0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 A trader is considering selling goods on credit to a new customer. What could be calculated from the customer’s financial statements to indicate the time normally taken to pay for goods purchased on credit? current ratio trade payables turnover liquid (acid test) ratio trade receivables turnover 2 / 35 On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly recorded as office expenses, $90. Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase. What was the effect on the profit for the year? overstated by $810 overstated by $990 understated by $90 understated by $900 3 / 35 A B D C 4 / 35 $100 000 $70 000 $50 000 $35 000 5 / 35 Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club? bank charges, depreciation, wages deficit, sales revenue, treasurer’s expenses bank charges, gross profit, sales revenue depreciation, treasurer’s expenses, wages 6 / 35 D A C B 7 / 35 Which item is an asset? an amount owing to credit suppliers rent received in advance from tenant interest accrued on bank loan an amount owing by credit customers 8 / 35 Kamika’s financial statements did not comply with the accounting principle of money measurement. What had Kamika done? valued her inventory above original cost forgot to include prepaid insurance included a value for the skill of her employees recorded her drawings in wages and salaries 9 / 35 What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business? cash trade receivables office equipment work in progress 10 / 35 $13 200 $15 400 $31 200 $32 700 11 / 35 Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice? $3880 $3400 $3298 $4000 12 / 35 $32 000 $31 200 $32 800 $29 200 13 / 35 Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022? $33 770 $43 370 $34 130 $43 730 14 / 35 Shula’s financial year ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021 there was a credit balance of $100 on Yasmin’s account in Shula’s purchases ledger. What does this mean? Shula owed $100 to Yasmin. Yasmin owed $100 to Shula. Yasmin had paid $100 to Shula. Shula had paid $100 to Yasmin. 15 / 35 C B A D 16 / 35 Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct? The account is used when an amount, previously written off, is received from a customer. The balance of the account is debited to the income statement at the end of the year. The account is used when doubtful debts are recovered. The balance of the account is shown in the statement of financial position. 17 / 35 There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account? $6960 $7200 $6600 $7800 18 / 35 Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position? at expected sales value at book value at original cost at replacement cost 19 / 35 What is shown in a manufacturing account? 1 cost of material consumed 2 purchases of finished goods 3 cost of production 4 cost of sales 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 20 / 35 Rashida sells goods on credit and allows her customers a trade discount. Which statements are correct? 1 A debit entry is made in the customer’s account in the sales ledger for the net value of the goods sold. 2 The date of sale, name of the customer, cost price and trade discount are entered in the sales journal. 3 The trade discount is debited to the customer’s account and credited to the discount allowed account. 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 21 / 35 D B C A 22 / 35 22 days 20 days 24 days 17 days 23 / 35 Which is a feature of debentures? are a long-term liability of a company carry a fixed rate of dividend on liquidation are paid back after shareholders carry voting rights 24 / 35 Which are examples of book-keeping? 1 entering details of a cheque received from a customer in a cash book 2 entering details of goods purchased on credit in a purchases journal 3 producing an income statement to calculate the profit for the year 4 recording details of credit sales in the account of a credit customer 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 25 / 35 double Bashir’s three times Bashir’s half of Bashir’s one-third of Bashir’s 26 / 35 C B A D 27 / 35 Which items appear in the capital and reserves section of a statement of financial position of a limited company? ordinary share capital, debentures, retained earnings ordinary share capital, general reserve, retained earnings debentures, ordinary share dividend, general reserve debentures, retained earnings, general reserve 28 / 35 A C B D 29 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the annual depreciation on office premises the purchase of a new computer for resale the cost of repairing office equipment the cost of building an office extension 30 / 35 Which transaction is recorded in the general journal? purchase of a motor vehicle by cheque correction of an error in recording sales returns drawings in cash by the owner purchase of goods on credit 31 / 35 Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied? duality prudence money measurement matching 32 / 35 A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct? Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the number of shares owned. Shareholders would have to sell their personal possessions to pay the debts of the company Shareholders would lose the money that was paid when the shares were first purchased. Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the value of shares owned. 33 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper? comparison of financial statements between years preparation of financial statements provision of information for decision-making recording financial transactions 34 / 35 A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 35 / 35 D C B A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
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TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
A trader is considering selling goods on credit to a new customer. What could be calculated from the customer’s financial statements to indicate the time normally taken to pay for goods purchased on credit?
2 / 35
On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly recorded as office expenses, $90. Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase. What was the effect on the profit for the year?
3 / 35
4 / 35
5 / 35
Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club?
6 / 35
7 / 35
Which item is an asset?
8 / 35
Kamika’s financial statements did not comply with the accounting principle of money measurement. What had Kamika done?
9 / 35
What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business?
10 / 35
11 / 35
Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice?
12 / 35
13 / 35
Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?
14 / 35
Shula’s financial year ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021 there was a credit balance of $100 on Yasmin’s account in Shula’s purchases ledger. What does this mean?
15 / 35
16 / 35
Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct?
17 / 35
There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account?
18 / 35
Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position?
19 / 35
What is shown in a manufacturing account? 1 cost of material consumed 2 purchases of finished goods 3 cost of production 4 cost of sales
20 / 35
Rashida sells goods on credit and allows her customers a trade discount. Which statements are correct? 1 A debit entry is made in the customer’s account in the sales ledger for the net value of the goods sold. 2 The date of sale, name of the customer, cost price and trade discount are entered in the sales journal. 3 The trade discount is debited to the customer’s account and credited to the discount allowed account.
21 / 35
22 / 35
23 / 35
Which is a feature of debentures?
24 / 35
Which are examples of book-keeping?
1 entering details of a cheque received from a customer in a cash book 2 entering details of goods purchased on credit in a purchases journal 3 producing an income statement to calculate the profit for the year 4 recording details of credit sales in the account of a credit customer
25 / 35
26 / 35
27 / 35
Which items appear in the capital and reserves section of a statement of financial position of a limited company?
28 / 35
29 / 35
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
30 / 35
Which transaction is recorded in the general journal?
31 / 35
Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied?
32 / 35
A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct?
33 / 35
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper?
