0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 $22 000 $31 000 $10 000 $43 000 2 / 35 20 times 21 times 30 times 15 times 3 / 35 $20 500 $18 500 $16 500 $18 250 4 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $5000 $83 000 $3000 $68 000 5 / 35 Why would a business record the amount owing by a credit customer as an irrecoverable debt? The customer is making a loss. The customer has liquidity problems The customer is not satisfied with the goods The customer has gone out of business. 6 / 35 $15 270 $13 920 $14 890 $17 270 7 / 35 Ann maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. Which statement is not correct? A petty cash book can be maintained by a junior member of staff The number of entries in the cash book increases because of the large number of small cash payments. At any time petty cash vouchers plus the petty cash balance are equal to the imprest amount. The chief cashier is not asked continually for small sums of money 8 / 35 A B C D 9 / 35 A B C D 10 / 35 A company’s financial year ended on 31 December 2019. On 1 December 2019 it paid rent, $8000, for the four months ending 31 March 2020. What was the opening balance on the rent account on 1 January 2020? $2000 debit $6000 debit $2000 credit $6000 credit 11 / 35 Which external parties would be interested in the accounting ratios of a business? investors government tax authorities managers 12 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities to show the transactions which took place during the year to summarise what the business owns and what it owes to calculate the profit for the year 13 / 35 What is shown in a trial balance? capital and profit on a particular date financial transactions for a particular period receipts and payments for a particular period ledger balances on a particular date 14 / 35 Which statement is correct? The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts 15 / 35 D B A C 16 / 35 D B C A 17 / 35 Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club? deficit, sales revenue, treasurer’s expenses bank charges, depreciation, wages bank charges, gross profit, sales revenue depreciation, treasurer’s expenses, wages 18 / 35 $13 200 $31 200 $32 700 $15 400 19 / 35 B C A D 20 / 35 D A C B 21 / 35 What is called-up share capital? the amount requested from shareholders by the company the value of shares actually issued by the company the value of shares the company could issue the amount received by the company for issued shares 22 / 35 Which statements about book-keeping and accounting are correct? Accounting relies on having accurate book-keeping records. Accounting is performed periodically rather than daily. Book-keeping involves the recording of financial transactions. Book-keeping includes the preparation of financial statements. 23 / 35 $25 500 $28 500 $22 500 $19 500 24 / 35 What is prepared by a book-keeper? statement of financial position income statement appropriation account cash book 25 / 35 B A D C 26 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $800 increase $800 decrease $11 600 increase $11 600 27 / 35 A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this? Discounts allowed, $420, was debited twice in the discounts allowed account. Rent received, $420, was credited twice in the rent receivable account. Goods costing $420, taken by the owner of the business for own use, were credited to his drawings account. A cheque for $420 received from a customer was debited to his account. 28 / 35 Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect? It includes amounts prepaid at the end of the year. Non-monetary items are excluded. Non-monetary items are excluded. It shows the surplus for the year. 29 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper but not an accountant? preparing financial statements comparing one year’s results with those of previous years interpreting the accounting records recording transactions in the ledgers and cash book 30 / 35 Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying? materiality going concern prudence money measurement 31 / 35 Amraz allowed Leah $100 trade discount on 30 April. Leah’s net purchases from Amraz in April were $2900. Leah owed Amraz $2950 on 30 April. Amraz owed Leah $2100 on 1 April. 32 / 35 What is a cheque counterfoil used for? to make a debit entry in the bank column of a cash book to send a payment to a supplier to send proof of payment to a customer to make a credit entry in the bank column of a cash book 33 / 35 C B D A 34 / 35 Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 35 / 35 Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business? factory rent carriage inwards carriage outwards factory supervisor’s salary NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
3 / 35
4 / 35
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
5 / 35
Why would a business record the amount owing by a credit customer as an irrecoverable debt?
6 / 35
7 / 35
Ann maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. Which statement is not correct?
8 / 35
9 / 35
10 / 35
A company’s financial year ended on 31 December 2019. On 1 December 2019 it paid rent, $8000, for the four months ending 31 March 2020. What was the opening balance on the rent account on 1 January 2020?
11 / 35
Which external parties would be interested in the accounting ratios of a business?
12 / 35
John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?
13 / 35
What is shown in a trial balance?
14 / 35
Which statement is correct?
15 / 35
16 / 35
17 / 35
Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club?
18 / 35
19 / 35
20 / 35
21 / 35
What is called-up share capital?
22 / 35
Which statements about book-keeping and accounting are correct?
23 / 35
24 / 35
What is prepared by a book-keeper?
25 / 35
26 / 35
The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?
27 / 35
A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this?
28 / 35
Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect?
29 / 35
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper but not an accountant?
30 / 35
Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying?
31 / 35
32 / 35
What is a cheque counterfoil used for?
33 / 35
34 / 35
Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased
35 / 35
Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 A C B D 2 / 35 What is added to owner’s capital to calculate capital employed? non-current liabilities current liabilities current assets non-current assets 3 / 35 Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020? $6000 $5000 $4000 $2000 4 / 35 $6000 $7500 $1000 $2200 5 / 35 A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this? Goods costing $420, taken by the owner of the business for own use, were credited to his drawings account. A cheque for $420 received from a customer was debited to his account. Rent received, $420, was credited twice in the rent receivable account. Discounts allowed, $420, was debited twice in the discounts allowed account. 6 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? increase $11 600 increase $800 decrease $800 decrease $11 600 7 / 35 Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice? $3400 $4000 $3880 $3298 8 / 35 $613 $595 $623 $605 9 / 35 A B C D 10 / 35 Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction? cash book sales journal purchases journal general journal 11 / 35 Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer? credit note invoice debit note statement of account 12 / 35 What is a cheque counterfoil used for? to record a cheque received in the cash book to pay a cheque into the bank account to record a cheque payment in the cash book to pay a cheque into the bank account 13 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance 14 / 35 Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying? materiality prudence money measurement going concern 15 / 35 The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column. One account balance had been entered in the wrong column. Which one was it? cash discount received drawings irrecoverable debts 16 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? retained earnings accumulated fund capital subscriptions 17 / 35 Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen? $16.00 $19.20 $20.00 $15.36 18 / 35 A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin? Expenses are decreasing. Selling price is decreasing. Quantity of goods sold is decreasing. Cost of sales is decreasing. 19 / 35 Why would a bakery business not include a value for inventory of stationery in the statement of financial position? It was expected it would be used in the next few months. It was not for resale. It was of very low value. It was purchased regularly and paid for in cash. 20 / 35 C B D A 21 / 35 $1000 $16 000 $6000 $26 000 22 / 35 D B A C 23 / 35 Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business? to check that the correct amount of tax is being paid to ensure that employees are being paid the correct hourly rate to calculate and assess the trade payables turnover to ensure that funds are sufficient to cover loan interest 24 / 35 $1000 loss $7000 profit $1000 profit $7000 loss 25 / 35 ‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer? matching money measurement going concern realisation 26 / 35 A B C D 27 / 35 A C D B 28 / 35 Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger? to locate errors to deter fraud to provide an instant total of trade receivables to speed production of financial statements 29 / 35 Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader? gross profit, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, working capital gross profit, non-current liabilities, working capital 30 / 35 AB Stores had the following transactions. 1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital. 2 $2000 was paid to trade payables. 3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid. By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions? $20 000 $15 000 $13 000 $27 000 31 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the cost of repairing office equipment the annual depreciation on office premises the purchase of a new computer for resale the cost of building an office extension 32 / 35 Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a cash discount. Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a cash discount. Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a trade discount Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a trade discount. 33 / 35 D B C A 34 / 35 Which accounting policy requires that the information in financial statements is free from significant errors and bias? consistency understandability reliability comparability 35 / 35 $35 000 $50 000 $100 000 $70 000 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
What is added to owner’s capital to calculate capital employed?
Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020?
Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice?
Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction?
Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer?
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column. One account balance had been entered in the wrong column. Which one was it?
Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?
Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen?
A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin?
Why would a bakery business not include a value for inventory of stationery in the statement of financial position?
Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business?
‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer?
Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger?
Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader?
AB Stores had the following transactions. 1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital. 2 $2000 was paid to trade payables. 3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid. By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions?
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
Which accounting policy requires that the information in financial statements is free from significant errors and bias?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which type of molecule are enzymes made of? fats vitamins proteins carbohydrates 2 / 40 An animal can swim, has a backbone and produces milk. To which group does it belong? fish reptiles amphibians mammals 3 / 40 Pangolins are mammals. One species of pangolin has 40 chromosomes per body cell. How many chromosomes will a sperm cell from this species of pangolin have? 20 50 40 10 4 / 40 Which statements about auxin are correct? 1 Auxin is made in all cells in plants. 2 Auxin causes cells to elongate. 3 Auxin moves between the cells by osmosis. 4 Auxin is unequally distributed. 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 5 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x1.8 x2000 x18 x200 6 / 40 amino acids protein DNA mRNA 7 / 40 A C D B 8 / 40 Which tissues are found in vascular bundles? phloem and xylem palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll spongy mesophyll and xylem palisade mesophyll and phloem 9 / 40 Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in? diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases 10 / 40 In which molecule are cross-links formed between bases? carbohydrate glycogen DNA fat 11 / 40 evaporation condensation transpiration precipitation 12 / 40 Which is the correct definition of a drug? a substance that affects or modifies chemical reactions in the body a substance that can have negative social implications a substance that can affect reaction times and self-control a substance that can kill bacteria 13 / 40 What kind of molecule is an enzyme? glucose protein fat starch 14 / 40 Which pair of plant species belong to the same genus? Callisia repens and Juncus bulbosus Callisia repens and Ranunculus repens Ranunculus bulbosus and Ranunculus repens Juncus bulbosus and Ranunculus bulbosus 15 / 40 Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy? vitamin D iron calcium vitamin C 16 / 40 DCPIP Benedict’s biuret limewater 17 / 40 Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle. Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria? the conversion of ammonia to nitrates the conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrates the conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia the conversion of nitrates to nitrogen 18 / 40 Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion? Fats are digested by protease to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form amino acids. Fats are digested by lipase to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by lipase to form amino acids and glycerol. 19 / 40 D A C B 20 / 40 Which statements describe how an oxygen debt is removed after vigorous exercise? 1) Lactic acid is transported to the liver. 2) Lactic acid is respired aerobically. 3) Heart rate stays high to remove lactic acid from the muscles 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 21 / 40 fertilisation meiosis mitosis pollination 22 / 40 kelp the sea green sea urchins the Sun 23 / 40 What is a use of pectinase in the food industry? to make biological washing powders to make bread rise to make biofuels to extract juice from fruit 24 / 40 Which tissues are found in vascular bundles? phloem and xylem spongy mesophyll and xylem palisade mesophyll and phloem palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll 25 / 40 Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems? ingestion decomposition photosynthesis respiration 26 / 40 A D B C 27 / 40 Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant? root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root hair cells → root cortex cells → xylem → mesophyll cells → stomata root hair cells → xylem → root cortex cells → mesophyll cells → stomata 28 / 40 C A D B 29 / 40 A food chain is shown. potato plant → slug → hedgehog By which process is energy transferred from the slug to the hedgehog? ingestion egestion excretion photosynthesis 30 / 40 Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs to the heart? pulmonary artery pulmonary vein renal vein aorta 31 / 40 Which statement about respiration is correct? The energy in ethanol molecules is released by muscle cells. Lactic acid produced by aerobic respiration causes an oxygen debt The energy in lactic acid is released by anaerobic respiration Deep breathing after exercise reduces an oxygen debt. 32 / 40 C A B D 33 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? implantation of embryo breaks down new blood vessel growth repair and thickening 34 / 40 Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? genus species population kingdom 35 / 40 Which process is part of the carbon cycle? transpiration evaporation precipitation combustion 36 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 4 37 / 40 Heroin is an illegal drug which has many effects on the body. Which statement about the effects of heroin abuse is correct? Heroin is not addictive. Heroin decreases reaction times. Heroin is a stimulant. Heroin increases negative social behaviour. 38 / 40 A crop plant has been genetically modified to make it resistant to herbicides. Which is a possible disadvantage of introducing this new crop plant? The new gene will appear in new generations of the crop. Some weeds might become resistant to the herbicide Loss of weeds reduces competition. The crop plant is unharmed and produces a higher yield. 39 / 40 In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place? mouth colon oesophagus duodenum 40 / 40 B D C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?
2 / 40
An animal can swim, has a backbone and produces milk. To which group does it belong?
3 / 40
Pangolins are mammals. One species of pangolin has 40 chromosomes per body cell. How many chromosomes will a sperm cell from this species of pangolin have?
4 / 40
Which statements about auxin are correct?
1 Auxin is made in all cells in plants. 2 Auxin causes cells to elongate. 3 Auxin moves between the cells by osmosis. 4 Auxin is unequally distributed.
5 / 40
A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram?
6 / 40
7 / 40
8 / 40
Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?
9 / 40
Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in?
10 / 40
In which molecule are cross-links formed between bases?
11 / 40
12 / 40
Which is the correct definition of a drug?
13 / 40
What kind of molecule is an enzyme?
14 / 40
Which pair of plant species belong to the same genus?
15 / 40
Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy?
16 / 40
17 / 40
Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle. Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria?
18 / 40
Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion?
19 / 40
20 / 40
Which statements describe how an oxygen debt is removed after vigorous exercise? 1) Lactic acid is transported to the liver. 2) Lactic acid is respired aerobically. 3) Heart rate stays high to remove lactic acid from the muscles
21 / 40
22 / 40
23 / 40
What is a use of pectinase in the food industry?
24 / 40
25 / 40
Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems?
26 / 40
27 / 40
Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant?
