0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business? to check that the correct amount of tax is being paid to ensure that funds are sufficient to cover loan interest to calculate and assess the trade payables turnover to ensure that employees are being paid the correct hourly rate 2 / 35 Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum. What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2? $500 greater for G $100 greater for G $500 greater for H $100 greater for H 3 / 35 $23 740 $27 740 $29 460 $24 460 4 / 35 C D B A 5 / 35 B D A C 6 / 35 A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin? Expenses are decreasing. Cost of sales is decreasing. Selling price is decreasing. Quantity of goods sold is decreasing. 7 / 35 The totals of a trial balance agreed but it was found that the purchase of office equipment had been debited to office expenses account. Which type of error has been made? principle compensating original entry commission 8 / 35 D A B C 9 / 35 B A C D 10 / 35 $3800 debit $3800 credit $3400 debit $3400 credit 11 / 35 Subscriptions relating to the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $29 000. Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $24 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 1 January 2020 amounted to $2000. Subscriptions prepaid on 31 December 2020 amounted to $3000. 12 / 35 B D A C 13 / 35 Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account? contra entry interest on overdue account provision for doubtful debts cash discount 14 / 35 Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club? bank charges, depreciation, wages deficit, sales revenue, treasurer’s expenses depreciation, treasurer’s expenses, wages bank charges, gross profit, sales revenue 15 / 35 Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum. What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2? $100 greater for G $100 greater for H $500 greater for G $500 greater for H 16 / 35 Which statement is correct? Book-keeping requires the use of ratio analysis. Accounting is the recording of financial transactions. Accounting involves measuring profits and losses. Book-keeping involves communicating financial data. 17 / 35 Why would a supplier be interested in the financial statements of a credit customer? to know the amount owed by trade receivables to know the profit for the year to know the value of the inventory to know if the customer can pay what he owes 18 / 35 $870 debit $870 credit $2070 credit $2070 debit 19 / 35 The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year? $17 100 $15 860 $14 900 $16 140 20 / 35 Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022? $34 130 $33 770 $43 370 $43 730 21 / 35 $14 500 $10 000 $5500 $13 000 22 / 35 D B A C 23 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the cost of repairing office equipment the cost of building an office extension the annual depreciation on office premises the purchase of a new computer for resale 24 / 35 What is shown in a trial balance? ledger balances on a particular date receipts and payments for a particular period capital and profit on a particular date financial transactions for a particular period 25 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to show the transactions which took place during the year to summarise what the business owns and what it owes to calculate the profit for the year to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities 26 / 35 Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct? It records cash discounts. It is a ledger account for cash transactions only. It is a book of prime entry. It is a ledger account for bank transactions only. 27 / 35 B A D C 28 / 35 A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account? $8000 $6000 $14 000 $12 000 29 / 35 Which document does a trader issue to remind a credit customer that payment is due? credit note receipt statement of account debit note 30 / 35 D A C B 31 / 35 Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained? purchases ledger sales ledger sales journal purchases journal 32 / 35 What would be recorded on the credit side of a sales ledger control account? sales returns cash refunded to credit customers credit sales interest charged on overdue accounts 33 / 35 D A B C 34 / 35 Which book of prime entry is written up from the copies of credit notes issued by a trader? purchases journal purchases returns journal sales journal sales returns journal 35 / 35 A D C B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business?
2 / 35
Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum. What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2?
3 / 35
4 / 35
5 / 35
6 / 35
A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin?
7 / 35
The totals of a trial balance agreed but it was found that the purchase of office equipment had been debited to office expenses account. Which type of error has been made?
8 / 35
9 / 35
10 / 35
11 / 35
12 / 35
13 / 35
Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account?
14 / 35
Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club?
15 / 35
16 / 35
Which statement is correct?
17 / 35
Why would a supplier be interested in the financial statements of a credit customer?
18 / 35
19 / 35
The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year?
20 / 35
Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?
21 / 35
22 / 35
23 / 35
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
24 / 35
What is shown in a trial balance?
25 / 35
John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?
26 / 35
Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct?
27 / 35
28 / 35
A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account?
29 / 35
Which document does a trader issue to remind a credit customer that payment is due?
30 / 35
31 / 35
Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained?
32 / 35
What would be recorded on the credit side of a sales ledger control account?
33 / 35
34 / 35
Which book of prime entry is written up from the copies of credit notes issued by a trader?
35 / 35
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 D C A B 2 / 35 Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct? The account is used when doubtful debts are recovered. The balance of the account is shown in the statement of financial position. The balance of the account is debited to the income statement at the end of the year. The account is used when an amount, previously written off, is received from a customer. 3 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper? preparation of financial statements provision of information for decision-making comparison of financial statements between years recording financial transactions 4 / 35 Why is a trial balance prepared? to assist preparation of financial statements to analyse the financial information to control the costs of the business to evaluate the performance of the business 5 / 35 A D B C 6 / 35 $315 $290 $265 $25 7 / 35 Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its debts when they fall due. Sally is considering the following proposals. 1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000 2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months 3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years 4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business? 1 and 2 1 and 4 3 and 4 2 and 3 8 / 35 D A C B 9 / 35 A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60. During the year ended 31 August 2021: 12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year 10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year. On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from 8 members. What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021? $6600 $5640 $5160 $6840 10 / 35 Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business? to know whether drawings are at a reasonable level to calculate the provision for doubtful debts to know the total expenses of the business to calculate the interest payable on a loan 11 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $1200 $2400 $2500 $1100 12 / 35 Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying. 2 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 3 13 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $3000 $68 000 $83 000 $5000 14 / 35 Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer? debit note credit note statement of account invoice 15 / 35 double Bashir’s half of Bashir’s one-third of Bashir’s three times Bashir’s 16 / 35 $50 000 $70 000 $35 000 $100 000 17 / 35 What is a cheque counterfoil used for? to record a cheque payment in the cash book to pay a cheque into the bank account to record a cheque received in the cash book to pay a cheque into the bank account 18 / 35 $1000 $6000 $26 000 $16 000 19 / 35 $860 $590 $890 $620 20 / 35 Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct? It acts as a check on the balance of the purchases account. It includes transactions relating to all the credit suppliers. It is prepared using information from the books of prime entry. It provides proof of the arithmetical accuracy of the purchases ledger 21 / 35 Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct? A lower amount of depreciation is charged in the early years of the asset’s life than in the later years. The net book value of the non-current asset will never reach a nil value. It is used for assets which give greater benefits in the early years of their life Each year a given percentage is deducted from the cost of the asset less the depreciation to date. 22 / 35 $31 545 $32 445 $32 095 $31 195 23 / 35 $155 000 $175 000 $137 000 $145 000 24 / 35 Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets? to ensure that the matching principle is applied when preparing financial statements to retain cash in the business for replacement of non-current assets to charge the cost of non-current assets against profit in the year of purchase to ensure that non-current assets appear at book value in the statement of financial position 25 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? overcast by $200 overcast by $200 overcast by $130 undercast by $200 26 / 35 A D C B 27 / 35 What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business? cash work in progress office equipment trade receivables 28 / 35 Which error is an error of original entry? sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered as $320 in both the disposal account and Janet’s account sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered in the office equipment account and Jason’s account sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered in the sales account and Janet’s account sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 not entered in any accounts 29 / 35 At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply? prudence money measurement materiality matching 30 / 35 Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years 2 only 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 3 31 / 35 Jabari maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The imprest is restored at the end of each month. Which amount restores the imprest at the end of a month? the total of vouchers received the imprest amount less the total of vouchers received the amount left in petty cash less the total of vouchers received the amount left in petty cash plus the total of vouchers received 32 / 35 Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen? $16.00 $15.36 $20.00 $19.20 33 / 35 C A B D 34 / 35 What does not affect the total equity of a limited company? profit for the year issue of ordinary shares transfer from retained earnings to general reserve ordinary share dividend paid 35 / 35 Which business document contains details of purchases, returns and payments occurring during a trading period? invoice credit note statement of account debit note NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct?