34 / 35
A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises
35 / 35
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 2 / 35 Which statements about book-keeping and accounting are correct? Book-keeping involves the recording of financial transactions. Book-keeping includes the preparation of financial statements. Accounting is performed periodically rather than daily. Accounting relies on having accurate book-keeping records. 3 / 35 Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded? $2606 on the debit side $3774 on the credit side $2606 on the credit side $3774 on the debit side 4 / 35 an irrecoverable debt the recovery of a debt previously written off discount allowed the balance carried down 5 / 35 C A B D 6 / 35 Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business? to ensure that employees are being paid the correct hourly rate to check that the correct amount of tax is being paid to calculate and assess the trade payables turnover to ensure that funds are sufficient to cover loan interest 7 / 35 B C D A 8 / 35 Tarek produced a statement of affairs at 31 December year 1 and at 31 December year 2. During year 2, his long-term loan increased by $3000 and his net current assets decreased by $1000. Depreciation for the year was $500. By how much did the total of Tarek’s capital decrease? $4000 $4500 $3500 $2500 9 / 35 Which statement about club accounts is correct? Capital and revenue transactions are recorded in the income and expenditure account. The closing balance in the receipts and payments account represents a surplus or deficit. Only revenue transactions are recorded in the receipts and payments account. Non-cash transactions are recorded in the income and expenditure account. 10 / 35 What is not a limitation of inter-firm comparison? The available information may not relate to a typical year. Accounting records do not include the skills of the workforce Businesses may have different accounting policies. Businesses may have different sales prices. 11 / 35 Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account? provision for doubtful debts interest on overdue account cash discount contra entry 12 / 35 A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform? making entries in the general journal to adjust a provision for doubtful debts extracting balances from the ledger accounts to produce a trial balance recording sales and purchase invoices in the books of prime entry preparing a monthly report that analyses the profitability of the company 13 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $68 000 $3000 $83 000 $5000 14 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $640 $670 $600 $660 15 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? subscriptions accumulated fund capital retained earnings 16 / 35 A C B D 17 / 35 On 1 January Abdul owed Hanif $400. On 31 January Abdul allowed Hanif $8 trade discount. On 4 January Hanif purchased goods, $250, from Abdul. On 31 January Hanif owed Abdul $150. 18 / 35 What is a cheque counterfoil used for? to send a payment to a supplier to make a debit entry in the bank column of a cash book to send proof of payment to a customer to make a credit entry in the bank column of a cash book 19 / 35 C B A D 20 / 35 $14 500 $5500 $13 000 $10 000 21 / 35 D A C B 22 / 35 $16 500 $18 250 $18 500 $20 500 23 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? overcast by $200 overcast by $200 overcast by $130 undercast by $200 24 / 35 $870 credit $870 debit $2070 debit $2070 credit 25 / 35 Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct? The balance of the account is debited to the income statement at the end of the year. The balance of the account is shown in the statement of financial position. The account is used when an amount, previously written off, is received from a customer. The account is used when doubtful debts are recovered. 26 / 35 A B C D 27 / 35 Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct? It is used for assets which give greater benefits in the early years of their life Each year a given percentage is deducted from the cost of the asset less the depreciation to date. The net book value of the non-current asset will never reach a nil value. A lower amount of depreciation is charged in the early years of the asset’s life than in the later years. 28 / 35 A C B D 29 / 35 A D B C 30 / 35 Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained? sales journal purchases ledger sales ledger purchases journal 31 / 35 D C B A 32 / 35 Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business? factory supervisor’s salary carriage outwards carriage inwards factory rent 33 / 35 Why would a business record the amount owing by a credit customer as an irrecoverable debt? The customer has liquidity problems The customer has gone out of business. The customer is making a loss. The customer is not satisfied with the goods 34 / 35 Carl, a trader, took goods from the business for his own use. These goods had cost $100, and $8 carriage had been paid for them to be delivered to the business. How would this be recorded in Carl’s accounts in the books of the business? debit Carl’s capital account $100 debit Carl’s drawings account $108 debit Carl’s drawings account $100 debit Carl’s capital account $108 35 / 35 A limited company raised funds from an issue of debentures. Which statement is correct? The debentures are part of the equity of the company. The debenture interest is paid only if the company earns a profit. The debenture holders cannot vote at the annual general meeting. The debenture holders are repaid only if the company is wound up. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Which statements about book-keeping and accounting are correct?
Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded?
Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business?
Tarek produced a statement of affairs at 31 December year 1 and at 31 December year 2. During year 2, his long-term loan increased by $3000 and his net current assets decreased by $1000. Depreciation for the year was $500. By how much did the total of Tarek’s capital decrease?
Which statement about club accounts is correct?
What is not a limitation of inter-firm comparison?
Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account?
A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform?
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?
What is a cheque counterfoil used for?
The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?
Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct?
Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained?
Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business?
Why would a business record the amount owing by a credit customer as an irrecoverable debt?
Carl, a trader, took goods from the business for his own use. These goods had cost $100, and $8 carriage had been paid for them to be delivered to the business. How would this be recorded in Carl’s accounts in the books of the business?
A limited company raised funds from an issue of debentures. Which statement is correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast? lactic acid + oxygen alcohol + carbon dioxide alcohol + oxygen lactic acid + carbon dioxide 2 / 40 Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature? skin heart liver brain 3 / 40 excretion, growth and movement movement, nutrition and sensitivity nutrition, reproduction and respiration reproduction, sensitivity and growth 4 / 40 B C A D 5 / 40 D A C B 6 / 40 What kind of molecule is an enzyme? fat protein starch glucose 7 / 40 Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? organism species binomial genus 8 / 40 What is the approximate percentage of oxygen contained in the air breathed out of the lungs? 4% 0% 16% 20% 9 / 40 Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released contraceptive pill vasectomy monitoring body temperature condom 10 / 40 C B A D 11 / 40 D A C B 12 / 40 In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous? 50% black, 50% white 100% black 25% black, 75% white 100% white 13 / 40 Which description of a population is correct? all the birds in a rainforest all the red deer in a forest all the arachnids in a garden all the arthropods in the world 14 / 40 In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine. In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine. To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890? 104% 51% 204% 49% 15 / 40 A crop plant has been genetically modified to make it resistant to herbicides. Which is a possible disadvantage of introducing this new crop plant? Some weeds might become resistant to the herbicide Loss of weeds reduces competition. The crop plant is unharmed and produces a higher yield. The new gene will appear in new generations of the crop. 16 / 40 Which food type, when eaten in excess, will cause a rise in the urea content of urine? carbohydrate protein fat mineral salts 17 / 40 Which stage of nutrition takes place when food molecules become part of a body cell? absorption ingestion digestion assimilation 18 / 40 D B A C 19 / 40 After vigorous exercise, an athlete continues to breathe deeply during the recovery period. During this recovery period the oxygen debt is removed. Which reaction is used to remove the oxygen debt? aerobic respiration of lactic acid in the liver aerobic respiration of lactic acid in the muscles anaerobic respiration of lactic acid in the liver anaerobic respiration of lactic acid in the muscles 20 / 40 Which process uses energy released in respiration? osmosis evaporation growth diffusion 21 / 40 B A D C 22 / 40 C A D B 23 / 40 Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism? Plant roots grow towards light. Plant shoots grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow away from light. 24 / 40 Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct? It produces gametes. It produces genetically different offspring. It requires two parents. It requires only one parent. 25 / 40 In which process is oxygen a waste product? photosynthesis aerobic respiration anaerobic respiration active transport 26 / 40 Which substance found in a healthy diet helps to prevent constipation? minerals fat vitamins fibre 27 / 40 What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’? community habitat trophic level environment 28 / 40 Which statement about an enzyme-controlled reaction is correct? During the reaction, the substrate changes into products. The higher the temperature, the slower the reaction The enzyme is slowly broken down during the reaction The enzyme is gradually used up during the reaction. 29 / 40 Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering? 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2 and 3 only 30 / 40 It has a large vacuole. It has a thin layer of cytoplasm. It has a cellulose cell wall. It has a large surface area. 31 / 40 Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems? respiration photosynthesis ingestion decomposition 32 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x18 x1.8 x200 x2000 33 / 40 What is a correct description of a gene mutation? a duplicate copy of DNA an increase in the number of chromosomes a change in the base sequence of DNA a phenotypic variation 34 / 40 Which statements about auxin are correct? 1 Auxin is made in all cells in plants. 2 Auxin causes cells to elongate. 3 Auxin moves between the cells by osmosis. 4 Auxin is unequally distributed. 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 35 / 40 Which process uses energy released in respiration? diffusion osmosis growth evaporation 36 / 40 Four processes involved in labour and birth are shown. 1 cutting the umbilical cord 2 contraction of muscles in the uterus wall 3 delivery of the afterbirth 4 dilation of the cervix 5 passage of the baby through the vagina In which sequence do these events normally occur? 2 → 4 → 3 → 1→ 5 4 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 5 4 →3 → 2 → 5 → 1 2 → 4 → 5 → 1 → 3 37 / 40 Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment? large leaves small roots thick waxy cuticle many stomata 38 / 40 The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity? mouth and duodenum colon and duodenum colon and stomach stomach and mouth 39 / 40 Which cell contains a haploid nucleus? neurone red blood cell sperm cell skin cell 40 / 40 In a length of DNA, 20% of the bases were T. What is the percentage of base G in this length of DNA? 10% 20% 80% 30% NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?
