0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 B A D C 2 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $2400 $1200 $2500 $1100 3 / 35 An irrecoverable debt has been written off. A credit customer has paid his account by the due date. A payment has been received for a debt that had been written off. A late payment has been received for a debt not yet written off. 4 / 35 X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year? $18 000 $10 000 $15 000 $7000 5 / 35 Which action will improve the gross margin? reducing selling price reducing expenses increasing expenses increasing selling price 6 / 35 $13 000 $6000 $17 000 $32 000 7 / 35 $1000 $16 000 $6000 $26 000 8 / 35 $5750 $3450 $1800 $2950 9 / 35 Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader? operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, working capital operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital gross profit, non-current liabilities, working capital gross profit, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital 10 / 35 What is the purpose of preparing a partnership appropriation account? to calculate the interest to be charged on the drawings made by each partner to calculate the interest to be paid on the capital invested by each partner to show the division of the profit or loss for the year between the partners to show the amount of salary to which each partner is entitled 11 / 35 Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner 2 and 5 3 and 4 3 and 5 1 and 2 12 / 35 What is the accounting equation? assets + capital = liabilities assets – liabilities = capital assets = capital – liabilities assets = liabilities – capital 13 / 35 Annual rental income due from Kumar, a tenant, is $3600. At the start of the year Kumar had prepaid rent of $900. At the end of the year he owed two months’ rent. How much rent was received from Kumar during the year? $3900 $5100 $2100 $3300 14 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $11 600 increase $800 decrease $800 increase $11 600 15 / 35 $10 000 $31 000 $22 000 $43 000 16 / 35 Which document does a trader issue to remind a credit customer that payment is due? credit note debit note receipt statement of account 17 / 35 What does the objective of understandability assume users of financial statements will possess? a reasonable knowledge of accounting knowledge of book-keeping but not accounting full knowledge of accounting no knowledge of book-keeping or accounting 18 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $660 $670 $600 $640 19 / 35 A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements. What is the effect of this on the interested parties? They can use the financial statements in decision-making They can understand the financial statements easily. They can identify similarities with the financial statements of other businesses. They can be sure that information in the financial statements is up to date. 20 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to avoid irrecoverable debts to encourage payment in cash to encourage bulk buying to reward prompt payment 21 / 35 C B A D 22 / 35 A B C D 23 / 35 D A B C 24 / 35 The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year? $18 500 $28 500 $33 500 $23 500 25 / 35 C A B D 26 / 35 Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month? debit sales returns account credit purchases returns account debit purchases returns account credit sales returns account 27 / 35 Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its debts when they fall due. Sally is considering the following proposals. 1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000 2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months 3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years 4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business? 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 28 / 35 $623 $605 $613 $595 29 / 35 B D A C 30 / 35 The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a year. Mark-up was 20%. What was the revenue for the year? $250 000 $160 000 $240 000 $200 000 31 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $11 600 increase $11 600 decrease $800 increase $800 32 / 35 $15 400 $31 200 $13 200 $32 700 33 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to calculate the profit for the year to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities to show the transactions which took place during the year to summarise what the business owns and what it owes 34 / 35 Which statements are correct? 1 A debenture holder of a limited company is liable for the debts of the company. 2 A partner is liable to pay business debts from personal assets. 3 A shareholder of a limited company is responsible for the company’s debts. 4 A sole trader is responsible for all the debts of his business. 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3 35 / 35 C B D A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
3 / 35
4 / 35
X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year?
5 / 35
Which action will improve the gross margin?
6 / 35
7 / 35
8 / 35
9 / 35
Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader?
10 / 35
What is the purpose of preparing a partnership appropriation account?
11 / 35
Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner
12 / 35
What is the accounting equation?
13 / 35
Annual rental income due from Kumar, a tenant, is $3600. At the start of the year Kumar had prepaid rent of $900. At the end of the year he owed two months’ rent. How much rent was received from Kumar during the year?
14 / 35
The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?
15 / 35
16 / 35
Which document does a trader issue to remind a credit customer that payment is due?
17 / 35
What does the objective of understandability assume users of financial statements will possess?
18 / 35
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
19 / 35
A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements.
What is the effect of this on the interested parties?
20 / 35
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
21 / 35
22 / 35
23 / 35
24 / 35
The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year?
25 / 35
26 / 35
Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month?
27 / 35
Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its debts when they fall due. Sally is considering the following proposals.
1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000 2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months 3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years 4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business?
28 / 35
29 / 35
30 / 35
The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a year. Mark-up was 20%. What was the revenue for the year?
31 / 35
32 / 35
33 / 35
John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?
34 / 35
Which statements are correct? 1 A debenture holder of a limited company is liable for the debts of the company. 2 A partner is liable to pay business debts from personal assets. 3 A shareholder of a limited company is responsible for the company’s debts. 4 A sole trader is responsible for all the debts of his business.