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper?
Why is a trial balance prepared?
Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its debts when they fall due. Sally is considering the following proposals.
1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000 2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months 3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years 4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business?
A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60. During the year ended 31 August 2021: 12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year 10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year. On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from 8 members. What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021?
Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business?
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer?
What is a cheque counterfoil used for?
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?
Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct?
Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets?
The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?
What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business?
Which error is an error of original entry?
At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply?
Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years
Jabari maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The imprest is restored at the end of each month. Which amount restores the imprest at the end of a month?
Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen?
What does not affect the total equity of a limited company?
Which business document contains details of purchases, returns and payments occurring during a trading period?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which process is carried out by all organisms growth transpiration photosynthesis sexual reproduction 2 / 40 urethra bladder prostate gland sperm duct 3 / 40 B A D C 4 / 40 Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering? 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 5 / 40 Which tissues are found in vascular bundles? palisade mesophyll and phloem palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll spongy mesophyll and xylem phloem and xylem 6 / 40 Which disease is caused by a pathogen? cholera scurvy coronary heart disease lung cancer 7 / 40 Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? kingdom species genus population 8 / 40 Ammonification is the decomposition of plant and animal protein to ammonium ions. Which sequence of events can occur in the nitrogen cycle? denitrification → nitrogen fixation → denitrification → nitrification ammonification → nitrification → denitrification → nitrogen fixation nitrification → nitrogen fixation → denitrification → ammonification nitrogen fixation → denitrification → ammonification → nitrification 9 / 40 What is the function of the optic nerve? to carry impulses from the retina to the brain to carry impulses from the brain to the retina to carry light from the retina to the brain to carry light from the brain to the retina 10 / 40 What is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma called? fertilisation respiration pollination meiosis 11 / 40 The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3 Which statement is correct for this food chain? Organism 3 is a carnivore. Organism 2 is a carnivore Organism 2 is a secondary consumer. Organism 3 is a tertiary consumer 12 / 40 C A D B 13 / 40 Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach. What is the reason for this? The pH in the stomach is not suitable for the amylase to work. The starch does not stay in the stomach long enough to be digested. All starch digestion is completed in the mouth The temperature in the stomach is not suitable for the amylase to work. 14 / 40 Which glands are endocrine glands? adrenal, ovaries, salivary adrenal, pancreas, testes pancreas, salivary, sweat ovaries, sweat, testes 15 / 40 What is the synthetic plant hormone 2,4-D used for? genetic engineering promoting germination inhibiting phototropism killing weeds 16 / 40 Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera 1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages? 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 17 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 25mm wide. The actual plant cell is 50 m wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x2000 x50 x500 x200 18 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 only 19 / 40 In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous? 100% black 50% black, 50% white 100% white 25% black, 75% white 20 / 40 When a river is polluted by fertiliser, the following processes may occur. 1 increased aerobic respiration of decomposers 2 increased growth of producers 3 decreased oxygen concentration in the water What is the correct sequence for these processes? 1 → 3 → 2 2 → 1 → 3 2 → 3 → 1 1 → 2 → 3 21 / 40 ×2.2 ×48 ×0.45 ×495 22 / 40 Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment? small roots thick waxy cuticle large leaves many stomata 23 / 40 The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 24 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? ovary → ovule → stigma → style stigma → ovary → style → ovule stigma → style → ovary → ovule ovary → stigma → ovule → style 25 / 40 D B C A 26 / 40 An advisor was presented with a list of statements for a discussion group with potential parents who were considering using in vitro fertilisation (IVF) to start a family. Which statements about IVF are correct? 1 IVF is available to everyone. 2 IVF is 100% successful and therefore always leads to pregnancy. 3 IVF provides an opportunity for single parents to have a family. 4 IVF is not expensive and everyone can afford it. 5 Sperm or egg donation may be involved which means the couple are not always the biological parents. 2 and 5 1, 3 and 4 3 and 5 1, 2 and 4 27 / 40 lipid starch protein glucose 28 / 40 Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes? contain large air spaces thick cuticle present on the upper and lower surfaces stomata present on the lower surface only hairs present on the upper and lower surfaces 29 / 40 Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container? glucose → lactic acid glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose + oxygen → alcohol glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water 30 / 40 What can be used to reduce competition between crop plants and weeds? fertilisers pollinators herbicides insecticides 31 / 40 What is an example of passive immunity? immunity against influenza after an individual has been infected with the influenza virus the formation of memory cells in response to a cholera infection giving chickenpox antibodies to people at risk of developing a severe infection vaccination against measles where a harmless version of the virus is given 32 / 40 X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring. 33 / 40 DCPIP Benedict’s limewater biuret 34 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Arius felis 2 Felis concolor 3 Felis rufus 4 Macropus rufus Which animals are in the same genus? 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 35 / 40 B D A C 36 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? repair and thickening implantation of embryo new blood vessel growth breaks down 37 / 40 What is an angioplasty? the insertion of a tube into a blood vessel to allow blood to flow more freely an operation to insert a new vessel that diverts blood around a narrowed section a recording of the heart’s electrical activity to check for abnormalities the widening of a blood vessel by means of a balloon-like device 38 / 40 D C B A 39 / 40 Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple? iodine solution Benedict’s solution ethanol biuret solution 40 / 40 Which hormones can cause the feminisation of male fish? oestrogen and progesterone oestrogen and testosterone adrenaline and progesterone adrenaline and testosterone NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Which process is carried out by all organisms
2 / 40
3 / 40
4 / 40
Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?
5 / 40
Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?
6 / 40
Which disease is caused by a pathogen?
7 / 40
Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
8 / 40
Ammonification is the decomposition of plant and animal protein to ammonium ions. Which sequence of events can occur in the nitrogen cycle?
9 / 40
What is the function of the optic nerve?
10 / 40
What is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma called?
11 / 40
The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3
Which statement is correct for this food chain?
12 / 40
13 / 40
Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach. What is the reason for this?
14 / 40
Which glands are endocrine glands?
15 / 40
What is the synthetic plant hormone 2,4-D used for?
16 / 40
Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera
1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages?
17 / 40
A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 25mm wide. The actual plant cell is 50 m wide. What is the magnification of the diagram?
18 / 40
The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?
19 / 40
In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?