28 / 40
29 / 40
A food chain is shown. potato plant → slug → hedgehog By which process is energy transferred from the slug to the hedgehog?
30 / 40
Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs to the heart?
31 / 40
Which statement about respiration is correct?
32 / 40
33 / 40
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
34 / 40
Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
35 / 40
Which process is part of the carbon cycle?
36 / 40
Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes?
37 / 40
Heroin is an illegal drug which has many effects on the body. Which statement about the effects of heroin abuse is correct?
38 / 40
A crop plant has been genetically modified to make it resistant to herbicides. Which is a possible disadvantage of introducing this new crop plant?
39 / 40
In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place?
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which type of energy is passed from organism to organism in a food chain? heat kinetic light chemical 2 / 40 Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology? Bacteria do not become resistant to antibiotics. Bacteria can make complex molecules. Bacteria are found inside the human body Bacteria reproduce slowly. 3 / 40 B A D C 4 / 40 Z and W W and X Y and Z X and Y 5 / 40 Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple? biuret solution iodine solution Benedict’s solution ethanol 6 / 40 D A C B 7 / 40 Which structure contains relay neurones? synapse muscle gland spinal cord 8 / 40 The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity? colon and stomach mouth and duodenum stomach and mouth colon and duodenum 9 / 40 Beak shape in birds is controlled by genes passed from the parent birds to their offspring. What is this an example of? inheritance fertilisation mitosis selection 10 / 40 days 6–12 days 19–28 days 0–5 days 13–18 11 / 40 B A C D 12 / 40 Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism? using enzymes in biological washing powders using yeast to produce ethanol using bacteria to produce insulin using pectinase in fruit juice production 13 / 40 What are leaves examples of? cells tissues organs organ systems 14 / 40 Which part of a cell makes glucose? chloroplast nucleus cell membrane vacuole 15 / 40 What is a function of some white blood cells? to produce antibodies to carry oxygen to carry glucose to produce antibiotics 16 / 40 Pangolins are mammals. One species of pangolin has 40 chromosomes per body cell. How many chromosomes will a sperm cell from this species of pangolin have? 50 20 10 40 17 / 40 What is an adaptive feature of an organism? any inherited feature that helps an organism to survive and reproduce any inherited feature that an organism has any feature that is not changed by the environment any feature that shows discontinuous variation 18 / 40 A B C D 19 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x200 x2000 x1.8 x18 20 / 40 D A C B 21 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile 22 / 40 The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3 Which statement is correct for this food chain? Organism 2 is a carnivore Organism 2 is a secondary consumer. Organism 3 is a tertiary consumer Organism 3 is a carnivore. 23 / 40 insects myriapods arachnids crustaceans 24 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? stigma → style → ovary → ovule ovary → stigma → ovule → style ovary → ovule → stigma → style stigma → ovary → style → ovule 25 / 40 D C B A 26 / 40 myriapod arachnid insect crustacean 27 / 40 0 3 1 2 28 / 40 Four processes involved in labour and birth are shown. 1 cutting the umbilical cord 2 contraction of muscles in the uterus wall 3 delivery of the afterbirth 4 dilation of the cervix 5 passage of the baby through the vagina In which sequence do these events normally occur? 4 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 5 2 → 4 → 5 → 1 → 3 2 → 4 → 3 → 1→ 5 4 →3 → 2 → 5 → 1 29 / 40 Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates? nitrogen carbon oxygen hydrogen 30 / 40 P and Q only Q and R only Q only P, Q and R 31 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one banana plant being divided into two banana plants one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells 32 / 40 Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration? 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 33 / 40 A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct? The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and less blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and more blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and less blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and more blood flows to the skin surface. 34 / 40 Transpiration is faster than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become turgid. Transpiration is faster than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become flaccid. Transpiration is slower than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become flaccid. Transpiration is slower than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become turgid. 35 / 40 Some statements about mitosis are listed. 1) Cells divide and produce new cells to repair damaged tissues. 2) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form gametes. 3) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form genetically identical cells. 4) Mitosis is used in asexual reproduction. Which statements are correct? 1, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 36 / 40 D B A C 37 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen? Water entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt left the plant tissue by osmosis. Water left the plant tissue by osmosis. 38 / 40 When damaged tissues are repaired cells undergo division by meiosis to produce genetically different cells. meiosis to produce genetically identical cells. mitosis to produce genetically identical cells. mitosis to produce genetically different cells. 39 / 40 Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins. Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins? nucleus cell wall plasmid rough endoplasmic reticulum 40 / 40 A D B C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
Which type of energy is passed from organism to organism in a food chain?
Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology?
Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple?
Which structure contains relay neurones?
The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity?
Beak shape in birds is controlled by genes passed from the parent birds to their offspring. What is this an example of?
Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism?
What are leaves examples of?
Which part of a cell makes glucose?
What is a function of some white blood cells?
What is an adaptive feature of an organism?
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3
Which statement is correct for this food chain?
Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?
Four processes involved in labour and birth are shown. 1 cutting the umbilical cord 2 contraction of muscles in the uterus wall 3 delivery of the afterbirth 4 dilation of the cervix 5 passage of the baby through the vagina In which sequence do these events normally occur?
Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates?
What is an example of sexual reproduction?
Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?
A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct?
Some statements about mitosis are listed. 1) Cells divide and produce new cells to repair damaged tissues. 2) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form gametes. 3) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form genetically identical cells. 4) Mitosis is used in asexual reproduction. Which statements are correct?
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen?