35 / 35
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 A C D B 2 / 35 A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct? Shareholders would lose the money that was paid when the shares were first purchased. Shareholders would have to sell their personal possessions to pay the debts of the company Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the value of shares owned. Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the number of shares owned. 3 / 35 $24 460 $23 740 $29 460 $27 740 4 / 35 After preparing draft financial statements at the end of her first year of trading, Lucy discovered two errors. 1) Damaged inventory had been valued at cost price, $340. It was expected to sell for $180. 2) 100 items which had been expected to sell for $12 each had been valued at their cost price of $7 each. Carriage inwards of $1 for each item had not been included in the cost. What was the effect of these errors on the gross profit? understated $60 overstated $60 understated $240 overstated $240 5 / 35 What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement? A cheque received from a customer was not recorded in the bank statement. A customer’s cheque dishonoured by the bank appeared only on the bank statement. Payment of insurance by standing order was not recorded in the cash book. Payment by a customer directly into the bank was not recorded in the cash book. 6 / 35 A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account? $14 000 $8000 $12 000 $6000 7 / 35 Which statement is correct? The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts 8 / 35 How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements? to compare the business performance over a number of years to calculate the amount that is owed by trade receivables to calculate the amount of cash drawings taken to check the balance shown on a bank statement 9 / 35 Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct? A lower amount of depreciation is charged in the early years of the asset’s life than in the later years. Each year a given percentage is deducted from the cost of the asset less the depreciation to date. The net book value of the non-current asset will never reach a nil value. It is used for assets which give greater benefits in the early years of their life 10 / 35 D C B A 11 / 35 $5000 $7000 $9500 $8500 12 / 35 B C A D 13 / 35 How should inventory be valued? cost lower of cost and net realisable value net realisable value higher of cost and net realisable value 14 / 35 At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply? prudence money measurement matching materiality 15 / 35 discount allowed the recovery of a debt previously written off an irrecoverable debt the balance carried down 16 / 35 What is shown in a manufacturing account? 1 cost of material consumed 2 purchases of finished goods 3 cost of production 4 cost of sales 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 only 17 / 35 The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show? Y has fewer current assets than X. X has fewer liabilities than Y Y has more inventory than X. X has more liquidity than Y. 18 / 35 A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin? Cost of sales is decreasing. Expenses are decreasing. Quantity of goods sold is decreasing. Selling price is decreasing. 19 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $3000 $5000 $68 000 $83 000 20 / 35 $2200 $7500 $6000 $1000 21 / 35 What does not affect the total equity of a limited company? ordinary share dividend paid issue of ordinary shares profit for the year transfer from retained earnings to general reserve 22 / 35 Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen? $16.00 $19.20 $20.00 $15.36 23 / 35 Atif depreciates his motor vehicles at a rate of 20% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 1 May 2021, Atif owned motor vehicles which cost $35 000. At that date, the motor vehicles had been depreciated by $12 600. What was the balance on Atif’s provision for depreciation account on 1 May 2022? $17 920 $17 080 $19 600 $22 400 24 / 35 When Mark started a car repair business, he purchased premises and equipment. Two years later he spent $5000 on building an extension, $600 on new equipment and $750 on repainting the original premises. By how much will the non-current assets increase because of these transactions? $5000 $6350 $5600 $5750 25 / 35 Which item is an asset? rent received in advance from tenant an amount owing by credit customers interest accrued on bank loan an amount owing to credit suppliers 26 / 35 $155 000 $175 000 $145 000 $137 000 27 / 35 Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods? general ledger only cash book and sales ledger purchases ledger only general ledger and purchases ledger 28 / 35 Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner 1 and 2 3 and 5 2 and 5 3 and 4 29 / 35 increase by $2000 decrease by $6000 decrease by $2000 increase by $6000 30 / 35 $17 000 $13 000 $6000 $32 000 31 / 35 $1800 $5750 $2950 $3450 32 / 35 Which item is shown in the income statement of a company and statement of changes in equity? transfer to general reserve ordinary share dividend paid profit for the year interest on debentures accrued 33 / 35 Why would a supplier be interested in the financial statements of a credit customer? to know the value of the inventory to know if the customer can pay what he owes to know the profit for the year to know the amount owed by trade receivables 34 / 35 Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased 1, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 35 / 35 $17 270 $15 270 $14 890 $13 920 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct?
After preparing draft financial statements at the end of her first year of trading, Lucy discovered two errors. 1) Damaged inventory had been valued at cost price, $340. It was expected to sell for $180. 2) 100 items which had been expected to sell for $12 each had been valued at their cost price of $7 each. Carriage inwards of $1 for each item had not been included in the cost. What was the effect of these errors on the gross profit?
What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement?
A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account?
Which statement is correct?
How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements?
Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct?
How should inventory be valued?
At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply?
What is shown in a manufacturing account? 1 cost of material consumed 2 purchases of finished goods 3 cost of production 4 cost of sales
The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show?
A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin?
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
What does not affect the total equity of a limited company?
Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen?
Atif depreciates his motor vehicles at a rate of 20% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 1 May 2021, Atif owned motor vehicles which cost $35 000. At that date, the motor vehicles had been depreciated by $12 600. What was the balance on Atif’s provision for depreciation account on 1 May 2022?
When Mark started a car repair business, he purchased premises and equipment. Two years later he spent $5000 on building an extension, $600 on new equipment and $750 on repainting the original premises. By how much will the non-current assets increase because of these transactions?
Which item is an asset?
Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods?
Which item is shown in the income statement of a company and statement of changes in equity?
Why would a supplier be interested in the financial statements of a credit customer?
Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed. 1 calcium 2 fat 3 fibre 4 vitamin D Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones? 2 and 4 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 / 40 The cell is a haploid cell containing pairs of chromosomes. The cell is a diploid cell with no pairs of chromosomes. The cell is a haploid cell with no pairs of chromosomes. The cell is a diploid cell containing pairs of chromosomes. 3 / 40 Which organ excretes urea? liver pancreas kidney lungs 4 / 40 B C A D 5 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. 6 / 40 Which change increases the rate of water uptake by the roots of a plant? decrease in evaporation of water from mesophyll cells decrease in water potential of root hair cells decrease in length of root hairs decrease in water potential of soil water 7 / 40 alimentary canal bronchus blood plant roots 8 / 40 B D A C 9 / 40 D B A C 10 / 40 Some functions of blood are listed. 1 antibody production 2 blood clotting 3 oxygen transport 4 phagocytosis What are functions of white blood cells? 1 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 11 / 40 Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera 1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages? 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 12 / 40 In which part of the alimentary canal does ingestion take place? liver anus mouth stomach 13 / 40 In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place? mouth oesophagus duodenum colon 14 / 40 A crop plant has been genetically modified to make it resistant to herbicides. Which is a possible disadvantage of introducing this new crop plant? The new gene will appear in new generations of the crop. The crop plant is unharmed and produces a higher yield. Loss of weeds reduces competition. Some weeds might become resistant to the herbicide 15 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? new blood vessel growth repair and thickening implantation of embryo breaks down 16 / 40 What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs? It halves and then halves again. It doubles It stays the same. It halves 17 / 40 By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation? mitosis meiosis variation inheritance 18 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus with two genes a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes a nucleus with one double helix of DNA a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes 19 / 40 Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle. Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria? the conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrates the conversion of ammonia to nitrates the conversion of nitrates to nitrogen the conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia 20 / 40 W and X X and Y Z and W Y and Z 21 / 40 Which stage of nutrition takes place when food molecules become part of a body cell? digestion assimilation absorption ingestion 22 / 40 In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules? salts water glucose urea 23 / 40 Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called? evolution genetic engineering selective breeding mutation 24 / 40 What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation? organ → tissue → cell → organ system tissue → cell → organ → organ system cell → organ → tissue → organ system cell → tissue → organ → organ system 25 / 40 tissue cell organ organ system. 26 / 40 Which disease is caused by a pathogen? coronary heart disease lung cancer cholera scurvy 27 / 40 Which part of a cell makes glucose? nucleus cell membrane chloroplast vacuole 28 / 40 Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion? Fats are digested by protease to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by lipase to form amino acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form amino acids. Fats are digested by lipase to form fatty acids and glycerol. 29 / 40 During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery? Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. 30 / 40 Which process in the water cycle only involves living organisms? precipitation transpiration condensation evaporation 31 / 40 C D B A 32 / 40 Which hormone reduces the concentration of glucose in the blood? adrenaline insulin testosterone oestrogen 33 / 40 What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast? lactic acid + oxygen lactic acid + carbon dioxide alcohol + oxygen alcohol + carbon dioxide 34 / 40 conduction of impulses sexual reproduction asexual reproduction movement of mucus in the trachea 35 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 1 and 2 1 and 4 3 and 4 2 and 3 36 / 40 B A C D 37 / 40 What is the cause of the start of dental decay? Sugars dissolve enamel. Acid dissolves enamel. Sugars dissolve dentine. Acid dissolves dentine. 38 / 40 A C D B 39 / 40 A D B C 40 / 40 chlorophyll light oxygen carbon dioxide NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed. 1 calcium 2 fat 3 fibre 4 vitamin D Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones?