2 / 40
Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature?
3 / 40
4 / 40
5 / 40
6 / 40
What kind of molecule is an enzyme?
7 / 40
Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
8 / 40
What is the approximate percentage of oxygen contained in the air breathed out of the lungs?
9 / 40
Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released
10 / 40
11 / 40
12 / 40
In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?
13 / 40
Which description of a population is correct?
14 / 40
In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine. In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine. To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890?
15 / 40
A crop plant has been genetically modified to make it resistant to herbicides. Which is a possible disadvantage of introducing this new crop plant?
16 / 40
Which food type, when eaten in excess, will cause a rise in the urea content of urine?
17 / 40
Which stage of nutrition takes place when food molecules become part of a body cell?
18 / 40
19 / 40
After vigorous exercise, an athlete continues to breathe deeply during the recovery period. During this recovery period the oxygen debt is removed. Which reaction is used to remove the oxygen debt?
20 / 40
Which process uses energy released in respiration?
21 / 40
22 / 40
23 / 40
Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?
24 / 40
Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct?
25 / 40
In which process is oxygen a waste product?
26 / 40
Which substance found in a healthy diet helps to prevent constipation?
27 / 40
What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’?
28 / 40
Which statement about an enzyme-controlled reaction is correct?
29 / 40
Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?
30 / 40
31 / 40
Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems?
32 / 40
A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram?
33 / 40
What is a correct description of a gene mutation?
34 / 40
Which statements about auxin are correct?
1 Auxin is made in all cells in plants. 2 Auxin causes cells to elongate. 3 Auxin moves between the cells by osmosis. 4 Auxin is unequally distributed.
35 / 40
36 / 40
Four processes involved in labour and birth are shown. 1 cutting the umbilical cord 2 contraction of muscles in the uterus wall 3 delivery of the afterbirth 4 dilation of the cervix 5 passage of the baby through the vagina In which sequence do these events normally occur?
37 / 40
Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment?
38 / 40
The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity?
39 / 40
Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?
40 / 40
In a length of DNA, 20% of the bases were T. What is the percentage of base G in this length of DNA?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this? The person cannot control how much light enters the eye. Receptors do not produce nerve impulses in response to light. Nerve impulses from the eye cannot reach the brain. The person cannot focus light onto the retina. 2 / 40 Which statement about urea is correct? Urea is made in the kidneys and then removed from the body by the liver Liver cells break down proteins to amino acids which are then converted to urea in the kidneys Amino acids are transported to the kidneys where they are converted to urea Urea travels from liver cells to the kidneys where it is filtered out of the blood. 3 / 40 Which statement applies to respiration? It involves enzymes. It only takes place in animal cells Energy is absorbed. Oxygen is released. 4 / 40 Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature? skin brain liver heart 5 / 40 Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors? liver brain muscles skin 6 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x200 x2000 x1.8 x18 7 / 40 Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body? phagocytosis mucus antibody production vaccination 8 / 40 What is a correct description of a gene mutation? a change in the base sequence of DNA a duplicate copy of DNA an increase in the number of chromosomes a phenotypic variation 9 / 40 The list shows some processes that take place in a human body. 1 production of new red blood cells 2 transmission of nerve impulses from the eyes to the brain 3 diffusion of gases into and out of the lungs Which processes use energy released by respiration? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 10 / 40 Which description of a population is correct? all the arthropods in the world all the arachnids in a garden all the red deer in a forest all the birds in a rainforest 11 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. 12 / 40 Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum? egestion ingestion mechanical digestion chemical digestion 13 / 40 What happens during respiration in germinating seeds? Glucose is used up by the seeds. Carbon dioxide is taken up by the seeds. Oxygen is given out by the seeds. Seed temperature decreases 14 / 40 In which part of a cell does photosynthesis take place? cytoplasm chloroplast nucleus vacuole 15 / 40 A student’s eyes blinked as a ball flew past their head. This is a reflex action. Which row describes the reaction shown by the student? a fast reaction involving the nervous system a slow reaction involving the nervous system a fast reaction involving the endocrine system a slow reaction involving the endocrine system 16 / 40 All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells. What is the name of this characteristic? nutrition respiration growth sensitivity 17 / 40 Beak shape in birds is controlled by genes passed from the parent birds to their offspring. What is this an example of? selection mitosis inheritance fertilisation 18 / 40 Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct? Females have an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. Males and females have at least one X chromosome. Males and females have at least one Y chromosome. Females have two Y chromosomes. 19 / 40 1 2 3 0 20 / 40 The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3 Which statement is correct for this food chain? Organism 3 is a tertiary consumer Organism 2 is a carnivore Organism 2 is a secondary consumer. Organism 3 is a carnivore. 21 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? stigma → ovary → style → ovule stigma → style → ovary → ovule ovary → stigma → ovule → style ovary → ovule → stigma → style 22 / 40 The list contains statements about sexual and asexual reproduction in plants. 1 It promotes genetic variation. 2) It requires self-pollination. 3) It requires meiosis. 4) It produces offspring that are identical to the parent. 5) It allows the population to increase rapidly. Which statements describe asexual reproduction in plants? 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 1, 2 and 5 4 and 5 23 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a concentrated salt solution. After soaking for one hour the potato tissue was observed. How will the potato tissue have changed after soaking for one hour? no change longer and firmer shorter and firmer shorter and softer 24 / 40 What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome? DNA only mRNA and amino acids mRNA only DNA and amino acids 25 / 40 A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC? It remained the same. It decreased steadily. t increased steadily. It increased and then decreased. 26 / 40 The water drop will move away from the woodlice because respiration uses carbon dioxide. The water drop will move towards the woodlice because respiration uses oxygen. The water drop will move away from the woodlice because respiration uses oxygen. The water drop will move towards the woodlice because respiration uses carbon dioxide. 27 / 40 Scientists discover a new species of animal. It has a segmented body with two pairs of legs on each segment. To which group of animals does this new species belong? arachnids insects crustaceans myriapods 28 / 40 Which statement about passive immunity is correct? It is inherited. It gives a long-term effect. Antibodies are acquired. Memory cells are produced. 29 / 40 Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed. 1 calcium 2 fat 3 fibre 4 vitamin D Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones? 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 30 / 40 Which process is part of the carbon cycle? combustion evaporation precipitation transpiration 31 / 40 A D B C 32 / 40 What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans? for growth and repair of cells to provide energy to help food move through the alimentary canal to maintain strong bones and teeth 33 / 40 A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins. What is the reason for this? decreased protein production increased protein production increased chlorophyll production decreased chlorophyll production 34 / 40 What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells? ions vitamins hormones enzymes 35 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid glucose → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide 36 / 40 The statements describe some of the events that occur in a plant after light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll. 1) converted to chemical energy 2) converted to sucrose for translocation 3) starch is stored in the roots or seeds 4) glucose is produced In which order do these events occur? 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 37 / 40 What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus? gametes → embryo → zygote gametes → zygote → embryo embryo → zygote → gametes embryo → gametes → zygote 38 / 40 All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells. What is the name of this characteristic? nutrition sensitivity respiration growth 39 / 40 A C B D 40 / 40 A C D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this?
