotic cells.
Which organelle is most similar in composition to a typical prokaryote?

33 / 40

A gene codes for the production of a protein, p53, that binds to damaged DNA during interphase
and prevents its replication. A carcinogen in cigarette smoke mutates the gene coding for the p53
protein, preventing production of the protein.
Which statement explains why this mutation may cause cancer?

34 / 40

35 / 40

At high altitudes, the oxygen content of the air may be a third of that at sea level.
As a person slowly climbs a mountain, their body gradually adjusts to the high altitude.
What is increased during this period of adjustment?

36 / 40

37 / 40

38 / 40

Some of the events during the primary immune response are listed.

  1. phagocytosis of a foreign microbe by a macrophage and antigen presentation
  2. some T-lymphocytes will become T-killer cells which kill infected body cells
  3. the T-helper cell divides by mitosis to produce T-lymphocyte clones
  4. a T-helper cell with the complementary receptor binds to the antigens being
    presented
    What is the correct sequence of events during the primary immune response?

39 / 40

What explains how the maximum volume of oxygen is taken up as blood passes through the
capillaries of the lungs?

40 / 40

Which sequence of events could lead to mass flow in a phloem sieve tube?

  1. Sucrose moves into a sieve tube element.
  2. Protons (H+) and sucrose molecules move into a companion cell through a
    co-transporter protein.
  3. A very high hydrostatic pressure is produced.
  4. The water potential of the sieve tube element decreases.
  5. Protons (H+) are actively pumped out of a companion cell.
  6. Water moves down a water potential gradient by osmosis.

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A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Chemistry (9701)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

How many σ bonds are present in one H–C≡C–C(CH3)=CH(CH3) molecule?

2 / 40

3 / 40

4 / 40

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6 / 40

Three organic compounds are listed.

  1. ethanal
  2. propan-1-ol
  3. propan-2-ol

Which compounds will have a mass spectrum that contains a fragment peak at m/ e = 43?

7 / 40

8 / 40

The standard enthalpy of formation of NO2(g) is +33.2 kJ mol–1.

The standard enthalpy of formation of N2O4(g) is +9.2 kJ mol–1.

What is the standard enthalpy change for the reaction 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)?

9 / 40

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12 / 40

Which equation represents the reaction whose standard enthalpy change is the standard enthalpy
change of formation of water?

13 / 40

Which pair of reagents react together in a redox reaction?

14 / 40

Which element has the second smallest atomic radius in its group and the second highest
electrical conductivity in its period?

15 / 40

16 / 40

Which statement about Group 17 elements and compounds is correct?

17 / 40

Hydrated cobalt(II) sulfate loses water when heated to give anhydrous cobalt(II) sulfate. All the
water of crystallisation is lost to the atmosphere as steam.

When 3.10 g of hydrated cobalt(II) sulfate, CoSO4•xH2O, is heated to constant mass the loss in
mass is 1.39 g.
What is the value of x, to the nearest whole number?

18 / 40

NH3(aq) is added to separate samples of NaCl(aq), MgCl2(aq), BaCl2(aq) and SiCl4(l). Under
the conditions of this experiment, only two samples will produce a white precipitate when NH3(aq)
is added.

What are these two samples?

19 / 40

20 / 40

21 / 40

A student mixes 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide solution with 25.0 cm3 of
0.350 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid. The temperature increases by 2.5 °C. No heat is lost to the
surroundings.

The final mixture has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J cm-3K-1.

What is the molar enthalpy change for the reaction?

22 / 40

23 / 40

Carbon monoxide, CO, nitrogen dioxide, NO2, and sulfur dioxide, SO2, are all atmospheric
pollutants.

Which reaction occurs in the atmosphere?

24 / 40

This question is about buckminsterfullerene, graphite, iodine and diamond.

How many of these substances have a simple molecular structure?

25 / 40

Which species is a free radical?

26 / 40

27 / 40

Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question.
A set of isomeric hydrocarbons

  • all contain 14.3% by mass of hydrogen
  • all react with bromine by addition, 0.280 g of each hydrocarbon reacting with 0.799 g of
    bromine.

What is the maximum number of isomeric compounds in the set?

28 / 40

Which statement explains why buckminsterfullerene has a lower melting point than graphite?

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30 / 40

31 / 40

32 / 40

J dissolves in water to give an aqueous solution K.
K gives a dense white precipitate when aqueous silver nitrate is added.
When heated with aqueous potassium hydroxide, K gives off a gas that turns moist universal
indicator paper blue.
What is J?

33 / 40

34 / 40

Compound X contains a single ester group.
X contains 27.6% by mass of oxygen.
Which pair of products could be produced by the hydrolysis of X?

35 / 40

Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct?

36 / 40

For which pair is the boiling point of the first compound higher than the boiling point of the
second compound?