When damaged tissues are repaired cells undergo division by
Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins. Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic bonds. How are the ionic bonds formed? Electrons are lost by Group I atoms and Group VII atoms. Electrons are transferred from Group I atoms to Group VII atoms. Electrons are shared between Group I atoms and Group VII atoms. Electrons are transferred from Group VII atoms to Group I atoms. 2 / 40 Which statements about hydrogen are correct? 1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product. 1 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 only 3 / 40 Which statement describes the structure of an ionic compound? It is a giant lattice of oppositely charged ions. It is a giant lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea’ of electrons. It is a simple molecule of oppositely charged ions. It is a giant molecule of oppositely charged ions. 4 / 40 R (an acidic oxide) – S (sodium nitrate) R (an acidic oxide) – S (ammonium chloride) R (a basic oxide) – S (sodium nitrate) R (a basic oxide) – S (ammonium chloride) 5 / 40 State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ………………………………………………………. White to Blue Only Blue Blue to White Only White 6 / 40 D B A C 7 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used: to produce ammonia from nitrogen Check 8 / 40 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly? calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide calcium oxide and carbon monoxide calcium oxide and carbon dioxide 9 / 40 Which process is a physical change? dissolving calcium carbonate in hydrochloric acid melting an ice cube burning a piece of magnesium the rusting of an iron nail 10 / 40 Which compounds belong to the same homologous series? methane and ethene ethane and propane ethanoic acid and ethanol propene and ethanoic acid 11 / 40 Which statement about homologous series is correct? Members of a homologous series all have similar physical properties. Members of a homologous series all have similar chemical properties. Members of all homologous series are hydrocarbons. Members of a homologous series have the same structural formula. 12 / 40 Which list contains only chemical changes? boiling, condensing, distillation rusting, freezing, subliming neutralisation, polymerisation, combustion melting, evaporating, dissolving 13 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? ammonia, NH3 chlorine, Cl2 water, H2O methane, CH4 14 / 40 Hydrogen peroxide solution decomposes very slowly at room temperature to produce oxygen gas. This gas forms a rising foam when liquid detergent is added. Five test-tubes are half filled with hydrogen peroxide solution. A drop of liquid detergent is added to each one. Different metal oxides are added to four of the test-tubes and the height of the foam formed after 1 minute is measured. The results are shown. metal oxide height of foam/cm no metal oxide added 0.1 aluminium oxide 0.1 manganese (IV) oxide 5.4 calcium oxide 0.2 copper (II) oxide 2.3 Which conclusion can be drawn from these results? Only transition element oxides increase the rate of this reaction. All metal oxides increase the rate of this reaction and act as catalysts Metal oxides do not affect the rate of this reaction. Manganese(IV) oxide is the best catalyst of the four metal oxides tested. 15 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms an oxide which leads to acid rain Check 16 / 40 Helium, neon and argon are noble gases. Explain, in terms of the electronic structure, why neon is unreactive. Check 17 / 40 The Contact process is used to manufacture concentrated sulfuric acid and consists of four steps. Which step involves a catalyst? production of sulfur trioxide gas production of concentrated sulfuric acid production of oleum production of sulfur dioxide gas 18 / 40 What happens to a chemical substance when it is reduced? It gains mass. It decomposes. It burns. It loses oxygen. 19 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: does not form an oxide Check 20 / 40 A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown. 2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O What is the value of z? 4 6 2 3 21 / 40 Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1) carbohydrates 2) nylon 3) proteins 4) Terylene 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 22 / 40 C D B A 23 / 40 Orange juice is acidic. What is around the pH of orange juice. pH 7 pH 4 pH 13 pH 10 24 / 40 Which statement describes a weak acid? It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution. It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution. It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution. It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution 25 / 40 Which substance is not a fossil fuel? ethanol methane gasoline kerosene 26 / 40 When aqueous iron(III) chloride is added to aqueous potassium iodide a chemical reaction occurs and iodine is formed. Which statement is correct? Iron(III) chloride is oxidised in this reaction. Iodide ions are oxidised, they gain electrons in this reaction Iodide ions are oxidised, they gain electrons in this reaction Neither iodide ions nor iron(III) chloride is oxidised in this reaction. 27 / 40 Which is a typical property of transition elements? low density low melting point can act as catalysts poor electrical conductivity 28 / 40 An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of electrons? CheckWrong 29 / 40 The exhaust gases from cars contain oxides of nitrogen. How are these oxides of nitrogen formed? Nitrogen and oxygen from the petrol react together in the car exhaust. Nitrogen reacts with oxygen from the air in the catalytic converter. Nitrogen from the petrol reacts with oxygen at the high temperatures in the engine. Nitrogen and oxygen from the air react together at the high temperatures in the engine 30 / 40 Two tests are carried out on substance Z. test 1) A flame test produces a red flame. test 2) Z is dissolved in water and dilute nitric acid is added, followed by aqueous silver nitrate. A yellow precipitate is produced. What is substance Z? lithium iodide sodium bromide lithium bromide sodium iodide 31 / 40 X is a solid and Y is a liquid. X is harder and stronger than Y. X is a pure metal and Y is a compound. X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy. 32 / 40 Transition elements can have variable oxidation states. Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states? Cr2O3and Cr2(SO4)3 ZnS and ZnSO4 Cu2O and CuCO3 NiO and Ni(NO3)2 33 / 40 Which statement about compounds in the same homologous series is correct? They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of carbon atoms. They have different physical properties because they have different numbers of carbon atoms. They have different chemical properties because they have different numbers of carbon atoms. They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of carbon atoms. 34 / 40 Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas? digestion in cows zinc reacting with sulfuric acid combustion of wood acid rain on limestone buildings 35 / 40 All metal nitrates are soluble in water. All metal chlorides are soluble except silver and lead. All metal carbonates are insoluble except sodium and potassium. Which aqueous solutions produce a precipitate when mixed together? 1) silver nitrate + sodium carbonate 2) silver nitrate + sodium chloride 3) barium nitrate + potassium chloride 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 All metal nitrates are soluble in water. 2 and 3 only 36 / 40 Which substances are natural polymers? 1) proteins 2) carbohydrates 3) nylon 4) poly(ethene) 2 and 3 1 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 37 / 40 Which statement is correct? When water is added to pink cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns blue. When hydrated copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. When water is added to blue cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns pink. When anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. 38 / 40 Overhead power cables made from (steel-cored) aluminium are used to carry electricity over long distances. Which property of (steel-cored) aluminium makes it suitable for use in power cables? Aluminium has a low density Steel is resistant to corrosion Aluminium has low strength. Steel is a good conductor of heat. 39 / 40 Excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia to make a salt which can be used as a fertiliser. State the name of the salt formed when excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia. Check 40 / 40 Name the oxide of carbon that is a toxic gas Check NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic bonds. How are the ionic bonds formed?
Which statements about hydrogen are correct?
1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.
Which statement describes the structure of an ionic compound?
State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ……………………………………………………….
Give the name of the process that is used: to produce ammonia from nitrogen
What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?
Which process is a physical change?
Which compounds belong to the same homologous series?
Which statement about homologous series is correct?
Which list contains only chemical changes?
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
Hydrogen peroxide solution decomposes very slowly at room temperature to produce oxygen gas. This gas forms a rising foam when liquid detergent is added. Five test-tubes are half filled with hydrogen peroxide solution. A drop of liquid detergent is added to each one. Different metal oxides are added to four of the test-tubes and the height of the foam formed after 1 minute is measured. The results are shown.
Which conclusion can be drawn from these results?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms an oxide which leads to acid rain
Helium, neon and argon are noble gases. Explain, in terms of the electronic structure, why neon is unreactive.
The Contact process is used to manufacture concentrated sulfuric acid and consists of four steps. Which step involves a catalyst?
What happens to a chemical substance when it is reduced?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: does not form an oxide
A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown. 2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O What is the value of z?
Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1) carbohydrates 2) nylon 3) proteins 4) Terylene
Orange juice is acidic. What is around the pH of orange juice.
Which statement describes a weak acid?
Which substance is not a fossil fuel?
When aqueous iron(III) chloride is added to aqueous potassium iodide a chemical reaction occurs and iodine is formed. Which statement is correct?
Which is a typical property of transition elements?
An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of electrons?
The exhaust gases from cars contain oxides of nitrogen. How are these oxides of nitrogen formed?