2 / 40
3 / 40
Which organ excretes urea?
4 / 40
5 / 40
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
6 / 40
Which change increases the rate of water uptake by the roots of a plant?
7 / 40
8 / 40
9 / 40
10 / 40
Some functions of blood are listed.
1 antibody production 2 blood clotting 3 oxygen transport 4 phagocytosis What are functions of white blood cells?
11 / 40
Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera
1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages?
12 / 40
In which part of the alimentary canal does ingestion take place?
13 / 40
In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place?
14 / 40
A crop plant has been genetically modified to make it resistant to herbicides. Which is a possible disadvantage of introducing this new crop plant?
15 / 40
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
16 / 40
What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs?
17 / 40
By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation?
18 / 40
What is a diploid nucleus?
19 / 40
Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle. Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria?
20 / 40
21 / 40
Which stage of nutrition takes place when food molecules become part of a body cell?
22 / 40
In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules?
23 / 40
Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called?
24 / 40
What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation?
25 / 40
26 / 40
Which disease is caused by a pathogen?
27 / 40
Which part of a cell makes glucose?
28 / 40
Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion?
29 / 40
During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery?
30 / 40
Which process in the water cycle only involves living organisms?
31 / 40
32 / 40
Which hormone reduces the concentration of glucose in the blood?
33 / 40
What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?
34 / 40
35 / 40
Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes?
36 / 40
37 / 40
What is the cause of the start of dental decay?
38 / 40
39 / 40
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Q and R only P, Q and R Q only P and Q only 2 / 40 Which organ detects the changes in the carbon dioxide concentration of the blood? brain liver pancreas lungs 3 / 40 Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism? Plant shoots grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow away from light. Plant roots grow towards light. 4 / 40 Which part of a cell makes glucose? vacuole chloroplast nucleus cell membrane 5 / 40 A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak that was adapted to extract small insects from the water. Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak? natural selection selective breeding fossilisation genetic engineering 6 / 40 The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3 Which statement is correct for this food chain? Organism 3 is a tertiary consumer Organism 3 is a carnivore. Organism 2 is a carnivore Organism 2 is a secondary consumer. 7 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? stigma → ovary → style → ovule ovary → stigma → ovule → style stigma → style → ovary → ovule ovary → ovule → stigma → style 8 / 40 The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity? stomach and mouth colon and duodenum colon and stomach mouth and duodenum 9 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. The disorder is sex-linked. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. 10 / 40 A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct? The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and more blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and less blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and more blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and less blood flows to the skin surface. 11 / 40 Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only? cellulose, glycogen and starch fats, cellulose and proteins proteins, oils and glycogen starch, fats and oils 12 / 40 What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells? hormones ions enzymes vitamins 13 / 40 The sequence of the bases present on one strand of a DNA molecule is shown. ATTGGACGGT Which sequence shows the bases present on the opposite strand? TAACCTGCCA ATTGGACGGT CGGTTCATTG TCCAATGAAC 14 / 40 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 15 / 40 What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’? environment trophic level habitat community 16 / 40 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 17 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? oxygen transport antibody formation phagocytosis blood clotting 18 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 1 and 4 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 19 / 40 What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans? to maintain strong bones and teeth to help food move through the alimentary canal to provide energy for growth and repair of cells 20 / 40 In a cell, where are amino acids assembled to form protein molecules? nucleus cell membrane vesicles ribosomes 21 / 40 B D C A 22 / 40 Some of the structures found in cells are listed: • cytoplasm • cell membrane • cell wall • chloroplast. How many of these structures are found in the cells of all living organisms? 1 3 2 4 23 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants? No pollinators are required. Only one parent plant is required so growth is rapid. Desirable qualities are shown throughout the crop. All of the crop plants have the same risk of disease. 24 / 40 B C A D 25 / 40 What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc? motor → sensory → relay sensory → relay → motor motor → relay → sensory sensory → motor → relay 26 / 40 What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant body temperature? They are controlled by hormones They require energy. They require carbon dioxide. They are examples of homeostasis. 27 / 40 What happens during respiration in germinating seeds? Glucose is used up by the seeds. Carbon dioxide is taken up by the seeds. Seed temperature decreases Oxygen is given out by the seeds. 28 / 40 Which process is carried out by all organisms transpiration photosynthesis sexual reproduction growth 29 / 40 0.00025 μm 0.0025 μm 2.5 μm 0.025 μm 30 / 40 Examples of responses to hormones are listed. 1 increased breathing rate 2 increased pulse rate 3 growth of body hair 4 widened pupils Which responses are caused by the hormone adrenaline? 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 31 / 40 amino acids protein DNA mRNA 32 / 40 C D A B 33 / 40 What is the approximate percentage of oxygen contained in the air breathed out of the lungs? 16% 0% 4% 20% 34 / 40 adrenal glands testes ovaries pancreas 35 / 40 In which order does water pass through these structures in a plant? root hair → mesophyll → xylem mesophyll → xylem → root hair mesophyll → root hair → xylem root hair → xylem → mesophyll 36 / 40 Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors? muscles liver skin brain 37 / 40 Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion? from lower to higher concentration down a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration down a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration against a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration against a concentration gradient 38 / 40 D B C A 39 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide 40 / 40 Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature? liver skin brain heart NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
Which organ detects the changes in the carbon dioxide concentration of the blood?
Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?
A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak that was adapted to extract small insects from the water. Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak?
The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain. producer→ organism 2 → organism 3
Which statement is correct for this food chain?
Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?
The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity?
A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct?
Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only?
What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells?
The sequence of the bases present on one strand of a DNA molecule is shown. ATTGGACGGT Which sequence shows the bases present on the opposite strand?
What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’?
Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?
What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans?
In a cell, where are amino acids assembled to form protein molecules?
Some of the structures found in cells are listed: • cytoplasm • cell membrane • cell wall • chloroplast. How many of these structures are found in the cells of all living organisms?
Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants?
What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc?
What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant body temperature?
What happens during respiration in germinating seeds?
Which process is carried out by all organisms
Examples of responses to hormones are listed. 1 increased breathing rate 2 increased pulse rate 3 growth of body hair 4 widened pupils Which responses are caused by the hormone adrenaline?
What is the approximate percentage of oxygen contained in the air breathed out of the lungs?
In which order does water pass through these structures in a plant?
Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors?
Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Large hydrocarbons can be cracked to form smaller hydrocarbons. Complete the chemical equation for cracking tridecane, C13H28, to form an alkene and one other hydrocarbon. C13H28 → C3H6 + ………….. Check 2 / 40 copper → M → zinc → magnesium magnesium → zinc → M → copper copper → zinc → M → magnesium magnesium → M → zinc → copper 3 / 40 Sodium chloride is a liquid at 900 °C. How are the particles arranged and how do the particles move in sodium chloride at 900 °C? Arrangement of particles regular – Motion of particles vibrate about a fixed point Arrangement of particles random- Motion of particles move randomly. Arrangement of particles random- Motion of particles vibrate about a fixed point. Arrangement of particles regular – Motion of particles move randomly. 4 / 40 What term is used to describe atoms of the same element, such as 1224Mg and 1226Mg? Check 5 / 40 Which reaction is a photochemical reaction? esterification of ethanol and ethanoic acid addition of bromine to propene substitution of methane with chlorine oxidation of ethanol 6 / 40 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly? calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide calcium oxide and carbon monoxide calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide calcium oxide and carbon dioxide 7 / 40 Sulfur trioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain. Which one of the following pH values could be the pH of acid rain? Which is the correct answer. pH 4 pH 7 pH 9 pH 13 pH7 pH4 pH9 pH13 8 / 40 A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 9 / 40 Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct? Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X. Y has more electron shells than X. Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X. Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X. 10 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. The solvent should cover the baseline. The baseline should be drawn in pencil. 11 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: reacts with sodium to produce only aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen Check 12 / 40 This question is about iron and iron compounds. (a) Name the main ore of iron nitrogen chloride hematite 13 / 40 Chlorine gas is bubbled into aqueous potassium iodide. What is the ionic equation for the reaction that takes place? Cl2 + 2I– → 2Cl– + I2 Cl2 + 2I– → Cl2– + I2 Cl2 + 2I– → 2Cl– + 2I Cl + I– → Cl– + I 14 / 40 Which reactions are exothermic? 1) C + O2 → CO2 2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 3) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 15 / 40 Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change. Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the dissolving of ammonium chloride? energy change (energy is absorbed) – temperature change (increase) energy change (energy is absorbed) – temperature change (decrease) energy change (energy is released) – temperature change (increase) energy change (energy is released) – temperature change (decrease) 16 / 40 Which description of brass is correct? alloy non-metal element compound 17 / 40 Name the oxide of carbon that is a toxic gas Check 18 / 40 Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements? KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4 Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4 Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4 KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4 19 / 40 Which statement about alkanes is correct? They contain double bonds. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They burn in oxygen. They contain ionic bonds. 20 / 40 D A B C 21 / 40 Which statement about an atom of fluorine, 199F, is correct? It contains a total of 28 protons, neutrons and electrons. Its nucleus contains 9 neutrons. Its isotopes contain different numbers of protons. It contains more protons than neutrons. 22 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used:to produce amino acids from proteins Check 23 / 40 Which substances are natural polymers? 1) proteins 2) carbohydrates 3) nylon 4) poly(ethene) 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 24 / 40 Nitrogen is heated in a balloon, which expands slightly. Which statements about the molecules of nitrogen are correct? 1 They move further apart. 2 They move more quickly. 3 They remain the same distance apart. 4 Their speed remains unchanged 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 25 / 40 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime? sulfuric acid ammonia sodium chloride sodium hydroxide 26 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used: to produce ammonia from nitrogen Check 27 / 40 Compound Z contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Molecules of compound Z have four hydrogen atoms and two carbon atoms. Compound Z can be made by oxidation of an alcohol. What is compound Z? ethene methyl methanoate ethanol ethanoic acid 28 / 40 X and Y are two different elements. X and Y have the same number of nucleons. Which statement about X and Y is correct? They have the same physical properties. They have different relative masses. They are in different groups of the Periodic Table. They have the same physical properties. 29 / 40 State the full name of this compound of copper Check 30 / 40 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 31 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide Check 32 / 40 The equation for a redox reaction is shown. 2FeSO4 + Cl2 + H2SO4 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl Which element is reduced? chlorine sulfur iron oxygen 33 / 40 Which statement about elements in Group VIII of the Periodic Table is correct? They are all liquids at room temperature. They all have a full outer shell of electrons They all react with Group I elements to form ionic compounds. They are all diatomic molecules. 34 / 40 The equation for the reaction of sodium with water is shown. 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 What is the volume of hydrogen gas, measured at r.t.p., produced when 18.4 g of sodium reacts with excess water? 9.6 dm3 19.2 dm3 15.0 dm3 30.0 dm3 35 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is malleable Check 36 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 1, 2 and 4 1 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 37 / 40 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture? filtration → evaporation → crystallisation evaporation → crystallisation → filtration filtration → crystallisation → evaporation crystallisation → evaporation → filtration 38 / 40 Helium is a noble gas. Which statement about helium is correct? It is reactive. It is used for filling balloons. It has eight electrons in its outer shell. It is a diatomic gas. 39 / 40 An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of electrons? CheckWrong 40 / 40 Which statements about the general properties of metals are correct? 1 They are good conductors of heat and electricity. 2 They have low melting points. 3 They react with dilute acids to form a salt and water. 4 They react with oxygen to form basic oxides. 1 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 and 4 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Large hydrocarbons can be cracked to form smaller hydrocarbons. Complete the chemical equation for cracking tridecane, C13H28, to form an alkene and one other hydrocarbon. C13H28 → C3H6 + …………..