20 / 40
When a river is polluted by fertiliser, the following processes may occur. 1 increased aerobic respiration of decomposers 2 increased growth of producers 3 decreased oxygen concentration in the water What is the correct sequence for these processes?
21 / 40
22 / 40
Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment?
23 / 40
The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct?
24 / 40
Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?
25 / 40
26 / 40
An advisor was presented with a list of statements for a discussion group with potential parents who were considering using in vitro fertilisation (IVF) to start a family. Which statements about IVF are correct?
1 IVF is available to everyone. 2 IVF is 100% successful and therefore always leads to pregnancy. 3 IVF provides an opportunity for single parents to have a family. 4 IVF is not expensive and everyone can afford it. 5 Sperm or egg donation may be involved which means the couple are not always the biological parents.
27 / 40
28 / 40
Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?
29 / 40
Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?
30 / 40
What can be used to reduce competition between crop plants and weeds?
31 / 40
What is an example of passive immunity?
32 / 40
33 / 40
34 / 40
The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Arius felis 2 Felis concolor 3 Felis rufus 4 Macropus rufus Which animals are in the same genus?
35 / 40
36 / 40
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
37 / 40
What is an angioplasty?
38 / 40
39 / 40
Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple?
40 / 40
Which hormones can cause the feminisation of male fish?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera 1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages? 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 2 / 40 The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are? compare their morphology compare the base sequences of their DNA compare evolutionary relationships of other species compare their anatomy 3 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus? 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 4 / 40 A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects touching his hand. What could cause this? Both sensory and motor neurones are cut. Sensory neurones are cut Motor neurones are cut. Effectors are damaged. 5 / 40 The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 6 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 7 / 40 Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism? Plant shoots grow towards light. Plant roots grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow away from light. All parts of a plant grow towards light. 8 / 40 Which hormone reduces the concentration of glucose in the blood? insulin oestrogen testosterone adrenaline 9 / 40 Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion? from higher to lower concentration down a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration against a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration down a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration against a concentration gradient 10 / 40 B D A C 11 / 40 Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors? skin liver muscles brain 12 / 40 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 13 / 40 What happens during meiosis? A diploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically different A haploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically identical. A haploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically different. A diploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically identical. 14 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? ovary → stigma → ovule → style stigma → style → ovary → ovule ovary → ovule → stigma → style stigma → ovary → style → ovule 15 / 40 producer heat consumer the Sun 16 / 40 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 17 / 40 The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity? stomach and mouth colon and duodenum mouth and duodenum colon and stomach 18 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x1.8 x2000 x18 x200 19 / 40 Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration? 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 20 / 40 A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this? The person cannot control how much light enters the eye. The person cannot focus light onto the retina. Receptors do not produce nerve impulses in response to light. Nerve impulses from the eye cannot reach the brain. 21 / 40 A B D C 22 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? blood clotting antibody formation phagocytosis oxygen transport 23 / 40 What is the definition of an enzyme? a DNA molecule that acts as a catalyst a fat that acts as a catalyst a protein that acts as a catalyst a carbohydrate that acts as a catalyst 24 / 40 Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata? water carbon dioxide glucose oxygen 25 / 40 From which part of a leaf does most water evaporate during transpiration? the xylem vessels the guard cells the cuticle the spongy mesophyll cells 26 / 40 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 27 / 40 What is an example of a transmissible disease? coronary heart disease chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) dental decay an STI 28 / 40 What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction when a new crop disease appears on a farm? Asexual reproduction only requires one parent plant. Asexual reproduction does not lead to genetic variation in offspring. Asexual reproduction does not disperse offspring over a wide area. Asexual reproduction does not require a pollinator 29 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. 30 / 40 What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein? mRNA molecules alleles ribosomes DNA molecules 31 / 40 Desert plants have evolved to survive in places where very little water is available. Which process is reduced to enable them to retain as much water as possible? respiration translocation digestion transpiration 32 / 40 Which term describes the removal of the nitrogen-containing part of amino acids to form urea? assimilation digestion deamination denaturation 33 / 40 After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes? epidermis xylem mesophyll cortex 34 / 40 Which statement about urea is correct? Amino acids are transported to the kidneys where they are converted to urea Liver cells break down proteins to amino acids which are then converted to urea in the kidneys Urea is made in the kidneys and then removed from the body by the liver Urea travels from liver cells to the kidneys where it is filtered out of the blood. 35 / 40 C D B A 36 / 40 Which endocrine gland produces insulin? testes pancreas adrenal gland ovary 37 / 40 Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? genus organism binomial species 38 / 40 Why does salivary amylase not work in the stomach? The pH of the stomach is acidic. Starch is not present in the stomach. It is produced in the mouth. The temperature of the stomach is 37 C. 39 / 40 B C D A 40 / 40 Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in? diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are?
The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus?
A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects touching his hand. What could cause this?
Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?
Which hormone reduces the concentration of glucose in the blood?
Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?
Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors?
What happens during meiosis?
The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity?
A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram?
Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?
A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this?
Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?
What is the definition of an enzyme?
Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata?
From which part of a leaf does most water evaporate during transpiration?
What is an example of a transmissible disease?
What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction when a new crop disease appears on a farm?
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein?
Desert plants have evolved to survive in places where very little water is available. Which process is reduced to enable them to retain as much water as possible?
Which term describes the removal of the nitrogen-containing part of amino acids to form urea?
After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes?
Which statement about urea is correct?
Which endocrine gland produces insulin?
Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
Why does salivary amylase not work in the stomach?
Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2 / 40 Which statement about the trends shown by the elements of Period 3 in the Periodic Table is not correct? The number of electron shells increases across the period. The number of outer electrons increases across the period. The elements become less metallic across the period. The group number increases across the period. 3 / 40 Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1) carbohydrates 2) nylon 3) proteins 4) Terylene 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 3 4 / 40 Check 5 / 40 Which statements describe changes that occur from left to right across a period of the Periodic Table? 1) The atomic number of the elements increases. 2) The metallic character of the elements decreases. 3) The physical state of the elements changes from gas to solid. 2 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 6 / 40 Which statement about pure water is not correct? It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue. It condenses at 100 °C. It freezes at 0 °C. It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue. 7 / 40 Which naturally occurring polymers are found in foods? 1 complex carbohydrates 2 nylon 3 salts 4 proteins 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 4 8 / 40 The element sulfur is found in a number of different minerals. Which mineral contains the greatest percentage by mass of sulfur? pyrite, FeS2 galena, PbS barite, BaSO4 gypsum, CaSO4 9 / 40 In bright sunlight, ethane and chlorine combine in substitution reactions. Which compound is not formed in these reactions? C2H5Cl C2H4Cl2 HCl C2H3Cl 10 / 40 Why is aluminium used to make containers for storing food? It has a high melting point It is strong. It conducts electricity. It is resistant to corrosion. 11 / 40 A B C D 12 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction that takes place in a fuel cell? CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O C + O2 → CO2 13 / 40 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis? The colour changes from blue to red. The colour changes from blue to green. The colour changes from green to blue. The colour changes from green to red. 14 / 40 Which statement about Group I and Group VII elements is correct? Group VII elements are monoatomic non-metals. Lithium is more reactive with water than caesium. Potassium bromide reacts with chlorine to produce an orange solution. The melting points of Group I metals increase down the group. 15 / 40 Which pair of formulae represents two alkanes? C2H6 and C5H8 C10H8 and C4H8 C3H6 and C5H12 CH4 and C8H18 16 / 40 Which statement about metals and their uses is correct? Aluminium is used to make food containers because it is resistant to corrosion. Iron is used to make electrical wires because it is a good insulator of electricity. Aluminium is used to make aircraft wings because it is strong and has a high density. Iron is used to make cooking utensils because it is easily recycled. 17 / 40 State one use of argon. Check 18 / 40 Ethyl methanoate, HCOOC2H5, burns in excess oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. The equation is shown. 2HCOOC2H5 + xO2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O What is the value of x? 9 2 18 7 19 / 40 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? decomposition photosynthesis respiration combustion 20 / 40 This question is about compounds of nitrogen. Aqueous ammonia is alkaline. Which one of the following pH values could be the pH of aqueous ammonia? Which is the correct answer. pH 1 pH 5 pH 7 pH 9 pH 9 pH 5 pH 7 pH 1 21 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: reacts with sodium to produce only aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen Check 22 / 40 Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water? 50 cm3 measuring cylinder 50 cm3 burette 25 cm3 beaker 25 cm3 pipette 23 / 40 What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid? It reacts with a metal oxide to form carbon dioxide. It has a deep purple colour. It has a pH of less than 7. It changes red litmus blue. 24 / 40 State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime Check 25 / 40 A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 26 / 40 Which statements are correct? 1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers. 2) Proteins are natural polymers. 3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 27 / 40 Which statement explains why ammonia gas, NH3, diffuses at a faster rate than hydrogen chloride gas, HCl ? Ammonia has a smaller relative molecular mass than hydrogen chloride Ammonia molecules diffuse in all directions at the same time. Ammonia is an alkali and hydrogen chloride is an acid. Ammonia expands to occupy all of the space available 28 / 40 When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns. Which process describes these changes? corrosion neutralisation combustion reversible reaction 29 / 40 The element sulfur is found in a number of different minerals. Which mineral contains the greatest percentage by mass of sulfur? gypsum, CaSO4 barite, BaSO4 galena, PbS pyrite, FeS2 30 / 40 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules? They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together. They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules. They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together. They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice. 31 / 40 The combustion of methane is exothermic. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O Which statement about this reaction is correct? The energy released in breaking bonds in methane and oxygen is less than the energy needed to make new bonds in carbon dioxide and water. The energy needed to break the bonds in methane and oxygen is greater than the energy released in making new bonds in carbon dioxide and water. The energy released in breaking bonds in methane and oxygen is greater than the energy needed to make new bonds in carbon dioxide and water. The energy needed to break the bonds in methane and oxygen is less than the energy released in making new bonds in carbon dioxide and water. 32 / 40 Iron is extracted from its ore in a blast furnace. Hematite, coke, limestone and hot air are added to the furnace. Which explanation is not correct? Coke burns and produces a high temperature. Limestone reduces the iron(III) oxide to iron. Hot air provides the oxygen for the burning. Hematite is the ore containing the iron as iron(III) oxide 33 / 40 Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic bonds. How are the ionic bonds formed? Electrons are transferred from Group I atoms to Group VII atoms. Electrons are transferred from Group VII atoms to Group I atoms. Electrons are shared between Group I atoms and Group VII atoms. Electrons are lost by Group I atoms and Group VII atoms. 34 / 40 The halogens are the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Predict the physical state and colour of astatine at room temperature and pressure. What is the physical state & colour? Solid – White Liquid – Black Solid – Black Liquid – White 35 / 40 Mild steel consists mostly of iron. Mild steel can be prevented from rusting by a process called galvanising. Copper is not a very strong metal, however if it is mixed with a suitable metal a strong alloy called brass is produced. Which statement is correct? When a steel object is galvanised this means it is coated with a thin layer of tin Copper is mixed with zinc to produce brass Copper corrodes very quickly when wet and brass does not. Galvanising mild steel changes it from a pure metal into an alloy. 36 / 40 The equations for three reactions are shown. 1) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) 2) 2AgNO3(aq) + CuI2(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgI(s) 3) CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l) Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 37 / 40 Which statement about pure water is not correct? It freezes at 0 °C It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue. It condenses at 100 °C. It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue. 38 / 40 A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown. 2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O What is the value of z? 2 6 3 4 39 / 40 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant. For safety reasons, an inert gas is used. Which gas is suitable? hydrogen methane argon oxygen 40 / 40 Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant? The layers in graphite can slide over each other. All of the atoms in graphite are carbon. Each carbon atom forms three bonds. Graphite has a macromolecular structure. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
Which statement about the trends shown by the elements of Period 3 in the Periodic Table is not correct?
Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1) carbohydrates 2) nylon 3) proteins 4) Terylene
Which statements describe changes that occur from left to right across a period of the Periodic Table? 1) The atomic number of the elements increases. 2) The metallic character of the elements decreases. 3) The physical state of the elements changes from gas to solid.
Which statement about pure water is not correct?
Which naturally occurring polymers are found in foods? 1 complex carbohydrates 2 nylon 3 salts 4 proteins
The element sulfur is found in a number of different minerals. Which mineral contains the greatest percentage by mass of sulfur?
In bright sunlight, ethane and chlorine combine in substitution reactions. Which compound is not formed in these reactions?
Why is aluminium used to make containers for storing food?
Which equation represents a reaction that takes place in a fuel cell?
Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?
Which statement about Group I and Group VII elements is correct?
Which pair of formulae represents two alkanes?
Which statement about metals and their uses is correct?
State one use of argon.
Ethyl methanoate, HCOOC2H5, burns in excess oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. The equation is shown. 2HCOOC2H5 + xO2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O What is the value of x?
Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
This question is about compounds of nitrogen. Aqueous ammonia is alkaline. Which one of the following pH values could be the pH of aqueous ammonia? Which is the correct answer. pH 1 pH 5 pH 7 pH 9
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: reacts with sodium to produce only aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water?
What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid?
State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime
A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct?
Which statements are correct? 1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers. 2) Proteins are natural polymers. 3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food.
Which statement explains why ammonia gas, NH3, diffuses at a faster rate than hydrogen chloride gas, HCl ?
When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns. Which process describes these changes?
Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?
The combustion of methane is exothermic. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Which statement about this reaction is correct?
Iron is extracted from its ore in a blast furnace. Hematite, coke, limestone and hot air are added to the furnace. Which explanation is not correct?
Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic bonds. How are the ionic bonds formed?
The halogens are the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Predict the physical state and colour of astatine at room temperature and pressure. What is the physical state & colour?
Mild steel consists mostly of iron. Mild steel can be prevented from rusting by a process called galvanising. Copper is not a very strong metal, however if it is mixed with a suitable metal a strong alloy called brass is produced. Which statement is correct?
The equations for three reactions are shown. 1) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) 2) 2AgNO3(aq) + CuI2(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgI(s) 3) CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l) Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation?