Two tests are carried out on substance Z.
test 1) A flame test produces a red flame. test 2) Z is dissolved in water and dilute nitric acid is added, followed by aqueous silver nitrate. A yellow precipitate is produced.
What is substance Z?
Transition elements can have variable oxidation states. Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states?
Which statement about compounds in the same homologous series is correct?
Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas?
All metal nitrates are soluble in water. All metal chlorides are soluble except silver and lead. All metal carbonates are insoluble except sodium and potassium. Which aqueous solutions produce a precipitate when mixed together? 1) silver nitrate + sodium carbonate 2) silver nitrate + sodium chloride 3) barium nitrate + potassium chloride
Which substances are natural polymers? 1) proteins 2) carbohydrates 3) nylon 4) poly(ethene)
Overhead power cables made from (steel-cored) aluminium are used to carry electricity over long distances. Which property of (steel-cored) aluminium makes it suitable for use in power cables?
Excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia to make a salt which can be used as a fertiliser. State the name of the salt formed when excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia.
Name the oxide of carbon that is a toxic gas
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which colour change is observed when water is added to anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride? blue to pink pink to blue blue to white white to blue 2 / 40 Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid? ethanoic acid + copper → copper ethanoate + hydrogen ethanoic acid + magnesium → magnesium ethanoate + water ethanoic acid + calcium oxide → calcium ethanoate + water ethanoic acid + sodium oxide → sodium ethanoate + hydrogen 3 / 40 Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L? ethanol hexene hexane ethanoic acid 4 / 40 Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct? Sodium ions have an equal number of protons and electrons. Potassium ions and chloride ions have the same number of outer-shell electrons. Ionic bonding involves sharing of pairs of electrons. Caesium atoms gain electrons to form negatively charged caesium ions. 5 / 40 Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct? 1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII). 2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates. 3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach. 4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil. 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 6 / 40 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis? Al3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2- + 2e– → O2 2O2- → O2 + 4e– Al3+ + 3e– → Al 7 / 40 Which statement about alkanes is correct? They contain ionic bonds. They contain double bonds. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They burn in oxygen. 8 / 40 Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride? 2Na3N → 6Na + N2 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2 2Na3N → 6Na + 2N 2NaN3 → Na2 + 3N2 9 / 40 Some properties of diamond are shown. 1 It is very hard. 2 Every atom forms four bonds. 3 It does not conduct electricity. Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide? 1 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 2 10 / 40 Hydrated copper(II) sulfate is blue. When it is heated it forms white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. How is a sample of anhydrous copper(II) sulfate changed into hydrated copper(II) sulfate? Water is added. Water is removed. It is heated up It is cooled down. 11 / 40 Which statements about the effect of increasing the temperature on the rate of a reaction are correct? 1 It increases the rate of a reaction. 2 It increases the activation energy. 3 It increases the frequency of collisions. 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 12 / 40 The equation for a reaction occurring in the Contact process is shown. 2SO2 + O2 →2SO3 What is the catalyst used in this reaction? vanadium(V) oxide sulfuric acid iron phosphoric(V) acid 13 / 40 Which substance is used as a bleach in the manufacture of paper? silicon dioxide carbon dioxide nitrogen dioxide sulfur dioxide 14 / 40 Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct? They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell. They have the same mass. They have the same number of neutrons They are all radioactive. 15 / 40 Which product is formed when calcium carbonate undergoes thermal decomposition? calcium calcium hydroxide calcium oxide calcium silicate 16 / 40 Which processes produce carbon dioxide? 1 respiration 2 photosynthesis 3 fermentation 4 combustion of hydrogen 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 17 / 40 Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace? CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 CO2 + C → 2CO Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 C + O2 → CO2 18 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 19 / 40 An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct? Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+. Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+. Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+. Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+. 20 / 40 Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide. 1 and 3 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 21 / 40 A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1. X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2. Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1. Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3? boiling of liquid X condensation of gaseous X evaporation of liquid X sublimation of solid X 22 / 40 Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct? Neither the forward nor the backward reaction is proceeding. The amount of product present is only affected by a change in pressure. Both the forward and the backward reactions are proceeding at the same rate The amount of product present is no longer affected by changes in temperature or pressure. 23 / 40 Calcium carbonate, CaCO3, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide. The equation for the reaction is shown. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate is 100. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced? 2.8 g 4.4 g 2.2 g 44 g 24 / 40 Which elements have both a high melting point and variable oxidation states? transition elements halogens noble gases alkali metals 25 / 40 A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X? tellurium, Te sulfur, S copper, Cu gadolinium, Gd 26 / 40 When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one electron. Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction? Transition elements can act as catalysts. Transition elements have variable oxidation states. Transition elements form a stable 1+ ion. Transition elements are oxidising agents. 27 / 40 Which statement describes how oxides of nitrogen are formed in a car engine? Nitrogen from the air reacts with oxygen from petrol. Nitrogen from the air reacts with oxygen from the air. Nitrogen from petrol reacts with oxygen from petrol. Nitrogen from petrol reacts with oxygen from the air. 28 / 40 Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes. Which statements about these isomers are correct? 1 They have the same molecular formula. 2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule. 3 They have a C=C bond in the structure. 2 only 1 and 3 1 and 2 3 only 29 / 40 Copper(II) chloride crystals are made by adding solid copper(II) carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid until no more dissolves. Which process is used to obtain pure copper(II) chloride crystals from the mixture? evaporation of the mixture distillation of the mixture filtration followed by drying of the residue filtration followed by evaporation of the filtrate 30 / 40 Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct? Aluminium is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis. Iron is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis. Iron is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis. Aluminium is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis. 31 / 40 The reaction used to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is reversible. An equilibrium is established between ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen. Which statement describes the equilibrium? The forward and backward reactions have both stopped. The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the backward reaction The rate of the backward reaction is greater than the rate of the forward reaction. Both the forward reaction and the backward reaction have the same rate. 32 / 40 Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct? They have different numbers of electrons They have different numbers of neutrons. They have different numbers of protons. They have the same mass number. 33 / 40 The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous hydrogen iodide is shown. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) The reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic? The bond energies of the reactants are larger than the bond energies of the products. The products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. More energy is released when two HI bonds are formed than is used when the H–H and I–I bonds are broken. Energy is released when H–H and I–I bonds are broken. 34 / 40 Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane 3 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 35 / 40 Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Lithium has the highest density and the most violent reaction with water. Potassium has the lowest melting point and the least violent reaction with water. Lithium has the highest melting point and the lowest density. Potassium has the highest melting point and the highest density. 36 / 40 Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P. What is P? yeast methane ethane ethene 37 / 40 Which statement about carbon is correct? Graphite conducts electricity and has a giant covalent structure. Diamond and graphite both have simple molecular structures. Each carbon atom in diamond is bonded to three other carbon atoms. Diamond and graphite are both used to make cutting tools. 38 / 40 A compound has the formula XF2 and has a relative mass of 70. What is element X? gallium ytterbium sulfur germanium 39 / 40 Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons. 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 40 / 40 Which statement describes a transition element? It is a very poor conductor of electricity. It forms white compounds with sulfur, oxygen, chlorine and bromine. It has a low density and a piece of it will float on water. It can act as a catalyst and some of its compounds can also act as catalysts. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which colour change is observed when water is added to anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride?
Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid?
Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L?
Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct?
Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct? 1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII). 2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates. 3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach. 4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil.
Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis?
Which statement about alkanes is correct?
Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride?
Some properties of diamond are shown.
1 It is very hard. 2 Every atom forms four bonds. 3 It does not conduct electricity. Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide?
Hydrated copper(II) sulfate is blue. When it is heated it forms white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. How is a sample of anhydrous copper(II) sulfate changed into hydrated copper(II) sulfate?
Which statements about the effect of increasing the temperature on the rate of a reaction are correct? 1 It increases the rate of a reaction. 2 It increases the activation energy. 3 It increases the frequency of collisions.
The equation for a reaction occurring in the Contact process is shown. 2SO2 + O2 →2SO3 What is the catalyst used in this reaction?
Which substance is used as a bleach in the manufacture of paper?
Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?
Which product is formed when calcium carbonate undergoes thermal decomposition?
Which processes produce carbon dioxide? 1 respiration 2 photosynthesis 3 fermentation 4 combustion of hydrogen
Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct?
Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide.
A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1. X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2. Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1. Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3?
Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct?
Calcium carbonate, CaCO3, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide. The equation for the reaction is shown. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate is 100. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced?
Which elements have both a high melting point and variable oxidation states?
A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X?
When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one electron. Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction?
Which statement describes how oxides of nitrogen are formed in a car engine?
Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes. Which statements about these isomers are correct? 1 They have the same molecular formula. 2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule. 3 They have a C=C bond in the structure.
Copper(II) chloride crystals are made by adding solid copper(II) carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid until no more dissolves. Which process is used to obtain pure copper(II) chloride crystals from the mixture?
Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct?
The reaction used to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is reversible. An equilibrium is established between ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen. Which statement describes the equilibrium?
Which statement about isotopes of the same element is correct?
The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous hydrogen iodide is shown. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) The reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic?
Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane
Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P. What is P?
Which statement about carbon is correct?
A compound has the formula XF2 and has a relative mass of 70. What is element X?
Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons.
Which statement describes a transition element?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this? It is more expensive to live in the area where the retail jobs are available. The geographical mobility of labour has increased. Retailing demands the same skills everywhere. Costs of employing workers are lower when there is unemployment. 2 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the income of the family the level of taxation the reliability of banks the rate of inflation 3 / 30 What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker? higher quality of the good a low price of the product that they make boredom due to repetition of the same task the opportunity to undertake training 4 / 30 B A D C 5 / 30 Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement? public sector, factors of production opportunity cost, private monopoly excess demand, resource allocation demand and supply, government subsidy 6 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? social welfare growth profit maximisation efficiency 7 / 30 X and Z X only Y only Y and Z 8 / 30 A multinational company (MNC) wishes to invest in a low-income country to expand its palm oil production. What is most likely to make this investment possible? increased demand for palm oil the removal of subsidies for palm oil production high cost of clearing forests to increase land for plantations shortages of labour in the rural economy 9 / 30 What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation? The level of imports increases. Governments raise interest rates. The real value of money falls. Consumers delay spending. 10 / 30 What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy? A trade in goods surplus will fall. Import prices will rise. Export prices will rise. The inflation rate will fall. 11 / 30 What can be found in a market economy? tax rates and commercial banks externalities and monopolies public corporations and market prices interest rates and public goods 12 / 30 The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called? appreciation depreciation revaluation devaluation 13 / 30 $5050 million $2390 million $33 940 million $7440 million 14 / 30 Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments? money paid by migrant workers in the US to their families overseas money paid by foreign firms for US cars money paid by US tourists visiting attractions in other countries money paid by chemical producers in the US for foreign oil 15 / 30 C D A B 16 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US balance of trade will worsen. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US government’s revenue will decline. The good will become cheaper in the US. 17 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. Introduce a tax on all food. Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. 18 / 30 Which advantage do coins have that make them more suitable than banknotes to act as money? They are more portable. They are more divisible. They are more durable. They are more recognisable. 19 / 30 The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve? fiscal policy and monetary policy only fiscal policy and supply-side policy only monetary policy and supply-side policy only monetary policy, supply-side policy and fiscal policy 20 / 30 A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country? It has the world’s greatest size of population. It has the world’s highest standard of living. It has the world’s fastest economic growth rate. It has the world’s biggest economy 21 / 30 A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car? US$22 500 US$25 000 US$27 500 US$20 000 22 / 30 China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa. Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line. Who bears the external costs of this operation? farmers who have lost agricultural land China who built the new railway Kenya who must repay the cost to China passengers who pay the higher fare 23 / 30 What is a cause of demand-pull inflation? higher government expenditure a surplus of skilled labour lower net exports higher tax rates 24 / 30 What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment? Sunjeev decided to stop working and claim benefits when the government increased unemployment benefits. Jamie lost his job as an ice cream seller during the winter months when little ice cream was sold. Sunjit lost his job as a bank worker when the bank replaced his job with a new computer system. Aneesha lost her job as an engineer when her firm had to make redundancies in a recession. 25 / 30 What is an example of a free good? health services defence sunshine education 26 / 30 B A C D 27 / 30 What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force? a fall in the average size of families an increase in net immigration a reduction in the age of retirement a fall in the birth rate 28 / 30 What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product? total revenue profit total cost average revenue 29 / 30 What is an advantage of competitive markets? Competition causes inequalities of wealth. The right quantity of merit goods is guaranteed. Competition encourages the efficient use of resources. The economic problem of scarcity is eliminated. 30 / 30 What is most likely to have caused a long-term decrease in the numbers employed in the banking sector of an economy? technological unemployment caused by an increase in internet banking frictional unemployment caused by relocating a bank’s headquarters voluntary unemployment caused by a reduction in wage rates seasonal unemployment caused by reduced customer demand in the summer NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this?
2 / 30
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
3 / 30
What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker?
4 / 30
5 / 30
Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement?
6 / 30
A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?
7 / 30
8 / 30
A multinational company (MNC) wishes to invest in a low-income country to expand its palm oil production. What is most likely to make this investment possible?
9 / 30
What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation?
10 / 30
What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy?
11 / 30
What can be found in a market economy?
12 / 30
The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called?
13 / 30
14 / 30
Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments?
15 / 30
16 / 30
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
17 / 30
One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim?
18 / 30
Which advantage do coins have that make them more suitable than banknotes to act as money?
19 / 30
The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve?
20 / 30
A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country?
21 / 30
A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?
22 / 30
China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa. Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line. Who bears the external costs of this operation?