Sodium chloride is a liquid at 900 °C. How are the particles arranged and how do the particles move in sodium chloride at 900 °C?
What term is used to describe atoms of the same element, such as 1224Mg and 1226Mg?
Which reaction is a photochemical reaction?
What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?
Sulfur trioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain. Which one of the following pH values could be the pH of acid rain? Which is the correct answer. pH 4 pH 7 pH 9 pH 13
A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct?
Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct?
Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: reacts with sodium to produce only aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
This question is about iron and iron compounds. (a) Name the main ore of iron
Chlorine gas is bubbled into aqueous potassium iodide. What is the ionic equation for the reaction that takes place?
Which reactions are exothermic? 1) C + O2 → CO2 2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 3) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change. Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the dissolving of ammonium chloride?
Which description of brass is correct?
Name the oxide of carbon that is a toxic gas
Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?
Which statement about alkanes is correct?
Which statement about an atom of fluorine, 199F, is correct?
Give the name of the process that is used:to produce amino acids from proteins
Which substances are natural polymers? 1) proteins 2) carbohydrates 3) nylon 4) poly(ethene)
Nitrogen is heated in a balloon, which expands slightly. Which statements about the molecules of nitrogen are correct? 1 They move further apart. 2 They move more quickly. 3 They remain the same distance apart. 4 Their speed remains unchanged
Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime?
Give the name of the process that is used: to produce ammonia from nitrogen
Compound Z contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Molecules of compound Z have four hydrogen atoms and two carbon atoms. Compound Z can be made by oxidation of an alcohol. What is compound Z?
X and Y are two different elements. X and Y have the same number of nucleons. Which statement about X and Y is correct?
State the full name of this compound of copper
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide
The equation for a redox reaction is shown. 2FeSO4 + Cl2 + H2SO4 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl Which element is reduced?
Which statement about elements in Group VIII of the Periodic Table is correct?
The equation for the reaction of sodium with water is shown. 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 What is the volume of hydrogen gas, measured at r.t.p., produced when 18.4 g of sodium reacts with excess water?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is malleable
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?
Helium is a noble gas. Which statement about helium is correct?
An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of electrons?
Which statements about the general properties of metals are correct? 1 They are good conductors of heat and electricity. 2 They have low melting points. 3 They react with dilute acids to form a salt and water. 4 They react with oxygen to form basic oxides.
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Solid copper(II) carbonate reacts with dilute sulfuric acid. CuCO3 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + CO2 + H2O The rate of the reaction can be changed by varying the conditions. Which changes always increase the rate of this chemical reaction? 1) increasing the concentration of sulfuric acid 2) increasing the size of the pieces of copper(II) carbonate 3) increasing the temperature 4) increasing the volume of sulfuric acid 1 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 / 40 Some statements about gas G are listed. G is monoatomic. G is found in clean, dry air. G is used in lamps. Which element is G? oxygen helium nitrogen argon 3 / 40 What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate? purification of water manufacture of cement manufacture of aluminium cracking of hydrocarbons 4 / 40 Which statement about alkanes is correct? They contain double bonds. They burn in oxygen. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They contain ionic bonds. 5 / 40 Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes. Which statements about these isomers are correct? 1 They have the same molecular formula. 2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule. 3 They have a C=C bond in the structure. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 1 and 2 6 / 40 What is the concentration of the solution when 31.8 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, is dissolved in water to make a solution of 250 cm3? 1.5 mol / dm3 0.30 mol /dm3 0.075 mol /dm3 1.2 mol / dm3 7 / 40 Which statement is correct? When hydrated copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. When water is added to blue cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns pink. When anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. When water is added to pink cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns blue 8 / 40 Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons. 2 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 9 / 40 Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide. 1, 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 10 / 40 What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid? It reacts with a metal oxide to form carbon dioxide. It changes red litmus blue. It has a deep purple colour. It has a pH of less than 7. 11 / 40 Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride? 2Na3N → 6Na + N2 2NaN3 → Na2 + 3N2 2Na3N → 6Na + 2N 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2 12 / 40 Which statements about the thermal decomposition of copper(II) nitrate are correct? 1 A brown gas is given off. 2 A gas which relights a glowing splint is given off. 3 The solid residue is an acidic oxide 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 13 / 40 Which process produces methane? respiration reaction between hydrochloric acid and calcium carbonate decomposition of vegetation combustion of hydrocarbons 14 / 40 Which word equation represents a reaction that occurs? sodium oxide + iron → sodium + iron(II) oxide iron(II) oxide + copper → iron + copper(II) oxide sodium oxide + carbon → sodium + carbon dioxide iron(III) oxide + carbon → iron + carbon dioxide 15 / 40 The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct? Carbon monoxide is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is reduced. Iron is oxidised. Iron(III) oxide is oxidised. 16 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 1 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 17 / 40 Which statement about elements in the Periodic Table is correct? Elements are arranged in order of increasing nucleon number Transition elements are a collection of metals and non-metals. Elements in Group VII are diatomic non-metals. Elements with similar properties are in the same period. 18 / 40 The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3. 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 only 1 and 2 only 19 / 40 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime? sodium hydroxide ammonia sodium chloride sulfuric acid 20 / 40 Sulfur dioxide is tested by reacting it with acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is seen in the test? purple to colourless blue to white colourless to purple white to blue 21 / 40 Fuels release heat energy when they burn. Which substances are used as fuels? argon methane hydrogen butane 22 / 40 Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct? 1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII). 