Which statement about urea is correct?
Which statement applies to respiration?
Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors?
Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body?
The list shows some processes that take place in a human body. 1 production of new red blood cells 2 transmission of nerve impulses from the eyes to the brain 3 diffusion of gases into and out of the lungs Which processes use energy released by respiration?
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?
What happens during respiration in germinating seeds?
In which part of a cell does photosynthesis take place?
A student’s eyes blinked as a ball flew past their head. This is a reflex action. Which row describes the reaction shown by the student?
All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.
What is the name of this characteristic?
Beak shape in birds is controlled by genes passed from the parent birds to their offspring. What is this an example of?
Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct?
The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3
Which statement is correct for this food chain?
Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?
The list contains statements about sexual and asexual reproduction in plants. 1 It promotes genetic variation. 2) It requires self-pollination. 3) It requires meiosis. 4) It produces offspring that are identical to the parent. 5) It allows the population to increase rapidly. Which statements describe asexual reproduction in plants?
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a concentrated salt solution. After soaking for one hour the potato tissue was observed. How will the potato tissue have changed after soaking for one hour?
What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome?
A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC?
Scientists discover a new species of animal. It has a segmented body with two pairs of legs on each segment. To which group of animals does this new species belong?
Which statement about passive immunity is correct?
Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed. 1 calcium 2 fat 3 fibre 4 vitamin D Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones?
Which process is part of the carbon cycle?
What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans?
A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins. What is the reason for this?
What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells?
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
The statements describe some of the events that occur in a plant after light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll. 1) converted to chemical energy 2) converted to sucrose for translocation 3) starch is stored in the roots or seeds 4) glucose is produced In which order do these events occur?
What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? methane, CH4 ammonia, NH3 water, H2O chlorine, Cl2 2 / 40 Which statement describes how a flame test is done? A wooden splint is lit, blown out and the glowing splint put into a test-tube of the gas being tested. The tip of a clean wire is dipped into the substance and the wire is placed in a blue Bunsen burner flame. The tip of a clean wire is dipped into the substance and the wire is placed in a yellow Bunsen burner flame. A wooden splint is lit and is placed above a test-tube containing the gas being tested. 3 / 40 State which metal in the first 36 elements: is the Group I element which reacts most vigorously with water Check 4 / 40 An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct? Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+. Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+. Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+. Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+. 5 / 40 Transition elements can have variable oxidation states. Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states? Cr2O3and Cr2(SO4)3 ZnS and ZnSO4 Cu2O and CuCO3 NiO and Ni(NO3)2 6 / 40 Concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Name the products of this electrolysis at: the positive electrode. Check 7 / 40 D C A B 8 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: a gas which forms 21% of clean dry air Check 9 / 40 use of chlorine swimming pools Bleaching agent water purification Above all 10 / 40 In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction loss electron(s) gains electron(s) Both 11 / 40 Orange juice is acidic. What is around the pH of orange juice. pH 13 pH 4 pH 7 pH 10 12 / 40 Which statement about isotopes is correct? They have the same nucleon number. They have the same number of electrons in their outer shell. They have different chemical properties. They have different proton numbers. 13 / 40 Excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia to make a salt which can be used as a fertiliser. State the name of the salt formed when excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia. Check 14 / 40 Which is a typical property of transition elements? can act as catalysts low density low melting point poor electrical conductivity 15 / 40 A B D C 16 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: (i) is an alkane Check 17 / 40 Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1 It can be made by fermentation. 2 It is an unsaturated compound. 3 It burns in air and can be used as a fuel. 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 18 / 40 Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct? 1) Water is formed as the only waste product. 2) Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products. 3) The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. 4) The overall reaction is endothermic. 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 19 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an element which is used as a fuel Check 20 / 40 X is a colourless greenhouse gas. It is a waste product from digestion in animals. It is generally unreactive, but it can be burnt. What is X? carbon dioxide sulfur dioxide nitrogen methane 21 / 40 D B A C 22 / 40 Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide? combustion oxidation endothermic reduction 23 / 40 Element Y reacts with copper(II) oxide to form copper. Element Y will not react with zinc oxide. Copper has no reaction with zinc oxide. What is the order of reactivity of these three elements, most reactive first? Zn → Y → Cu Cu → Y → Zn Zn → Cu → Y Cu → Zn → Y 24 / 40 Two tests are carried out on substance Z. test 1) A flame test produces a red flame. test 2) Z is dissolved in water and dilute nitric acid is added, followed by aqueous silver nitrate. A yellow precipitate is produced. What is substance Z? sodium iodide sodium bromide lithium bromide lithium iodide 25 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: reacts with sodium to produce only aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen Check 26 / 40 Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting? 1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal. 1 and 4 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 27 / 40 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 28 / 40 Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in a fuel cell. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The reaction is exothermic. 286 kJ of energy is released for every mole of water formed. Which volume of hydrogen gas, measured at room temperature and pressure, would react with oxygen with the release of 7000 J of energy? 587 dm3 1175 dm3 587 cm3 1175 cm3 29 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: does not form an oxide Check 30 / 40 Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid. Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt Check 31 / 40 Which row describes the properties of a transition element? Melting point (High), density (High), forms coloured (Yes) Melting point (High), density (Low), forms coloured (No) Melting point (Low), density (Low), forms coloured (No) Melting point (Low), density (Low), forms coloured (Yes) 32 / 40 What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation? The raw materials used are renewable. There are no other products formed. The ethanol requires no separation. The process is very fast 33 / 40 The equations for three reactions are shown. 1) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) 2) 2AgNO3(aq) + CuI2(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgI(s) 3) CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l) Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 34 / 40 Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1) Ethanol is made by reacting steam with ethene at 300 °C. 2) Ethanol is made by fermentation at 55 °C. 3) Ethanol burns to produce carbon dioxide and water. 4) Ethanol contains a carbon-carbon double bond. 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 35 / 40 Ethanoic acid is a weak acid and hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Both ethanoic acid and hydrochloric acid dissociate in aqueous solution. Define the term acid proton donor Both proton receiver 36 / 40 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion? CH4 H2 NH3 CO2 37 / 40 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis? The colour changes from blue to red. The colour changes from green to blue. The colour changes from green to red. The colour changes from blue to green. 38 / 40 In industry, calcium oxide is made from calcium carbonate by thermal decomposition. heat CaCO3 →CaO + CO2 Why is this described as thermal decomposition? Check 39 / 40 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments? Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode. Hydrogen would be formed at the anode A halogen would be formed at the anode. A metal would be formed at the cathode. 40 / 40 Which reaction is reversible? white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turning blue when water is added magnesium burning in air to produce a white ash limestone reacting with an acid to form carbon dioxide gas an iron nail rusting when left in moist air NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
Which statement describes how a flame test is done?
State which metal in the first 36 elements: is the Group I element which reacts most vigorously with water
An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct?