37 / 40

38 / 40

39 / 40

40 / 40

The conversion of propan-1-ol into propan-2-ol can be completed in a two-stage synthesis.
The first stage is to heat the propan-1-ol with concentrated sulfuric acid.
Which reagent would be needed to complete the second stage?

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A Levels | Economics (9708)
Question Count : 30

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Economics (9708)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an
increase in factor productivity?

2 / 30

What is a function of money?

3 / 30

Following a 10% depreciation in the $ value of the £ sterling, a UK exporter leaves the $ price of
the goods it sells in the US market unchanged.
Other things being equal, what will be the effect on the revenue measured in sterling obtained by
the manufacturer from its sales in the US?

4 / 30

5 / 30

Which effect of inflation is described as redistributive?

6 / 30

7 / 30

8 / 30

9 / 30

10 / 30

What does joint supply mean?

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12 / 30

Which government action is least likely to prevent a fall in economic growth?

13 / 30

14 / 30

What is the equivalent of a country’s national debt?

15 / 30

16 / 30

In 2020, shops reported a fall in sales as domestic demand in an economy fell. However, the
impact on the overall economy was not as unfavourable as was first feared.
What might have lessened the impact on the economy?

17 / 30

Which statement about the circular flow of income is correct?

18 / 30

A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its
balance of payments.
What is likely to decrease as a consequence?

19 / 30

A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding
a fall in output.
Which action is most likely to meet its needs?

20 / 30

21 / 30

Why does an individual’s demand curve generally slope downwards to the right?

22 / 30

What would be increased by an expansionary fiscal policy?

23 / 30

24 / 30

25 / 30

26 / 30

What is definitely not involved when a transfer payment is made?

27 / 30

A government announces its intention to reduce the level of transfer payments in the economy.
Which statement made by the government is consistent with this intention?

28 / 30

What can be best understood from a knowledge of a country’s terms of trade?

29 / 30

Price plays a number of functions in the allocation of resources.
Which statement best illustrates the function that relies upon consumer choice (sometimes known
as the incentivising function)?

30 / 30

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A Levels | Physics (9702)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Physics (9702)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

3 / 40

4 / 40

5 / 40

A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of
(15.0 ± 0.1) cm.
What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder?

6 / 40

A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm.
Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk.
Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5 ± 0.5) cm.
Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4 ± 0.1) cm.
Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct?

7 / 40

8 / 40

9 / 40

Which list of unit prefixes decreases in magnitude from left to right?

10 / 40

What are isotopes?

11 / 40

A resistor of resistance R is connected across a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and
negligible internal resistance.
Which single change to the circuit would lead to the largest increase in the power dissipated in
the resistor?

12 / 40

13 / 40

14 / 40

A ball is thrown horizontally with a speed of 10.0 m s–1 above horizontal ground. The ball hits the
ground after a time of 3.0 s.
Air resistance is negligible.
What is the speed of the ball just before it hits the ground?

15 / 40

An observer hears a sound wave emitted from a moving source.
The observed frequency is less than the frequency of sound emitted from the source.
What could be the reason for this?

16 / 40

What is the approximate range of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation visible to the human
eye?

17 / 40

What is a conclusion from the alpha-particle scattering experiment?

18 / 40

Which statement about progressive transverse and longitudinal waves is correct?

19 / 40

A particle consists of two up quarks and a charm quark.
What is the charge of this particle, expressed in terms of the elementary charge e?

20 / 40

Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave?

21 / 40

22 / 40

A metal wire has a length of 2.50 m and a cross-sectional area of 4.50 × 10–6 m2. The resistivity of
the metal is 3.50 × 10–7 Ωm.
The wire is stretched so that its length increases to 2.65 m. The wire remains cylindrical and the
volume of the wire remains constant.
What is the change in the resistance of the wire?

23 / 40

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25 / 40

A copper wire of length 3.6 m and diameter 1.22 mm is stretched by a force of 37 N. The wire
obeys Hooke’s law. The Young modulus of copper is 1.17 × 1011Pa.
Which extension is caused by this force?

26 / 40

Which statement about collisions is correct?

27 / 40

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30 / 40

Which quantity is a physical quantity?

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33 / 40

A wire carries a current of 0.10 µA. The potential difference across the wire is 10 mV.
How much energy is dissipated by the wire in a time of 10 s?

34 / 40

35 / 40

A ship of mass 8.4 × 107 kg is approaching a harbour with speed 16.4 m s–1. By using reverse
thrust it can maintain a constant total stopping force of 920 000N.
How long will it take to stop?

36 / 40

A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed
frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer.
Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency?

37 / 40

38 / 40

A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus
of steel is 2.0 × 1011Pa.
One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The
wire obeys Hooke’s law.
What is the extension of the wire?

39 / 40

What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component?

40 / 40

The electric current in a metal wire is 4.0 mA.
How many electrons pass a fixed point in the wire in a time of 10 hours?

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