2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates. 3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach. 4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil. 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 23 / 40 A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X? copper, Cu sulfur, S gadolinium, Gd tellurium, Te 24 / 40 Some properties of element E are listed. It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E? bromine aluminium lithium iron 25 / 40 Which monomer molecules are used to make poly(ethene)? C2H6 C2H4 C4H8 C3H6 26 / 40 The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous hydrogen iodide is shown. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) The reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic? The products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. Energy is released when H–H and I–I bonds are broken. The bond energies of the reactants are larger than the bond energies of the products. More energy is released when two HI bonds are formed than is used when the H–H and I–I bonds are broken. 27 / 40 Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace? CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 CO2 + C → 2CO C + O2 → CO2 28 / 40 Which three elements are needed in fertilisers? carbon, potassium and nitrogen potassium, nitrogen and phosphorus potassium, phosphorus and carbon calcium, nitrogen and phosphorus 29 / 40 Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct? 1) They contain both single and double bonds. 2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown. 3) They can be manufactured by cracking. 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 30 / 40 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments? Hydrogen would be formed at the anode. Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode. A metal would be formed at the cathode. A halogen would be formed at the anode. 31 / 40 Which statement explains why metals are malleable? The atoms release electrons to become cations. The electrons and the cations are attracted to each other. The electrons are free to move. The layers of ions can slide over each other. 32 / 40 Chromium is a more reactive metal than iron but less reactive than zinc. Which statements are correct? 1 Chromium does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid. 2 Chromium oxide is reduced when it is heated with carbon. 3 Chromium reacts with zinc oxide to form zinc. 4 Chromium reacts with steam to form hydrogen gas. 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 4 1 and 3 33 / 40 Magnesium reacts with copper(II) oxide to give magnesium oxide and copper. Which substance is the oxidising agent in this reaction? copper magnesium magnesium oxide copper(II) oxide 34 / 40 Bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Iodine displaces bromide ions from solution. Bromine is more dense than iodine. Bromine is a lighter colour than iodine. Bromine is less reactive than iodine. 35 / 40 Some uses of water are listed. 1 as a solvent 2 as a coolant in the chemical industry 3 to irrigate crops 4 to provide safe drinking water During a drought, which uses are important to sustain the population of a country? 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 36 / 40 Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture? filtration crystallisation distillation fractional distillation 37 / 40 Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium from bauxite? it reduces aluminium ions in aluminium oxide as a solvent for aluminium oxide as a catalyst for the process it stops the carbon anodes burning away 38 / 40 Which method produces a pure sample of copper(II) sulfate crystals? Warm an excess of copper(II) oxide with dilute sulfuric acid and evaporate the mixture to dryness. Add an excess of copper(II) carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid, filter and evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to appear. Warm an excess of copper(II) oxide with dilute sulfuric acid and filter off the crystals formed. Add an excess of copper(II) carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid, filter off the remaining solid and dry it in an oven at 100 C. 39 / 40 Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide? It produces a gas when it is warmed with ammonium chloride. It turns universal indicator green. It has a pH less than pH 7. It turns blue litmus red. 40 / 40 Which property is shown by transition elements? white compounds low melting point low density variable oxidation state NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Solid copper(II) carbonate reacts with dilute sulfuric acid. CuCO3 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + CO2 + H2O The rate of the reaction can be changed by varying the conditions. Which changes always increase the rate of this chemical reaction? 1) increasing the concentration of sulfuric acid 2) increasing the size of the pieces of copper(II) carbonate 3) increasing the temperature 4) increasing the volume of sulfuric acid
Some statements about gas G are listed. G is monoatomic. G is found in clean, dry air. G is used in lamps. Which element is G?
What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate?
Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes. Which statements about these isomers are correct? 1 They have the same molecular formula. 2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule. 3 They have a C=C bond in the structure.
What is the concentration of the solution when 31.8 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, is dissolved in water to make a solution of 250 cm3?
Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons.
Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide.
What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid?
Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride?
Which statements about the thermal decomposition of copper(II) nitrate are correct? 1 A brown gas is given off. 2 A gas which relights a glowing splint is given off. 3 The solid residue is an acidic oxide
Which process produces methane?
Which word equation represents a reaction that occurs?
The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct?
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment?
1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
Which statement about elements in the Periodic Table is correct?
The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3.
Sulfur dioxide is tested by reacting it with acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is seen in the test?
Fuels release heat energy when they burn. Which substances are used as fuels?
Which statements about sulfur dioxide are correct? 1 Sulfur dioxide decolourises acidified potassium manganate(VII). 2 Sulfur dioxide forms when acids react with carbonates. 3 Sulfur dioxide is used as a bleach. 4 Sulfur dioxide is used to treat acidic soil.
A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X?
Some properties of element E are listed.
It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E?
Which monomer molecules are used to make poly(ethene)?
The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous hydrogen iodide is shown. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) The reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic?
Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace?
Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?
Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct? 1) They contain both single and double bonds. 2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown. 3) They can be manufactured by cracking.
In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments?
Which statement explains why metals are malleable?
Chromium is a more reactive metal than iron but less reactive than zinc. Which statements are correct? 1 Chromium does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid. 2 Chromium oxide is reduced when it is heated with carbon. 3 Chromium reacts with zinc oxide to form zinc. 4 Chromium reacts with steam to form hydrogen gas.