Transition elements can have variable oxidation states. Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states?
Concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Name the products of this electrolysis at: the positive electrode.
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: a gas which forms 21% of clean dry air
use of chlorine
In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction
Orange juice is acidic. What is around the pH of orange juice.
Which statement about isotopes is correct?
Excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia to make a salt which can be used as a fertiliser. State the name of the salt formed when excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia.
Which is a typical property of transition elements?
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: (i) is an alkane
Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1 It can be made by fermentation. 2 It is an unsaturated compound. 3 It burns in air and can be used as a fuel.
Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct? 1) Water is formed as the only waste product. 2) Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products. 3) The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. 4) The overall reaction is endothermic.
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an element which is used as a fuel
X is a colourless greenhouse gas. It is a waste product from digestion in animals. It is generally unreactive, but it can be burnt. What is X?
Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide?
Element Y reacts with copper(II) oxide to form copper. Element Y will not react with zinc oxide. Copper has no reaction with zinc oxide. What is the order of reactivity of these three elements, most reactive first?
Two tests are carried out on substance Z.
test 1) A flame test produces a red flame. test 2) Z is dissolved in water and dilute nitric acid is added, followed by aqueous silver nitrate. A yellow precipitate is produced.
What is substance Z?
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: reacts with sodium to produce only aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting?
1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal.
Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in a fuel cell. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O The reaction is exothermic. 286 kJ of energy is released for every mole of water formed. Which volume of hydrogen gas, measured at room temperature and pressure, would react with oxygen with the release of 7000 J of energy?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: does not form an oxide
Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid. Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt
Which row describes the properties of a transition element?
What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation?
The equations for three reactions are shown. 1) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) 2) 2AgNO3(aq) + CuI2(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgI(s) 3) CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l) Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation?
Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1) Ethanol is made by reacting steam with ethene at 300 °C. 2) Ethanol is made by fermentation at 55 °C. 3) Ethanol burns to produce carbon dioxide and water. 4) Ethanol contains a carbon-carbon double bond.
Ethanoic acid is a weak acid and hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Both ethanoic acid and hydrochloric acid dissociate in aqueous solution. Define the term acid
Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?
Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?
In industry, calcium oxide is made from calcium carbonate by thermal decomposition. heat CaCO3 →CaO + CO2 Why is this described as thermal decomposition?
In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments?
Which reaction is reversible?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct? Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X. Y has more electron shells than X. Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X. Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X 2 / 40 Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1 Ethanol is used as a solvent. 2 Ethanol can be made directly from ethane. 3 Ethanol is a covalent compound. 1 and 3 1 and 2 1 only 2 and 3 3 / 40 Pure iron is a soft metal. When mixed with small amounts of tungsten it produces a hard alloy called tungsten steel. Which statements are correct? 1 Pure iron is a transition element. 2 The particles in pure iron are arranged in ordered layers. 3 Tungsten steel is a compound. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 4 / 40 Which substance is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process? vanadium(V) oxide phosphoric acid nickel iron 5 / 40 Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide They are soft, with a low melting point, and are electrical insulators. They are malleable, with a high melting point, and are electrical conductors. They are brittle, with a low melting point, and are insoluble in water. They are hard, with a high melting point, and are electrical insulators. 6 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? respiration combustion decomposition photosynthesis 7 / 40 What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation? The raw materials used are renewable. There are no other products formed. The process is very fast The ethanol requires no separation. 8 / 40 Which product is made in a fuel cell? hydrogen water carbon dioxide ethanol 9 / 40 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion? Aluminium does not react with water or air. Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series. Aluminium has a protective oxide layer Aluminium does not form ions easily. 10 / 40 Which statement about ethanol is not correct? Ethanol reacts with propanoic acid to make propyl ethanoate. Ethanol is oxidised to make ethanoic acid. Ethanol reacts with oxygen exothermically, making it a good fuel. Ethanol can be made by fermentation. 11 / 40 Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct? It is formed during the incomplete combustion of natural gas. It is a pollutant which causes acid rain. It is produced during the decomposition of vegetation. It damages stone buildings. 12 / 40 Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group. 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 13 / 40 In which molecule are all the outer shell electrons from each atom used to form covalent bonds? CH4 H2O NH3 Cl2 14 / 40 Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct? They have the same number of neutrons They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell. They have the same mass. They are all radioactive. 15 / 40 What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate? purification of water manufacture of aluminium manufacture of cement cracking of hydrocarbons 16 / 40 A fuel cell is used to generate electricity. Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell? hydrogen and methane hydrogen and oxygen nitrogen and oxygen nitrogen and methane 17 / 40 Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct? Carbon monoxide removes the silicon dioxide impurity forming slag. Limestone reduces iron(III) oxide to iron. Carbon reacts with oxygen and heats the furnace. Iron(III) oxide is oxidised to iron. 18 / 40 Which statement is correct for all metals? They conduct electricity when molten. They have a low melting point. They gain electrons when they form ions. They have a low density. 19 / 40 Which statement describes a transition element? It is a very poor conductor of electricity. It forms white compounds with sulfur, oxygen, chlorine and bromine. It can act as a catalyst and some of its compounds can also act as catalysts. It has a low density and a piece of it will float on water. 20 / 40 Which element forms an amphoteric oxide? carbon aluminium silicon magnesium 21 / 40 Which statement explains why lime is added to soil? to decrease the pH of acidic soil to increase the pH of acidic soil to decrease the pH of alkaline soil to increase the pH of alkaline soil 22 / 40 Which statements about ethene are correct? 1 It contains a C=C bond. 2 It does not decolourise bromine water. 3 Its molecules can join together to form long chain compounds. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 23 / 40 Which gas is used as a fuel? hydrogen oxygen nitrogen helium 24 / 40 The formula of an aluminium ion is Al3+. What is the formula of aluminium sulfate? Al2SO4 Al(SO4)2 Al2(SO4)3 Al3(SO4)2 25 / 40 Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid by acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is observed in the reaction? colourless to purple colourless to orange purple to colourless orange to colourless 26 / 40 How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH? 10 5 8 6 27 / 40 Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol. What is X? steam ethanoic acid hydrogen glucose 28 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 29 / 40 Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food? Terylene nylon carbohydrate poly(ethene) 30 / 40 Some properties of copper are listed. 1 It conducts electricity. 2 It conducts heat. 3 It is ductile. 4 It has a high melting point. Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan? 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 31 / 40 Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid? ethanoic acid + magnesium → magnesium ethanoate + water ethanoic acid + sodium oxide → sodium ethanoate + hydrogen ethanoic acid + calcium oxide → calcium ethanoate + water ethanoic acid + copper → copper ethanoate + hydrogen 32 / 40 Which property is shown by aqueous ethanoic acid? It turns red litmus blue. It reacts with copper to form hydrogen gas. It reacts with magnesium to form water. It reacts with copper(II) carbonate to form carbon dioxide gas. 33 / 40 Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture? distillation fractional distillation filtration crystallisation 34 / 40 The surface of magnesium ribbon reacts with the air to form magnesium oxide. Which statement explains why the layer of magnesium oxide is removed by dilute hydrochloric acid? Magnesium oxide is an acid Magnesium is a base. Magnesium oxide is a base. Magnesium ribbon reacts with hydrochloric acid. 35 / 40 Calcium carbonate, CaCO3, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide. The equation for the reaction is shown. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate is 100. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced? 4.4 g 2.2 g 2.8 g 44 g 36 / 40 When a piece of marble is added to hydrochloric acid, bubbles of carbon dioxide gas are given off. Which method is used to find the rate of the reaction? measuring the speed at which the gas bubbles rise upwards through the acid measuring the time taken for 10 cm3 of gas to be collected counting the number of gas bubbles formed measuring the diameter of the gas bubbles 37 / 40 Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of X? CHO<sub>2</sub> CHO CH<sub>2</sub>O C<sub>2</sub>HO 38 / 40 An NPK fertiliser is made by mixing two compounds. The first compound has the formula (NH4)2HPO4. What is the formula of the second compound? NaCl KNO3 CaCO3 (NH4)2SO4 39 / 40 Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown. carbon silicon germanium tin lead What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended? The proton number of the elements increases. The elements become more metallic. The elements have more electron shells. The elements have more electrons in their outer shell. 40 / 40 Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Lithium has the highest density and the most violent reaction with water. Potassium has the lowest melting point and the least violent reaction with water. Lithium has the highest melting point and the lowest density. Potassium has the highest melting point and the highest density. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct?
Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1 Ethanol is used as a solvent. 2 Ethanol can be made directly from ethane. 3 Ethanol is a covalent compound.
Pure iron is a soft metal. When mixed with small amounts of tungsten it produces a hard alloy called tungsten steel. Which statements are correct? 1 Pure iron is a transition element. 2 The particles in pure iron are arranged in ordered layers. 3 Tungsten steel is a compound.
Which substance is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?
Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide
Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
Which product is made in a fuel cell?
Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?
Which statement about ethanol is not correct?
Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct?
Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group.
In which molecule are all the outer shell electrons from each atom used to form covalent bonds?
Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?
What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate?
A fuel cell is used to generate electricity. Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell?
Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?
Which statement is correct for all metals?
Which statement describes a transition element?
Which element forms an amphoteric oxide?
Which statement explains why lime is added to soil?
Which statements about ethene are correct? 1 It contains a C=C bond. 2 It does not decolourise bromine water. 3 Its molecules can join together to form long chain compounds.
Which gas is used as a fuel?
The formula of an aluminium ion is Al3+. What is the formula of aluminium sulfate?
Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid by acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is observed in the reaction?
How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?
Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol. What is X?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food?
Some properties of copper are listed. 1 It conducts electricity. 2 It conducts heat. 3 It is ductile. 4 It has a high melting point. Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan?
Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid?
Which property is shown by aqueous ethanoic acid?
Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture?
The surface of magnesium ribbon reacts with the air to form magnesium oxide. Which statement explains why the layer of magnesium oxide is removed by dilute hydrochloric acid?
Calcium carbonate, CaCO3, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide. The equation for the reaction is shown. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate is 100. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced?
When a piece of marble is added to hydrochloric acid, bubbles of carbon dioxide gas are given off. Which method is used to find the rate of the reaction?
Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of X?
An NPK fertiliser is made by mixing two compounds. The first compound has the formula (NH4)2HPO4. What is the formula of the second compound?
Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown. carbon silicon germanium tin lead What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?
Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments? a fall in interest earned on overseas investment by the country a fall in the value of imported manufactured goods into the country a fall in foreign direct investment into the country a rise in the revenue earned from tourism in the country 2 / 30 C D A B 3 / 30 Supply exceeds demand by 200 000 tonnes. Supply exceeds demand by 400 000 tonnes Demand exceeds supply by 200 000 tonnes. Demand exceeds supply by 400 000 tonnes. 4 / 30 In Uganda, the rate of inflation fell from 5% in 2014 to 2% in 2015. Which conclusion can be drawn from this information? Prices were higher in 2015 than in 2014. The standard of living fell between 2014 and 2015. The cost of living fell between 2014 and 2015. Ugandan citizens were better off in 2015 than 2014. 5 / 30 In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply? 1.2 1.25 0.8 0.9 6 / 30 Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run? a programme of privatisation a reduction in the standard rate of income tax removal of all restrictions on imports into the country grants to firms to research new technology 7 / 30 A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer? the reduced cost of producing renewable energy the cost of installing wind turbines the loss of revenue from crops that grow on the land the profit made from selling the land 8 / 30 A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours? the additional time travelling to and from work the ability to increase his purchasing power the ten hours of leisure time the increased hourly earnings of $7.50 9 / 30 A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this? It changes the distribution of income. It ensures the equality of incomes. It leads to more people paying income taxes. It reduces the level of unemployment. 10 / 30 C D A B 11 / 30 B D C A 12 / 30 What could discourage women from seeking employment? More education and training are provided. There is a shift in employment to the services sector There are fewer promotion opportunities for women. More flexible and part-time jobs are available. 13 / 30 What causes market failure? government provision of services the existence of external benefits the existence of perfect competition social costs equal private costs 14 / 30 What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker? It may be difficult to find work locally. Career opportunities are abundant. Earnings are related to the level of skill. Labour supply is elastic and plentiful. 15 / 30 Which topic is not included in microeconomics? consumer demand economies of scale forms of competition inflation 16 / 30 Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment? decrease general taxation and increase the rate of interest decrease general taxation and decrease the rate of interest increase general taxation and increase the rate of interest increase general taxation and decrease the rate of interest 17 / 30 Z → Y → X Z → X → Y Y → X → Z Y → Z → X 18 / 30 A country specialises in the production of steel, toys and textiles. What is a disadvantage of specialisation for the country’s workers? They cannot afford to buy products from other countries. They have too much choice which wastes their time. They have to learn a variety of skills. They could become structurally unemployed if global demand changes. 19 / 30 $100 $150 $50 $40 20 / 30 What is the definition of foreign exchange rate? the price of one good in terms of another the price of one currency in terms of another the difference between emigration and immigration the difference between the values of imports and exports 21 / 30 Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm? higher labour productivity greater mechanisation higher skill levels longer training times 22 / 30 A C D B 23 / 30 What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy? the Swedish government granting aid to Somalia a German bank making a loan to a Nigerian company a Japanese car manufacturer establishing a factory in the Czech Republic the Canadian government introducing quotas on Malaysian electronics products 24 / 30 What is the most accurate definition of a foreign exchange rate? a rate at which exports are exchanged for imports a rate determined by the demand and supply of the currency a value of a currency expressed in terms of another currency a value of a currency as fixed by the government 25 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? an increase in the rate of interest an increase in the exchange rate a fall in the real value of debts an increase in the real purchasing power of money 26 / 30 B C D A 27 / 30 What might cause consumers in a high-income economy to both save more and spend more? an increase in the rate of interest expectation that prices will fall in the future inflation rising at a faster rate than wages an increase in wealth 28 / 30 What is the purpose of an economy’s production possibility curve (PPC)? It measures the supply of goods and services available in an economy. It shows the productive capacity in an economy at a point in time. It answers the question of what to produce in an economy. It enables microeconomic decisions to be taken by firms 29 / 30 Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments? money paid by chemical producers in the US for foreign oil money paid by foreign firms for US cars money paid by migrant workers in the US to their families overseas money paid by US tourists visiting attractions in other countries 30 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US government’s revenue will decline. The good will become cheaper in the US. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 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Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments?
2 / 30
3 / 30
4 / 30
In Uganda, the rate of inflation fell from 5% in 2014 to 2% in 2015. Which conclusion can be drawn from this information?