23 / 30
What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?
24 / 30
What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?
25 / 30
What is an example of a free good?
26 / 30
27 / 30
What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force?
28 / 30
What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product?
29 / 30
What is an advantage of competitive markets?
30 / 30
What is most likely to have caused a long-term decrease in the numbers employed in the banking sector of an economy?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure? A monopolist may determine the price of its product. There is easy entry into the market. A monopolist’s product has many substitutes. There are no external costs. 2 / 30 A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit? increased spending on its military bases abroad increased numbers of visitors from abroad increased exports of its services increased international competitiveness of its goods 3 / 30 What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product? profit total revenue average revenue total cost 4 / 30 What is an example of expansionary monetary policy? a decrease in income tax rates a decrease in the budget deficit a decrease in the money supply a decrease in the rate of interest 5 / 30 A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country? It has the world’s highest standard of living. It has the world’s biggest economy It has the world’s greatest size of population. It has the world’s fastest economic growth rate. 6 / 30 The product is one with many substitutes Producers are unable to respond to a price rise. There are 20 people able to buy the product. Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue. 7 / 30 B D A C 8 / 30 What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production? the output that the production process creates the size of the firm that uses the production process the market structure of the production process the resources on which the production relies 9 / 30 B D C A 10 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? bank lending interest rates the money supply the budget deficit 11 / 30 Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero? quota embargo subsidy tariff 12 / 30 D B A C 13 / 30 A mobile (cell) phone operator increases the price of making calls on its network. After the price increase, the revenue of the mobile phone operator falls by 10%. What is the price elasticity of demand (PED) for the mobile operator’s service? perfectly elastic inelastic elastic unit elastic 14 / 30 What is most likely to have caused a long-term decrease in the numbers employed in the banking sector of an economy? voluntary unemployment caused by a reduction in wage rates technological unemployment caused by an increase in internet banking frictional unemployment caused by relocating a bank’s headquarters seasonal unemployment caused by reduced customer demand in the summer 15 / 30 B C A D 16 / 30 In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation? Girls do not favour heavy manual work. Girls are only interested in low-wage jobs It costs more for girls to be trained as design engineers. Girls have fewer opportunities to complete higher education. 17 / 30 B C A D 18 / 30 A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation? an increase in income tax rates an increase in government spending an increase in sales tax an increase in imports 19 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting primary commodities developing, exporting services developed, exporting manufactured goods developed, exporting services 20 / 30 What is a macroeconomic aim of a government? balance of payments stability deflation income inequality unemployment 21 / 30 A Swedish furniture maker bought a Romanian firm that owned 83 000 hectares of trees. Which type of merger is this most likely to be? vertical forward vertical backward horizontal diversification 22 / 30 What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday? the rubbish created during the holiday which affects the local community the potential interest earned if the holiday money had been saved the price paid for an air ticket to the holiday destination the satisfaction that the consumer gains from the holiday 23 / 30 A government wants to reduce both its budget deficit and the amount of poverty in its country. Which fiscal policy measure is most likely to achieve both of these aims? decreasing the rate of progressive income tax increasing the rate of progressive income tax decreasing government spending on welfare benefits increasing government spending on welfare benefits 24 / 30 What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation? property shares gold cash 25 / 30 C A D B 26 / 30 Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015. Professionals received higher percentage increases in income than manual workers. Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985. All occupations were better off in 2015 than in 1985. 27 / 30 D B A C 28 / 30 Z → X → Y Z → Y → X Y → X → Z Y → Z → X 29 / 30 A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours? the ability to increase his purchasing power the increased hourly earnings of $7.50 the additional time travelling to and from work the ten hours of leisure time 30 / 30 Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses? long period of training required high scope for economies of scale low start-up and running costs high level of competition NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure?
A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit?
What is an example of expansionary monetary policy?
What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production?
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero?
A mobile (cell) phone operator increases the price of making calls on its network. After the price increase, the revenue of the mobile phone operator falls by 10%. What is the price elasticity of demand (PED) for the mobile operator’s service?
In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation?
A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation?
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
What is a macroeconomic aim of a government?
A Swedish furniture maker bought a Romanian firm that owned 83 000 hectares of trees. Which type of merger is this most likely to be?
What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday?
A government wants to reduce both its budget deficit and the amount of poverty in its country. Which fiscal policy measure is most likely to achieve both of these aims?
What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation?
A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours?
Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C B A D 2 / 40 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 3 / 40 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor? motor thermistor relay light-dependent resistor 4 / 40 A C D B 5 / 40 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 6 / 40 B C D A 7 / 40 D A B C 8 / 40 C D B A 9 / 40 Q and R P only R only P and Q 10 / 40 B D C A 11 / 40 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current? thermistor earth wire relay fuse 12 / 40 XZ WY XY ZY 13 / 40 B D A C 14 / 40 P has a greater reading than T. P has a greater reading than S P has a greater reading than R. P has a greater reading than Q 15 / 40 A D C B 16 / 40 less than 1 year more than 1 year but less than 2 years more than 2 years but less than 3 years more than 3 years 17 / 40 Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo? diffraction dispersion reflection refraction 18 / 40 A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct? There are 6 protons in the nucleus. There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus. There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus. There are 6 electrons in the nucleus. 19 / 40 A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block? 12 000 000J 46 000J 46 J 12 000J 20 / 40 Q and R only P only P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright S, T and U only 21 / 40 D B A C 22 / 40 When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated. What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom? The atom has a dense nucleus. The nucleus of the atom is positively charged. The atom is very small. The atom is mostly empty space. 23 / 40 B D C A 24 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of protons only. 25 / 40 A C B D 26 / 40 D C A B 27 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? ultraviolet waves radio waves visible light infrared waves 28 / 40 C A D B 29 / 40 It is larger and inverted. It is smaller and inverted. It is larger and the same way up. It is smaller and the same way up. 30 / 40 B C A D 31 / 40 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred? a car skidding to a stop on a road a student dragging a big box over a rough floor a crane lifting a load a heavy load hanging from a strong bar 32 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number 33 / 40 The wire swings into the page. The wire swings to the left. The wire swings to the right. The wire swings out of the page. 34 / 40 the thickness of the roller the length of the steel bar the length of the pointer the length of the roller 35 / 40 7.0 N 10N 14N 2.0 N 36 / 40 The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current? Q and R P only P and Q R only 37 / 40 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object? 3.2 N 0.053 N 0.080 N 4.8 N 38 / 40 What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion? the gradient of a distance–time graph the area under a distance–time graph the area under a speed–time graph the gradient of a speed–time graph 39 / 40 A B C D 40 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The colour of the light changes. The amplitude of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor?
The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?
Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current?
Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?
A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?
A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block?
When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated. What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current?
An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object?