Magnesium reacts with copper(II) oxide to give magnesium oxide and copper. Which substance is the oxidising agent in this reaction?
Bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
Some uses of water are listed. 1 as a solvent 2 as a coolant in the chemical industry 3 to irrigate crops 4 to provide safe drinking water During a drought, which uses are important to sustain the population of a country?
Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture?
Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium from bauxite?
Which method produces a pure sample of copper(II) sulfate crystals?
Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide?
Which property is shown by transition elements?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation? The level of imports increases. Governments raise interest rates. The real value of money falls. Consumers delay spending. 2 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? a fall in the real value of debts an increase in the real purchasing power of money an increase in the exchange rate an increase in the rate of interest 3 / 30 What is an advantage of competitive markets? The right quantity of merit goods is guaranteed. The economic problem of scarcity is eliminated. Competition encourages the efficient use of resources. Competition causes inequalities of wealth. 4 / 30 Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics? the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity demanded by a consumer the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate the relationship between the output of a firm and its costs of production the relationship between the wage rate of workers and demand for labour in an occupation 5 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? the money supply the budget deficit bank lending interest rates 6 / 30 What is identified as economic growth? a fall in labour productivity an increase in the Consumer Prices Index (CPI) the economy enters a period of recession an increase in the productive capacity of the economy 7 / 30 The producers of services have introduced better technology. The workers in the production of goods have become less efficient. Resources have moved from the production of services to the production of goods. The number of workers unemployed in manufacturing has fallen. 8 / 30 A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers? capital and enterprise land and capital enterprise and labour labour and land 9 / 30 What is an example of a fiscal policy measure? reducing the rate of corporation tax increasing the exchange rate setting a lower interest rate reducing the power of trade unions 10 / 30 Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run? removal of all restrictions on imports into the country grants to firms to research new technology a programme of privatisation a reduction in the standard rate of income tax 11 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the rate of inflation the reliability of banks the level of taxation the income of the family 12 / 30 C D B A 13 / 30 What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments? a fall in the value of imported manufactured goods into the country a fall in foreign direct investment into the country a fall in interest earned on overseas investment by the country a rise in the revenue earned from tourism in the country 14 / 30 D B C A 15 / 30 Which business organisation is most likely to have unlimited liability? public limited company multinational co-operative sole trader 16 / 30 A B C D 17 / 30 Which problem will be reduced by a government subsidy to a firm? abuse of monopoly power absence of a public good overconsumption of a demerit good underconsumption of a merit good 18 / 30 What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy? a fall in import prices a rise in the level of unemployment a rise in the level of government spending a fall in wage rates 19 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting primary commodities developing, exporting services developed, exporting manufactured goods developed, exporting services 20 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? The rate of price increases is falling. Prices are falling. There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. The real rate of interest is negative. 21 / 30 A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices? competition from public road transport high costs of maintaining rail tracks barriers to entry into rail services government policy encouraging monopoly power 22 / 30 The demand schedule will shift to the left. The market will move from shortage to surplus. The market will move from surplus to shortage. The supply schedule will shift to the right. 23 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? profit maximisation social welfare growth efficiency 24 / 30 A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit? increased numbers of visitors from abroad increased exports of its services increased spending on its military bases abroad increased international competitiveness of its goods 25 / 30 Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation. Why might this policy be effective? Consumers may save more Government spending may increase The exchange rate may fall. Investment may be encouraged. 26 / 30 What is an advantage of a market economy? Producers and consumers have the same aims. The government has no need to intervene in markets. Equilibrium market price clears the market. The lowest price possible is always charged. 27 / 30 A country imposes tariffs and quotas on imported goods. What will citizens of that country experience? wider consumer choice higher unemployment higher prices higher welfare 28 / 30 C A B D 29 / 30 Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection? discouraging economies of scale that lead to lower costs reducing the range of products supplied to the market reducing shop opening hours preventing mergers which result in high monopoly prices 30 / 30 What describes frictional unemployment? unemployment caused by the time of year unemployment caused by workers searching for jobs unemployment caused by a general fall in economic activity unemployment caused by wages being too high NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation?
2 / 30
What will deflation most likely lead to?
3 / 30
What is an advantage of competitive markets?
4 / 30
Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics?
5 / 30
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
6 / 30
What is identified as economic growth?
7 / 30
8 / 30
A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?
9 / 30
What is an example of a fiscal policy measure?
10 / 30
Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run?
11 / 30
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
12 / 30
13 / 30
What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments?
14 / 30
15 / 30
Which business organisation is most likely to have unlimited liability?
16 / 30
17 / 30
Which problem will be reduced by a government subsidy to a firm?
18 / 30
What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy?
19 / 30
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
20 / 30
A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information?
21 / 30
A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices?
22 / 30
23 / 30
A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?
24 / 30
A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit?
25 / 30
Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation. Why might this policy be effective?
26 / 30
What is an advantage of a market economy?
27 / 30
A country imposes tariffs and quotas on imported goods. What will citizens of that country experience?
28 / 30
29 / 30
Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection?