5 / 30
In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply?
6 / 30
Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run?
7 / 30
A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?
8 / 30
A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours?
9 / 30
A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this?
10 / 30
11 / 30
12 / 30
What could discourage women from seeking employment?
13 / 30
What causes market failure?
14 / 30
What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker?
15 / 30
Which topic is not included in microeconomics?
16 / 30
Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment?
17 / 30
18 / 30
A country specialises in the production of steel, toys and textiles. What is a disadvantage of specialisation for the country’s workers?
19 / 30
20 / 30
What is the definition of foreign exchange rate?
21 / 30
Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm?
22 / 30
23 / 30
What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy?
24 / 30
What is the most accurate definition of a foreign exchange rate?
25 / 30
What will deflation most likely lead to?
26 / 30
27 / 30
What might cause consumers in a high-income economy to both save more and spend more?
28 / 30
What is the purpose of an economy’s production possibility curve (PPC)?
29 / 30
Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments?
30 / 30
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses? low start-up and running costs long period of training required high level of competition high scope for economies of scale 2 / 30 What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker? Career opportunities are abundant. Labour supply is elastic and plentiful. Earnings are related to the level of skill. It may be difficult to find work locally. 3 / 30 To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem? There are external costs involved in production. The exploration involves demand and supply. Oil is expensive. Oil is a limited resource. 4 / 30 In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this? a fall in infant mortality but no change in the death rate no change in migration but the death rate rose a rise in net immigration but no change in the death rate the death rate fell with no change in migration 5 / 30 What is an advantage of a market economy? The lowest price possible is always charged. The government has no need to intervene in markets. Equilibrium market price clears the market. Producers and consumers have the same aims. 6 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting services developed, exporting manufactured goods developing, exporting primary commodities developed, exporting services 7 / 30 Which government policy would reduce economic growth? cutting the rate of corporation tax increasing expenditure on education raising interest rates lowering the rate of income tax 8 / 30 a recession a change in what consumers want to buy the use of previously unemployed resources more investment 9 / 30 What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy? the Canadian government introducing quotas on Malaysian electronics products a Japanese car manufacturer establishing a factory in the Czech Republic a German bank making a loan to a Nigerian company the Swedish government granting aid to Somalia 10 / 30 A D B C 11 / 30 What is classified as one of the four economic resources? production enterprise trade consumption 12 / 30 What causes market failure? the existence of perfect competition social costs equal private costs government provision of services the existence of external benefits 13 / 30 D A B C 14 / 30 What is a characteristic of tertiary industries? They do not sell to the final consumer. They tend to be labour-intensive. They are located away from centres of population They transform raw materials into goods. 15 / 30 Which measure would a government take to reduce a current account deficit? reduce income tax increase tariffs increase value added tax reduce domestic subsidies 16 / 30 In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply? 1.25 0.8 1.2 0.9 17 / 30 Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment? decrease general taxation and decrease the rate of interest decrease general taxation and increase the rate of interest increase general taxation and decrease the rate of interest increase general taxation and increase the rate of interest 18 / 30 D A C B 19 / 30 What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production? the size of the firm that uses the production process the output that the production process creates the market structure of the production process the resources on which the production relies 20 / 30 The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this? The price of capital will fall. The demand for capital will increase. The costs of production will increase. The supply of capital will decrease. 21 / 30 The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called? depreciation revaluation appreciation devaluation 22 / 30 B C A D 23 / 30 An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary? Its own dollar no longer acted as a store of value. The central bank controlled the issue of money too tightly. Commercial banks restricted their lending. Consumers only used credit cards rather than paper money. 24 / 30 RS OR RT OT 25 / 30 A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car? US$22 500 US$27 500 US$20 000 US$25 000 26 / 30 A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur? a reduction in imports a reduction in the number of doctors per capita an increase in absolute poverty an increase in incomes 27 / 30 What is an advantage of competitive markets? The economic problem of scarcity is eliminated. Competition causes inequalities of wealth. Competition encourages the efficient use of resources. The right quantity of merit goods is guaranteed. 28 / 30 Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it rises? progressive indirect proportionate regressive 29 / 30 What is the definition of diseconomies of scale? the increase in total costs as output increases the increase in average total costs as output increases the decrease in average revenue as output increases the decrease in fixed cost as output increases 30 / 30 Which situation indicates a mixed economy? Individual choices are unaffected by government actions Economic activity is controlled entirely by the private sector. The government carries out all planning and decision making. Services are provided by both private and public sectors. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses?
To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem?
In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this?
What is an advantage of a market economy?
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
Which government policy would reduce economic growth?
What is classified as one of the four economic resources?
What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?
Which measure would a government take to reduce a current account deficit?
What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production?
The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this?
The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called?
An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary?
A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?
A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur?
What is an advantage of competitive markets?
Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it rises?
What is the definition of diseconomies of scale?
Which situation indicates a mixed economy?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 B A C D 2 / 40 D A C B 3 / 40 D B C A 4 / 40 B C D A 5 / 40 A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail? 350 mm2 0.56 mm2 11 mm2 39 mm2 6 / 40 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 7 / 40 D B C A 8 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The current in each lamp is different. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. The lamps can be switched on and off separately. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on 9 / 40 Which quantity is equal to acceleration? area under a distance–time graph gradient of a speed–time graph gradient of a distance–time graph area under a speed–time graph 10 / 40 An object emits infrared radiation. Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the object? the density and the surface temperature of the object the surface area and the surface temperature of the object the mass and the surface area of the object the density and the surface area of the object 11 / 40 70 km / h 83 km / h 50 km / h 67 km / h 12 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? Radioactive materials have a half-life. The radiation given out is ionising. γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum Radioactive decay is a random process. 13 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? gamma rays infrared rays visible light rays ultraviolet rays 14 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 6.0N 7.0N 4.0N 2.0N 15 / 40 0.40 kg 0.80 kg 0.50 kg 0.65 kg 16 / 40 A B D C 17 / 40 A D B C 18 / 40 A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased? amplitude wavelength speed frequency 19 / 40 B D C A 20 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The current in each lamp is different. The lamps can be switched on and off separately. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. 21 / 40 A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor? 0.05 s 20 s 720 s 180 s 22 / 40 One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod? Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end. Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end. Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end. 23 / 40 Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable? waves hydroelectric nuclear fission wind 24 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.31 m / s 0.19 m / s 0.0 m / s 0.50 m / s 25 / 40 A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom? in the nucleus in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles on the orbiting particles spread throughout the atom 26 / 40 A B D C 27 / 40 Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement? The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water. The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles. The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles. 28 / 40 D A B C 29 / 40 It is larger and the same way up. It is smaller and inverted. It is larger and inverted. It is smaller and the same way up. 30 / 40 Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 31 / 40 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred? a student dragging a big box over a rough floor a heavy load hanging from a strong bar a car skidding to a stop on a road a crane lifting a load 32 / 40 A C B D 33 / 40 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train? 5.0 m / s 3.0 m / s 60 m / s 50 m / s 34 / 40 D A C B 35 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor? E = IV E = IVt E = IR E = IRt 36 / 40 When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this? The comb and the foil have charges of the same sign. The comb is uncharged and the foil is charged. The comb and the foil have charges of opposite sign. The comb is charged and the foil is uncharged. 37 / 40 A C D B 38 / 40 C A B D 39 / 40 Q and S only P, Q, R and S R only Q, R and S only 40 / 40 less than 4Ω more than 8Ω 8Ω 4Ω NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail?