What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar? the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only the lattice vibrations of copper ions only the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar 2 / 40 48 cm / s 3.0 cm / s 72 cm / s 12 cm / s 3 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. 4 / 40 C D B A 5 / 40 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens? P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air. P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q. P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q. 6 / 40 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring? chemical energy gravitational potential energy gravitational potential energy elastic potential energy 7 / 40 C B A D 8 / 40 A C B D 9 / 40 7.0 N 14N 2.0 N 10N 10 / 40 P and Q P only R only Q and R 11 / 40 less than 1 year more than 1 year but less than 2 years more than 2 years but less than 3 years more than 3 years 12 / 40 Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure? thermal energy thermal capacity thermal conduction thermal expansion 13 / 40 Rocket P accelerates and then decelerates. Rocket Q has zero acceleration. Rocket P travels further than rocket Q. Both rockets travel the same distance. 14 / 40 D C A B 15 / 40 A B D C 16 / 40 XY ZY XZ WY 17 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 40 000W 40W 400W 4000W 18 / 40 The speed of the object is increasing with constant acceleration. The speed of the object is increasing with an acceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is decreasing with constant deceleration. The speed of the object is decreasing with a deceleration that is not constant. 19 / 40 A B C D 20 / 40 D A B C 21 / 40 lamp, voltmeter and switch resistor, thermistor and bell switch, variable resistor and heater switch, heater and fuse 22 / 40 The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current? P only P and Q Q and R R only 23 / 40 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person? 20 000 m 0.02 m 60 m 7 000 000m 24 / 40 A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations? gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy internal energy and elastic energy gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy 25 / 40 B D C A 26 / 40 All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer? volume mass pressure electrical resistance 27 / 40 D A B C 28 / 40 B D A C 29 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.31 m / s 0.19 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.0 m / s 30 / 40 70 km / h 50 km / h 67 km / h 83 km / h 31 / 40 Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 32 / 40 B D C A 33 / 40 condensation evaporation convection conduction 34 / 40 B A C D 35 / 40 B D A C 36 / 40 C B D A 37 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. 38 / 40 B A D C 39 / 40 C D A B 40 / 40 galvanometer barometer newton meter manometer NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar?
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?
In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?
Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person?
A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?
All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer?
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement?
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which material is a good conductor of heat? glass copper plastic wood 2 / 40 Air is trapped in a sealed glass bottle that has a fixed volume. The temperature of the air in the bottle decreases. Which statement describes what happens to the air in the bottle? The average separation of the molecules decreases but the pressure remains the same. The average separation of the molecules decreases and the pressure decreases. The average separation of the molecules remains the same but the pressure decreases. The average separation of the molecules remains the same and the pressure remains the same. 3 / 40 B C D A 4 / 40 Which statement about ethene is not correct? It is formed by cracking larger alkanes. It decolourises aqueous bromine. It is a saturated hydrocarbon It is used to make an addition polymer. 5 / 40 D A B C 6 / 40 A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced? chlorine hydrogen chloride ammonia carbon dioxide 7 / 40 During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina? sperm ducts → testes → urethra → vagina urethra → testes → sperm ducts → vagina testes → sperm ducts → urethra → vagina testes → urethra → sperm ducts → vagina 8 / 40 B C D A 9 / 40 Which statement describes the correct order in which two reactions in a blast furnace occur? Iron oxide is reduced, then carbon is oxidised. Carbon dioxide is reduced, then carbon monoxide is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is oxidised, then carbon dioxide is reduced. Carbon monoxide is reduced, then carbon is oxidised. 10 / 40 D B A C 11 / 40 In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed? burning coal in air adding hydrochloric acid to calcium burning methane in air adding hydrochloric acid to calcium carbonate 12 / 40 D A B C 13 / 40 A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell? 1.6 mm 0.4 mm 4.0 mm 16.0 mm 14 / 40 Which statement about forces is always correct? Friction on an object sliding along rough ground acts in the opposite direction to its motion. A resultant force is needed to keep an object moving at constant speed in a straight line. Air resistance acting on an object falling in still air causes its speed to increase. No forces act on any object that is at rest. 15 / 40 A D C B 16 / 40 B C A D 17 / 40 Which type of compound contains only carbon and hydrogen? hydrocarbon carbohydrate carbonate hydroxide 18 / 40 Which change shows the presence of water? Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns pink. Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns pink. Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns blue. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white. 19 / 40 20Hz 0.050 Hz 3.0 Hz 0.33 Hz 20 / 40 What is the function of the cell membrane? to control which substances move in and out of the cell to hold the DNA of the cell to hold the chlorophyll of the cell to store nutrients or waste products 21 / 40 A D C B 22 / 40 Some statements about adrenaline are listed. It has one target organ. It is a hormone. It is produced by a gland. It is transported in the blood. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 23 / 40 A D C B 24 / 40 B C D A 25 / 40 The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct? Zinc atoms give electrons to iron ions. Iron atoms have a greater tendency to form positive ions than zinc atoms. Zinc displaces iron because it is more reactive than iron. 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 26 / 40 B A D C 27 / 40 40 m 80 m 20 m 120 m 28 / 40 D A C B 29 / 40 Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right? They change from gases to solids. They change from elements to compounds. They change from metals to non-metals. They change from non-metals to metals. 30 / 40 A D C B 31 / 40 A C B D 32 / 40 fox dove wheat cat 33 / 40 Which process is the escape of more-energetic molecules from the surface of a liquid? condensation evaporation radiation convection 34 / 40 During pregnancy, what protects the embryo against toxins? amniotic sac amniotic fluid placenta umbilical cord 35 / 40 B D C A 36 / 40 What is a characteristic of all living organisms? eating movement egestion breathing 37 / 40 8 A man takes 30 minutes to walk 4.0 km to a station. He then immediately gets on a train that takes 60 minutes to travel 100 km. What is the average speed for the man’s complete journey? 54 km / hour 1.8 km / hour 69 km / hour 1.2 km / hour 38 / 40 A D C B 39 / 40 B A C D 40 / 40 Which statement about enzymes is correct? Enzymes are not affected by changes in pH. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Enzymes are made of glycerol. Enzymes are not affected by changes in temperature. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Which material is a good conductor of heat?
Air is trapped in a sealed glass bottle that has a fixed volume. The temperature of the air in the bottle decreases. Which statement describes what happens to the air in the bottle?
Which statement about ethene is not correct?
A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced?
During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?
Which statement describes the correct order in which two reactions in a blast furnace occur?
In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed?
A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell?
Which statement about forces is always correct?
Which type of compound contains only carbon and hydrogen?
Which change shows the presence of water?
What is the function of the cell membrane?
Some statements about adrenaline are listed.
Which statements are correct?
The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct?
Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right?
Which process is the escape of more-energetic molecules from the surface of a liquid?
During pregnancy, what protects the embryo against toxins?
What is a characteristic of all living organisms?
8 A man takes 30 minutes to walk 4.0 km to a station. He then immediately gets on a train that takes 60 minutes to travel 100 km. What is the average speed for the man’s complete journey?
Which statement about enzymes is correct?