A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown. 2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O What is the value of z?
A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant. For safety reasons, an inert gas is used. Which gas is suitable?
Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct? The amount of product present is no longer affected by changes in temperature or pressure. Both the forward and the backward reactions are proceeding at the same rate Neither the forward nor the backward reaction is proceeding. The amount of product present is only affected by a change in pressure. 2 / 40 Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite. Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made? Oxygen made in the process reacts with the carbon electrode. Carbon is burned in the blast furnace to release heat energy. The ore of aluminium undergoes thermal decomposition. Carbon monoxide reduces aluminium oxide forming carbon dioxide and aluminium. 3 / 40 Which catalyst is used in the Contact process? vanadium(V) oxide iron calcium oxide manganese(II) oxide 4 / 40 Which statement describes a transition element? It forms white compounds with sulfur, oxygen, chlorine and bromine. It can act as a catalyst and some of its compounds can also act as catalysts. It has a low density and a piece of it will float on water. It is a very poor conductor of electricity. 5 / 40 Metal X reacts with non-metal Y to form an ionic compound with the formula X2Y. Which statements are correct? 1) X is in Group I of the Periodic Table. 2) X is in Group II of the Periodic Table. 3) Y is in Group VI of the Periodic Table. 4) Y is in Group VII of the Periodic Table. 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 6 / 40 What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid? It reacts with a metal oxide to form carbon dioxide. It changes red litmus blue. It has a pH of less than 7. It has a deep purple colour. 7 / 40 Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of X? CHO CHO<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub>O C<sub>2</sub>HO 8 / 40 Polymers are long-chain molecules made from small molecules linked together. Four polymers or types of polymer are listed. 1 carbohydrates 2 nylon 3 proteins 4 Terylene Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 2 and 3 9 / 40 Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide as shown. CO2 + C → 2CO Which statement about this reaction is correct? Carbon dioxide and carbon are both oxidised. Carbon dioxide and carbon are both reduced. Carbon dioxide is oxidised and carbon is reduced. Carbon dioxide is reduced and carbon is oxidised. 10 / 40 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out? 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 11 / 40 Petrol burns in a car engine to produce waste gases which leave through the car exhaust. One of these waste gases is an oxide of nitrogen. Which statement describes how this oxide of nitrogen is formed? Nitrogen reacts with oxygen in the catalytic converter. Petrol combines with nitrogen in the car engine Nitrogen reacts with oxygen in the car engine. Carbon dioxide reacts with nitrogen in the catalytic converter. 12 / 40 Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium? cryolite and zinc blende bauxite and cryolite hematite and zinc blende bauxite and hematite 13 / 40 When a piece of marble is added to hydrochloric acid, bubbles of carbon dioxide gas are given off. Which method is used to find the rate of the reaction? measuring the speed at which the gas bubbles rise upwards through the acid measuring the diameter of the gas bubbles counting the number of gas bubbles formed measuring the time taken for 10 cm3 of gas to be collected 14 / 40 Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas? ethane methane butane propane 15 / 40 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime? sodium hydroxide ammonia sodium chloride sulfuric acid 16 / 40 Lithium and sodium are in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statements about the properties of lithium and sodium are correct? 1 Lithium has a lower melting point than sodium. 2 They both produce hydrogen when they react with water. 3 Lithium is less dense than sodium. 4 Lithium is more reactive than sodium. 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 and 4 17 / 40 Which statement about metals and their uses is correct? Iron is used to make electrical wires because it is a good insulator of electricity. Aluminium is used to make aircraft wings because it is strong and has a high density. Aluminium is used to make food containers because it is resistant to corrosion. Iron is used to make cooking utensils because it is easily recycled. 18 / 40 Which fraction, obtained from petroleum, is used for jet fuel? bitumen kerosene gasoline naphtha 19 / 40 Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide? It turns blue litmus red. It has a pH less than pH 7. It turns universal indicator green. It produces a gas when it is warmed with ammonium chloride. 20 / 40 Bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Bromine is more dense than iodine. Bromine is a lighter colour than iodine. Iodine displaces bromide ions from solution. Bromine is less reactive than iodine. 21 / 40 Which statement explains why isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties? They have the same nucleon number. They have the same proton number. They have the same electronic structure. They have the same relative mass. 22 / 40 Which statement about metals is correct? Metals conduct electricity when molten because negative ions are free to move. Metals are malleable because the bonds between the atoms are weak. Metals are malleable because the layers of ions can slide over each other Metals conduct electricity when solid because positive ions are free to move. 23 / 40 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium is correct? Aluminium is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide Oxygen gains electrons at the anode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide. Hematite is mainly aluminium oxide. Molten cryolite is used to raise the melting point of the aluminium oxide. 24 / 40 Which molecule contains more than one pair of shared electrons? hydrogen chloride chlorine hydrogen water 25 / 40 In which equation is carbon both oxidised and reduced? CO2 + C → 2CO 3CO + Fe2O3 → 3CO2 + 2Fe 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 C + O2 → CO2 26 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? chlorine, Cl2 water, H2O ammonia, NH3 methane, CH4 27 / 40 Which statements describe uses for calcium oxide? 1 flue gas desulfurisation 2 treating alkaline soil 3 reducing iron oxide in the blast furnace 1 and 3 2 only 1 and 2 1 only 28 / 40 When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one electron. Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction? Transition elements are oxidising agents. Transition elements can act as catalysts. Transition elements have variable oxidation states. Transition elements form a stable 1+ ion. 29 / 40 What happens to a chemical substance when it is reduced? It burns. It gains mass. It loses oxygen. It decomposes. 30 / 40 Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting? 1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal. 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 31 / 40 Which description of the bonding in alkanes is correct? ionic bonding covalent bonding, all bonds are single bonds covalent bonding, with both single and double bonds covalent bonding, all bonds are double bonds 32 / 40 Which raw material is used in the Contact process? ammonia nitrogen air carbon 33 / 40 The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct? Carbon monoxide is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is reduced. Iron(III) oxide is oxidised. Iron is oxidised. 34 / 40 What are the products of the reaction between sodium and water? oxygen and sodium oxide hydrogen and sodium oxide hydrogen and sodium hydroxide oxygen and sodium hydroxide 35 / 40 Some uses of water are listed. 1 as a solvent 2 as a coolant in the chemical industry 3 to irrigate crops 4 to provide safe drinking water During a drought, which uses are important to sustain the population of a country? 1 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 36 / 40 Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide. 1 and 3 1, 2 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 37 / 40 Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C. A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours. What happens to the sample of decane? It melts. It sublimes. It boils. It evaporates. 38 / 40 Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia? limestone petroleum water air 39 / 40 Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct? 1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII). 2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates. 3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach. 4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil. 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 3 40 / 40 Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements? Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4 KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4 Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4 KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct?
Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite. Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made?
Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?
Which statement describes a transition element?
Metal X reacts with non-metal Y to form an ionic compound with the formula X2Y. Which statements are correct? 1) X is in Group I of the Periodic Table. 2) X is in Group II of the Periodic Table. 3) Y is in Group VI of the Periodic Table. 4) Y is in Group VII of the Periodic Table.
Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of X?
Polymers are long-chain molecules made from small molecules linked together. Four polymers or types of polymer are listed. 1 carbohydrates 2 nylon 3 proteins 4 Terylene Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic?
Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide as shown. CO2 + C → 2CO Which statement about this reaction is correct?
Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out?
Petrol burns in a car engine to produce waste gases which leave through the car exhaust. One of these waste gases is an oxide of nitrogen. Which statement describes how this oxide of nitrogen is formed?
Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium?
When a piece of marble is added to hydrochloric acid, bubbles of carbon dioxide gas are given off. Which method is used to find the rate of the reaction?
Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas?
Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime?
Lithium and sodium are in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statements about the properties of lithium and sodium are correct? 1 Lithium has a lower melting point than sodium. 2 They both produce hydrogen when they react with water. 3 Lithium is less dense than sodium. 4 Lithium is more reactive than sodium.
Which fraction, obtained from petroleum, is used for jet fuel?
Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide?
Bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
Which statement explains why isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties?
Which statement about metals is correct?
Which statement about the extraction of aluminium is correct?
Which molecule contains more than one pair of shared electrons?
In which equation is carbon both oxidised and reduced?
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
Which statements describe uses for calcium oxide? 1 flue gas desulfurisation 2 treating alkaline soil 3 reducing iron oxide in the blast furnace
When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one electron. Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction?
What happens to a chemical substance when it is reduced?
Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting?
1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal.
Which description of the bonding in alkanes is correct?
Which raw material is used in the Contact process?
The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct?
What are the products of the reaction between sodium and water?
Some uses of water are listed. 1 as a solvent 2 as a coolant in the chemical industry 3 to irrigate crops 4 to provide safe drinking water During a drought, which uses are important to sustain the population of a country?
Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide.
Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C. A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours. What happens to the sample of decane?
Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?
Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct? 1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII). 2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates. 3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach. 4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil.
Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car? US$22 500 US$20 000 US$25 000 US$27 500 2 / 30 What can be found in a market economy? interest rates and public goods externalities and monopolies public corporations and market prices tax rates and commercial banks 3 / 30 D C A B 4 / 30 What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy? the Canadian government introducing quotas on Malaysian electronics products a German bank making a loan to a Nigerian company the Swedish government granting aid to Somalia a Japanese car manufacturer establishing a factory in the Czech Republic 5 / 30 A government removed the quota on goods imported into the country. What is the most likely result of this? a decrease in demand for domestic production a decrease in exports a decrease in the balance of trade deficit a decrease in domestic unemployment 6 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? the money supply interest rates the budget deficit bank lending 7 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? barriers to entry diseconomies of scale high number of substitutes for the product elastic demand for the product 8 / 30 An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary? The central bank controlled the issue of money too tightly. Its own dollar no longer acted as a store of value. Consumers only used credit cards rather than paper money. Commercial banks restricted their lending. 9 / 30 A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this? It reduces the level of unemployment. It changes the distribution of income. It ensures the equality of incomes. It leads to more people paying income taxes. 10 / 30 Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers? Low-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax High-income purchasers pay a higher percentage of their income in tax Low-income purchasers and high-income purchasers pay the same percentage of their income in tax. High-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax. 11 / 30 Resources have moved from the production of services to the production of goods. The number of workers unemployed in manufacturing has fallen. The workers in the production of goods have become less efficient. The producers of services have introduced better technology. 12 / 30 D C A B 13 / 30 OT OR RS RT 14 / 30 D B A C 15 / 30 How is the rate of inflation measured? by calculating the total number of people willing and able to work but cannot find work by calculating the change in the price of goods and services from one year to the next by calculating the real value of all output of goods and services in an economy by calculating the total value of exports minus the total value of imports 16 / 30 Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement? opportunity cost, private monopoly public sector, factors of production demand and supply, government subsidy excess demand, resource allocation 17 / 30 a deficit of $160 million a surplus of $20 million a surplus of $760 million a deficit of $60 million 18 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting primary commodities developed, exporting manufactured goods developing, exporting services developed, exporting services 19 / 30 An economy has a high rate of inflation. In response to this, its government increases income tax. What is the most likely reason for this increase? to discourage the consumption of harmful goods to redistribute income to raise money for government spending to reduce total demand 20 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? an increase in the rate of interest an increase in the exchange rate an increase in the real purchasing power of money a fall in the real value of debts 21 / 30 D A B C 22 / 30 A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit? increased spending on its military bases abroad increased international competitiveness of its goods increased exports of its services increased numbers of visitors from abroad 23 / 30 A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure? raising pensions to help retired people pay their fuel bills building more affordable homes to improve labour mobility controlling consumer spending to reduce inflation lowering interest rates to encourage purchase of expensive goods 24 / 30 Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession? a reduction in interest rates and a reduction in income tax a reduction in interest rates and an increase in income tax an increase in interest rates and a reduction in income tax an increase in interest rates and an increase in income tax 25 / 30 What is a likely cause of economic growth? decreased employment decreased productivity decreased taxation decreased investment 26 / 30 In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply? 1.25 1.2 0.9 0.8 27 / 30 A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation? an increase in imports an increase in government spending an increase in sales tax an increase in income tax rates 28 / 30 During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job? Their wages are lower than those of adults They prefer leisure activities to long working hours. The incentive to earn an income is lower for that age group. They lack both work experience and the necessary skills. 29 / 30 WX XY WY XZ 30 / 30 PQ QR PS QS NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?
2 / 30
What can be found in a market economy?
3 / 30
4 / 30
What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy?
5 / 30
A government removed the quota on goods imported into the country. What is the most likely result of this?
6 / 30
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
7 / 30
What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market?
8 / 30
An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary?
9 / 30
A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this?
10 / 30
Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers?
11 / 30
12 / 30
13 / 30
14 / 30
15 / 30
How is the rate of inflation measured?
16 / 30
Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement?
17 / 30
18 / 30
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
19 / 30
An economy has a high rate of inflation. In response to this, its government increases income tax. What is the most likely reason for this increase?
20 / 30
What will deflation most likely lead to?
21 / 30
22 / 30
A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit?
23 / 30
A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure?
24 / 30
Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession?
25 / 30
What is a likely cause of economic growth?
26 / 30
In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply?
27 / 30
A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation?
28 / 30
During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job?