The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
Which quantity is equal to acceleration?
An object emits infrared radiation. Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the object?
Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?
Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum?
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased?
A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor?
One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?
Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable?
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom?
Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement?
Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement?
Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?
A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train?
There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?
When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 The image is bigger than the object The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens The image is inverted. The image is closer to the lens than the object. 2 / 40 XZ ZY XY WY 3 / 40 B A C D 4 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number 5 / 40 B D C A 6 / 40 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract? The ripples pass through a narrow gap. The ripples hit the wall of the tank. The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water. The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water. 7 / 40 C D B A 8 / 40 D C B A 9 / 40 water molecules being hit by pollen grains pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains water molecules being hit by other water molecules pollen grains being hit by water molecules 10 / 40 7 N to the left 7 N to the right 1 N to the left 1 N to the right 11 / 40 A C B D 12 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 18 000 m 5.0 m 0.20 m 300 m 13 / 40 A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described? a gas being heated a gas cooling a liquid being heated a solid cooling 14 / 40 A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor? 0.05 s 20 s 720 s 180 s 15 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of protons only. They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of neutrons only. 16 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.19 m / s 0.0 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.31 m / s 17 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? radio waves infrared waves visible light ultraviolet waves 18 / 40 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred? a crane lifting a load a car skidding to a stop on a road a student dragging a big box over a rough floor a heavy load hanging from a strong bar 19 / 40 D C B A 20 / 40 C D A B 21 / 40 C D B A 22 / 40 Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west direction. 1 hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer 2 heating the magnet until red hot 3 withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it Which methods demagnetise the magnet? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 23 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured? joule watt ampere coulomb 24 / 40 67 km / h 70 km / h 50 km / h 83 km / h 25 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. 26 / 40 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction? rubber steel plastic copper 27 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. 28 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 4000W 40 000W 40W 400W 29 / 40 D C B A 30 / 40 1200 J 300 J 30 J 750 J 31 / 40 C A D B 32 / 40 Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element. What is this process called? radioactive decay convection the motor effect electromagnetic induction 33 / 40 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 only 1 only 34 / 40 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations? hydroelectric energy nuclear energy energy from tides energy from waves 35 / 40 B C D A 36 / 40 less than 1 year more than 1 year but less than 2 years more than 3 years more than 2 years but less than 3 years 37 / 40 C A B D 38 / 40 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1 angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 39 / 40 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current? relay earth wire fuse thermistor 40 / 40 C D B A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described?
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west direction. 1 hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer 2 heating the magnet until red hot 3 withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it Which methods demagnetise the magnet?
There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured?
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element. What is this process called?
Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?
Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Q only P and Q R only P only 2 / 40 Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood? calcium and iron carbohydrate and vitamin D carbohydrate and iron calcium and vitamin D 3 / 40 Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct? They are malleable. They conduct electricity. They are hard. They have low densities. 4 / 40 cool the nut and heat the bolt heat the nut and the bolt through the same temperature rise heat the nut only heat the bolt only 5 / 40 What is the function of the cell membrane? to hold the chlorophyll of the cell to hold the DNA of the cell to store nutrients or waste products to control which substances move in and out of the cell 6 / 40 The bubbles must have the same charge as the charge on the student. The bubbles must have the opposite charge to the charge on the student. The bubbles must be positively charged. The bubbles must be negatively charged. 7 / 40 Some calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid start to react. Water is then added to the reaction mixture. What happens to the rate of the reaction? It stays the same. It stops. It increases. It decreases. 8 / 40 D C A B 9 / 40 a lamp a variable resistor a fixed resistor a fuse 10 / 40 What is a property of infra-red radiation? It can only travel in liquids and gases. It can travel through a vacuum. It can only travel in a gas. It can only travel in a metal. 11 / 40 A B C D 12 / 40 Which words describe a noble gas? element, colourless, burns in air element, green, does not burn in air element, colourless, does not burn in air compound, colourless, does not burn in air 13 / 40 C B D A 14 / 40 B A D C 15 / 40 What is the definition of diffusion? the movement of particles from a hotter to a cooler region the downward movement of particles in the atmosphere the movement of particles down a concentration gradient the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient 16 / 40 D A C B 17 / 40 C A D B 18 / 40 graph 1 only neither graph graph 2 only both graphs 19 / 40 B A D C 20 / 40 decomposer carnivore herbivore producer 21 / 40 Barium hydroxide is an alkali. Which statement about barium hydroxide is correct? It has a pH greater than 7 in aqueous solution. It turns Universal Indicator red It reacts with metal carbonates. It reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide. 22 / 40 B A D C 23 / 40 During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina? testes → urethra → sperm ducts → vagina sperm ducts → testes → urethra → vagina urethra → testes → sperm ducts → vagina testes → sperm ducts → urethra → vagina 24 / 40 Which colour change is seen when water is added to anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride? blue to pink pink to blue blue to white white to blue 25 / 40 A C B D 26 / 40 D C B A 27 / 40 What is not needed for electrolysis? a power supply electrodes a bulb an electrolyte 28 / 40 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct? Sulfur dioxide is produced at the cathode. Hydrogen is produced at the anode. Oxygen is produced at the positive electrode. Both hydrogen and oxygen are produced at the negative electrode 29 / 40 In which list are all the sources of energy renewable? geothermal, tides, hydroelectric solar, wind, coal tides, nuclear fission, coal geothermal, hydroelectric, nuclear fission 30 / 40 Heat causes the lead(II) bromide to react with air. An exothermic reaction takes place in the crucible. The lead(II) bromide must be molten. Electrodes only conduct electricity when hot. 31 / 40 A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time. When does he develop the greatest power? lifting a box of mass 20 kg in 3.0 s lifting a box of mass 30 kg in 3.0 s lifting a box of mass 20 kg in 4.0 s lifting a box of mass 30 kg in 4.0 s 32 / 40 D C B A 33 / 40 Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue? into the glass in a new direction in the opposite direction to its original direction along the surface of the glass into the glass in its original direction 34 / 40 B C A D 35 / 40 4.0A 9.0A 0.25A 0.50A 36 / 40 C B A D 37 / 40 D B C A 38 / 40 C D A B 39 / 40 The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth. This stops when the food reaches the stomach. Why does this happen? The acid in the stomach slows down all reactions. The shape of the substrate molecules is changed. The kinetic energy of molecules is reduced by acids. The shape of the active site of the enzyme is altered by the low pH. 40 / 40 Most cars burn fossil fuels to release energy for their movement. Which characteristic of living organisms is similar to this? growth respiration excretion nutrition NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood?
Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct?
What is the function of the cell membrane?
Some calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid start to react. Water is then added to the reaction mixture. What happens to the rate of the reaction?
What is a property of infra-red radiation?
Which words describe a noble gas?
What is the definition of diffusion?
Barium hydroxide is an alkali. Which statement about barium hydroxide is correct?
During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?
Which colour change is seen when water is added to anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride?
What is not needed for electrolysis?
Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct?
In which list are all the sources of energy renewable?
A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time. When does he develop the greatest power?
Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue?
The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth. This stops when the food reaches the stomach. Why does this happen?
Most cars burn fossil fuels to release energy for their movement. Which characteristic of living organisms is similar to this?