29 / 30
30 / 30
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments? money paid by US tourists visiting attractions in other countries money paid by foreign firms for US cars money paid by chemical producers in the US for foreign oil money paid by migrant workers in the US to their families overseas 2 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the reliability of banks the rate of inflation the income of the family the level of taxation 3 / 30 What would an economist regard as an example of the factor of production capital? the building by a firm of a new factory an individual’s purchase of stocks and shares total savings by individuals in a country borrowing by a firm to pay for electricity 4 / 30 Which statement about the factors of production is correct? Enterprise is limited in supply and includes office workers. Labour is a human resource and includes pensioners and children. Land is a natural resource and includes trees and fish. Capital is a financial resource and includes savings in banks. 5 / 30 Poverty in households may be defined in relative terms. What indicates relative poverty? living on less than $2 a day lack of access to clean water falling below society’s expected standard of living income level required to meet basic needs 6 / 30 A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices? high costs of maintaining rail tracks barriers to entry into rail services competition from public road transport government policy encouraging monopoly power 7 / 30 What is a likely cause of economic growth? decreased investment decreased employment decreased productivity decreased taxation 8 / 30 What must result from an increase in output? an increase in the variable costs a decrease in the total costs a decrease in the average cost an increase in the fixed costs 9 / 30 What is classified as one of the four economic resources? consumption enterprise production trade 10 / 30 Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate? A rise in interest rates may increase cost-push inflation A rise in interest rates will raise the level of investment in a country. A fall in interest rates will always increase inflation. Interest rate changes have no impact on the level of production. 11 / 30 An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean? It was facing a recession. Unemployment was falling. Price levels were falling. Total demand was rising. 12 / 30 During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job? The incentive to earn an income is lower for that age group. They prefer leisure activities to long working hours. Their wages are lower than those of adults They lack both work experience and the necessary skills. 13 / 30 C D B A 14 / 30 Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases? total variable cost average total cost average variable cost average fixed cost 15 / 30 In recent years, a government has started to make more use of the free market system. However, they are doing it very slowly to avoid the disadvantages that a free market system might bring. What is a possible disadvantage of the free market system? increased efficiency decreased incentive to work increased inequality of income decreased levels of pollution 16 / 30 What is an example of expansionary monetary policy? a decrease in income tax rates a decrease in the budget deficit a decrease in the rate of interest a decrease in the money supply 17 / 30 Which pair of economic institutions can be found in a market economy? nationalised industries and partnerships stock exchange and public corporations local government and charities monopolies and commercial banks 18 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? an increase in the real purchasing power of money an increase in the rate of interest a fall in the real value of debts an increase in the exchange rate 19 / 30 What is the most likely effect of a government reducing the money supply? Tax rates will decrease Employment will decrease. Growth will increase. Inflation will increase. 20 / 30 What is an example of a non-wage factor? overtime rates commission bonus fringe benefits 21 / 30 It is expected that consumers will use less paper money. What is the most likely reason for this? Inflation reduces the value of paper money. Other forms of money are more durable. Paper money will have less intrinsic value. More ways of making payments will be available. 22 / 30 What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product? profit average revenue total cost total revenue 23 / 30 A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation? an increase in government spending an increase in imports an increase in sales tax an increase in income tax rates 24 / 30 In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply? 1.2 1.25 0.8 0.9 25 / 30 XY WY WX XZ 26 / 30 Which government action will not add directly to the quantity or quality of human resources? improvement in health facilities provision of better food and nutrition reclamation of land from the sea investment in education and training 27 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? barriers to entry high number of substitutes for the product diseconomies of scale elastic demand for the product 28 / 30 Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information? their distribution of income and wealth their type of economic system their level of development their stages of production 29 / 30 D C A B 30 / 30 D C B A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments?
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
What would an economist regard as an example of the factor of production capital?
Which statement about the factors of production is correct?
Poverty in households may be defined in relative terms. What indicates relative poverty?
A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices?
What must result from an increase in output?
What is classified as one of the four economic resources?
Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate?
An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean?
Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases?
In recent years, a government has started to make more use of the free market system. However, they are doing it very slowly to avoid the disadvantages that a free market system might bring. What is a possible disadvantage of the free market system?
What is an example of expansionary monetary policy?
Which pair of economic institutions can be found in a market economy?
What is the most likely effect of a government reducing the money supply?
What is an example of a non-wage factor?
It is expected that consumers will use less paper money. What is the most likely reason for this?
What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product?
Which government action will not add directly to the quantity or quality of human resources?
Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 2 / 40 A B D C 3 / 40 positive only negative or uncharged negative only positive or uncharged 4 / 40 B A C D 5 / 40 A book has a mass of 400 g. The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m 0.20 m. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book? 8.0 N/ m2 0.08 N/ m2 200 N/ m2 20 N/ m2 6 / 40 conduction evaporation convection condensation 7 / 40 What is weight? an electromagnetic force a gravitational force a frictional force a magnetic force 8 / 40 One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod? Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end. Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end. Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end. 9 / 40 Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only 10 / 40 D A B C 11 / 40 B D A C 12 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. 13 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The amplitude of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The colour of the light changes. 14 / 40 C D A B 15 / 40 D B C A 16 / 40 It can change the direction of the spaceship, or speed it up, but not slow it down. It can change the direction of the spaceship, or slow it down, but not speed it up. It can slow down the spaceship, or speed it up, but not change its direction. It can change the direction of the spaceship, slow it down, or speed it up. 17 / 40 0.92 s 0.88 s 18.4 s 17.6 s 18 / 40 C B A D 19 / 40 P = amplitude, S = speed R = amplitude, S = wavelength P = speed, Q = wavelength R = amplitude, Q = wavelength 20 / 40 C A D B 21 / 40 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave? 0.25 Hz 15 Hz 100 Hz 4.0 Hz 22 / 40 Microwaves, green light and infrared are three types of electromagnetic radiation. What is their order when listed by wavelength from the shortest wavelength to the longest? green light → infrared → microwaves infrared → green light → microwaves microwaves → infrared → green light green light → microwaves → infrared 23 / 40 80 m 38 m 20 m 40 m 24 / 40 A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate? β-particles only α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays α-particles only γ-rays only 25 / 40 relay coil thermistor variable resistor light-dependent resistor 26 / 40 Which quantity is equal to acceleration? gradient of a distance–time graph area under a speed–time graph area under a distance–time graph gradient of a speed–time graph 27 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from chemical to therma from kinetic to thermal from chemical to kinetic 28 / 40 B A C D 29 / 40 A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force. What is the work done on the object? F/d F x d d/F 1/(F x d) 30 / 40 12 cm / s 72 cm / s 3.0 cm / s 48 cm / s 31 / 40 What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit? The current taken from the supply is less. The lamps use less power. A smaller fuse is needed to protect the lamps. If the filament of one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit. 32 / 40 A C D B 33 / 40 B A C D 34 / 40 B A D C 35 / 40 vertically upwards at 20cm to the right of X vertically downwards at 20cm to the right of X vertically downwards at 20cm to the left of X vertically upwards at 20cm to the left of X 36 / 40 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force? 10 J 30 J 40 J 20 J 37 / 40 C A B D 38 / 40 A B C D 39 / 40 B C D A 40 / 40 83 km / h 70 km / h 67 km / h 50 km / h NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
A book has a mass of 400 g. The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m 0.20 m. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?
What is weight?
One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?
Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct?
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
Microwaves, green light and infrared are three types of electromagnetic radiation. What is their order when listed by wavelength from the shortest wavelength to the longest?
A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate?
Which quantity is equal to acceleration?
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force. What is the work done on the object?
What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit?
A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 4Ω more than 8Ω 8Ω less than 4Ω 2 / 40 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar? the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar the lattice vibrations of copper ions only 3 / 40 F × s F × r F × q F × t 4 / 40 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection? 142º 38º 52º 76º 5 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. 6 / 40 A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity? The skydiver’s speed is increasing. The skydiver’s speed is zero. The skydiver is moving with constant speed. The skydiver’s speed is decreasing. 7 / 40 2.0 minutes 3.0 minutes 1.5 minutes 4.0 minutes 8 / 40 B D A C 9 / 40 D B A C 10 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. 11 / 40 D A B C 12 / 40 A book has a mass of 400 g. The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m 0.20 m. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book? 20 N/ m2 0.08 N/ m2 8.0 N/ m2 200 N/ m2 13 / 40 18.4 s 17.6 s 0.92 s 0.88 s 14 / 40 How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of the original nucleus? one smaller and one the same size as the original nucleus both smaller than the original nucleus both larger than the original nucleus one larger and one smaller than the original nucleus 15 / 40 Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an extension–load graph of a spring? light gate, ruler, newton meter ruler, newton meter, clamp and stand stop-watch, balance, measuring cylinder balance, stop-watch, ruler 16 / 40 C B A D 17 / 40 D A C B 18 / 40 All three readings are the same. I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2. I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3. I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3 19 / 40 D B C A 20 / 40 What is weight? a frictional force an electromagnetic force a magnetic force a gravitational force 21 / 40 face X face Z face Y The pressure is the same for all the faces. 22 / 40 C D B A 23 / 40 All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer? mass pressure electrical resistance volume 24 / 40 A D B C 25 / 40 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current? earth wire thermistor fuse relay 26 / 40 One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod? Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end. Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end. 27 / 40 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor? thermistor motor light-dependent resistor relay 28 / 40 A C B D 29 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 5.0 m 300 m 18 000 m 0.20 m 30 / 40 C B D A 31 / 40 A D B C 32 / 40 C D A B 33 / 40 D A B C 34 / 40 A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force. What is the work done on the object? F x d F/d d/F 1/(F x d) 35 / 40 A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field. Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct? α-particles deflect, but β-particles do not deflect. Both α-particles and β-particles deflect in the same direction. β-particles deflect, but α-particles do not deflect. α-particles deflect in the opposite direction to β-particles. 36 / 40 120 s 400 s 200 s 90 s 37 / 40 83 km / h 50 km / h 70 km / h 67 km / h 38 / 40 B C D A 39 / 40 B A D C 40 / 40 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract? The ripples hit the wall of the tank. The ripples pass through a narrow gap. The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water. The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar?
Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection?
A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity?
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of the original nucleus?
Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an extension–load graph of a spring?
All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer?
Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current?
An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field. Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct?
A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 An uncharged metal ball becomes negatively charged. Which particles have been transferred to the ball? atoms neutrons electrons protons 2 / 40 Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in remote controllers to control a television? ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves 3 / 40 B D C A 4 / 40 A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water? conduction radiation convection evaporation 5 / 40 Which statement describes a saturated hydrocarbon gas but not any other gas? It contains carbon and hydrogen atoms only. It contains carbon and hydrogen atoms bonded by single covalent bonds only It rapidly decolourises aqueous bromine. It burns completely to give carbon dioxide and water. 6 / 40 What is a role of root hair cells? to decrease surface area, to decrease loss of water to increase surface area, to increase uptake of water to decrease surface area, to increase uptake of water to increase surface area, to decrease loss of water 7 / 40 Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z? a noble gas a compound an element a mixture 8 / 40 A C B D 9 / 40 C D A B 10 / 40 D B A C 11 / 40 D A C B 12 / 40 What is the function of the cell membrane? to hold the chlorophyll of the cell to hold the DNA of the cell to control which substances move in and out of the cell to store nutrients or waste products 13 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur? CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 Na2CO3 + ZnSO4 → Na2SO4 + ZnCO3 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O 14 / 40 A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule? 1200N 1200 kg 1.2 kg 1.2 N 15 / 40 What are enzymes made from? fats proteins sugars carbohydrates 16 / 40 D A C B 17 / 40 C D A B 18 / 40 Which large molecules are made from smaller molecules of glucose? amino acids and fatty acids starch and glycogen glycerol and fatty acids glycogen and glycerol 19 / 40 In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed? adding hydrochloric acid to calcium burning methane in air burning coal in air adding hydrochloric acid to calcium carbonate 20 / 40 2.0A 0.50A 3.0A 6.0A 21 / 40 A C B D 22 / 40 Some examples of responses in the body are listed. decreased pupil diameter increased breathing rate increased pulse rate Which responses are caused by the secretion of adrenaline? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 23 / 40 producer decomposer herbivore carnivore 24 / 40 Two food chains are shown. wheat → vole → fox → tick grass → rabbit → fox → flea What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains? producers primary consumers secondary consumers tertiary consumers 25 / 40 B D A C 26 / 40 The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct? Zinc atoms give electrons to iron ions. Iron atoms have a greater tendency to form positive ions than zinc atoms. Zinc displaces iron because it is more reactive than iron. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 27 / 40 C A D B 28 / 40 B C A D 29 / 40 Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct? Carbon dioxide makes up approximately 4% of clean air. Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas. The only source of carbon dioxide in the air is from motor vehicles. Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide enhance the greenhouse effect. 30 / 40 Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them? carnivores herbivores producers decomposers 31 / 40 Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct? Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns blue. Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns blue. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white. Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns white. 32 / 40 During pregnancy, what protects the embryo against toxins? placenta amniotic fluid umbilical cord amniotic sac 33 / 40 A solid block has a mass of 1.5 kg and a volume of 0.30 m3. What is its density? 5.0 kg/ m3 0.20 kg/ m3 0.45 kg/ m3 1.8 kg/ m3 34 / 40 B A D C 35 / 40 What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans? increased rate of breathing and increased pulse rate slower pulse rate and narrower pupils increased rate of breathing and narrower pupils slower pulse rate and wider pupils 36 / 40 What is the function of valves in the circulatory system? to ensure blood only flows one way to provide a large surface area to act as a pump to stop blood vessels bursting 37 / 40 Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue? into the glass in its original direction in the opposite direction to its original direction into the glass in a new direction along the surface of the glass 38 / 40 Which two energy sources are both renewable? geothermal and nuclear wind and solar coal and waves oil and tides 39 / 40 Where does sound travel at the greatest speed? in a gas in a vacuum in a solid in a liquid 40 / 40 3 2 5 4 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
An uncharged metal ball becomes negatively charged. Which particles have been transferred to the ball?
Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in remote controllers to control a television?
A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water?
Which statement describes a saturated hydrocarbon gas but not any other gas?
What is a role of root hair cells?
Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z?
What is the function of the cell membrane?
Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur?
A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule?
What are enzymes made from?
Which large molecules are made from smaller molecules of glucose?
In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed?
Some examples of responses in the body are listed.
Two food chains are shown. wheat → vole → fox → tick grass → rabbit → fox → flea What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains?
The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct?
Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct?
Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them?
Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct?
During pregnancy, what protects the embryo against toxins?
A solid block has a mass of 1.5 kg and a volume of 0.30 m3. What is its density?
What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans?
What is the function of valves in the circulatory system?
Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue?
Which two energy sources are both renewable?
Where does sound travel at the greatest speed?