30 / 30
What describes frictional unemployment?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate? It produces a good that has close substitutes. It can quickly respond to changes in price. It keeps very low volumes of product in stock. It can increase revenue by reducing the price. 2 / 30 Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information? their type of economic system their level of development their stages of production their distribution of income and wealth 3 / 30 What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker? a low price of the product that they make the opportunity to undertake training higher quality of the good boredom due to repetition of the same task 4 / 30 Which government action will not add directly to the quantity or quality of human resources? improvement in health facilities reclamation of land from the sea provision of better food and nutrition investment in education and training 5 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? interest rates the money supply the budget deficit bank lending 6 / 30 A D B C 7 / 30 Supply is perfectly elastic. Price elasticity of supply is 2.5 Price elasticity of supply is 0.4. There is unit elasticity. 8 / 30 C D A B 9 / 30 What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker? Earnings are related to the level of skill. Labour supply is elastic and plentiful. It may be difficult to find work locally. Career opportunities are abundant. 10 / 30 A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this? It changes the distribution of income. It leads to more people paying income taxes. It reduces the level of unemployment. It ensures the equality of incomes. 11 / 30 Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession? a reduction in interest rates and a reduction in income tax an increase in interest rates and a reduction in income tax an increase in interest rates and an increase in income tax a reduction in interest rates and an increase in income tax 12 / 30 C B D A 13 / 30 What is the most likely disadvantage of international specialisation? increased productivity levels overdependence on other economies decreased levels of global output increased average production costs 14 / 30 What might cause consumers in a high-income economy to both save more and spend more? expectation that prices will fall in the future inflation rising at a faster rate than wages an increase in the rate of interest an increase in wealth 15 / 30 2012–2013 2015–2016 2014–2015 2013–2014 16 / 30 A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do? lower interest rates discourage bank lending lower income tax thresholds give subsidies to firms 17 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the reliability of banks the rate of inflation the level of taxation the income of the family 18 / 30 What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation? shares cash gold property 19 / 30 During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job? Their wages are lower than those of adults They prefer leisure activities to long working hours. The incentive to earn an income is lower for that age group. They lack both work experience and the necessary skills. 20 / 30 PQ QS PS QR 21 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US balance of trade will worsen. The US balance of trade will worsen. The good will become cheaper in the US. There will be less of the good imported into the US. 22 / 30 Which government policy would reduce economic growth? increasing expenditure on education cutting the rate of corporation tax raising interest rates lowering the rate of income tax 23 / 30 A private sector firm is given a contract by the government to supply a country’s water. Which government directive will minimise the risk of market failure? insist that the firm aims to maximise profits allow the firm to ration water rather than meet demand ensure the firm’s supply includes all areas which are expensive to service instruct the firm to provide water only to those who can pay for it 24 / 30 Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers? High-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax. Low-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax High-income purchasers pay a higher percentage of their income in tax Low-income purchasers and high-income purchasers pay the same percentage of their income in tax. 25 / 30 What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40? rising house prices an ageing population a more mobile labour force higher government tax revenue 26 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The good will become cheaper in the US. The US government’s revenue will decline. The US balance of trade will worsen. There will be less of the good imported into the US. 27 / 30 A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices? government policy encouraging monopoly power high costs of maintaining rail tracks competition from public road transport barriers to entry into rail services 28 / 30 B C D A 29 / 30 Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases? average variable cost average total cost average fixed cost total variable cost 30 / 30 Which type of business organisation is necessarily in the public sector of the economy? public corporation sole trader public limited company multinational company NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate?
Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information?
What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker?
Which government action will not add directly to the quantity or quality of human resources?
What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker?
A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this?
Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession?
What is the most likely disadvantage of international specialisation?
What might cause consumers in a high-income economy to both save more and spend more?
A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do?
What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation?
During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job?
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
Which government policy would reduce economic growth?
A private sector firm is given a contract by the government to supply a country’s water. Which government directive will minimise the risk of market failure?
Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers?
What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40?
Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases?
Which type of business organisation is necessarily in the public sector of the economy?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 R and S only P, Q, R, S, T and U Q, R, S and T only P and U only 2 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 1 only 3 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? radio waves infrared waves visible light ultraviolet waves 4 / 40 B C D A 5 / 40 Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable? waves hydroelectric wind nuclear fission 6 / 40 A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m. What is the average braking force acting on the car? 0.15 N 56 000N 6800 N 6.8 N 7 / 40 A C B D 8 / 40 A B C D 9 / 40 A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery? 216 kJ 680A 12V 30 kg 10 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 18 000 m 300 m 5.0 m 0.20 m 11 / 40 A C D B 12 / 40 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1 angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 13 / 40 Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank? 400 N/ m2 4000 N/ m2 2.5 × 10-3N/ m2 2.5 × 10-4N/ m2 14 / 40 B C A D 15 / 40 D C A B 16 / 40 The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current? Q and R R only P only P and Q 17 / 40 A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3. When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g. What is the density of the liquid? 15 g / cm3 13 g / cm3 2.0 g / cm3 0.50 g / cm3 18 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from chemical to kinetic from kinetic to thermal from chemical to therma 19 / 40 80 cm3 40 cm3 20 cm3 10 cm3 20 / 40 It stays on zero. It quickly increases and then decreases. It quickly increases and stays at maximum. It keeps increasing. 21 / 40 B C A D 22 / 40 A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations? gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only internal energy and elastic energy 23 / 40 The image is bigger than the object The image is inverted. The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens The image is closer to the lens than the object. 24 / 40 D B A C 25 / 40 D C B A 26 / 40 A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail? 350 mm2 11 mm2 0.56 mm2 39 mm2 27 / 40 kinetic → gravitational potential → chemical kinetic → gravitational potential → elastic (strain) gravitational potential → kinetic → chemical gravitational potential → kinetic → elastic (strain) 28 / 40 B C D A 29 / 40 What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit? The current taken from the supply is less. The lamps use less power. A smaller fuse is needed to protect the lamps. If the filament of one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit. 30 / 40 B D A C 31 / 40 A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block? 12 000 000J 46 000J 46 J 12 000J 32 / 40 Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 only 3 only 33 / 40 face Z face X face Y The pressure is the same for all the faces. 34 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 2.0N 4.0N 7.0N 6.0N 35 / 40 83 km / h 70 km / h 67 km / h 50 km / h 36 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The amplitude of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The colour of the light changes. 37 / 40 C D A B 38 / 40 A C D B 39 / 40 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person? 60 m 20 000 m 0.02 m 7 000 000m 40 / 40 C A D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable?
A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m. What is the average braking force acting on the car?
A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?
The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current?
A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3. When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g. What is the density of the liquid?
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?
A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail?
What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit?
A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block?
Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct?
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 B D A C 2 / 40 On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration. Which statement explains this? The Moon has a smaller gravitational field strength than the Earth On the Moon, all objects have the same weight The weight of an object is directly proportional to its mass. The weight of an object is inversely proportional to its mass. 3 / 40 C B A D 4 / 40 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations? nuclear energy hydroelectric energy energy from tides energy from waves 5 / 40 A D B C 6 / 40 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens? P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q. P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air. 7 / 40 90 s 200 s 400 s 120 s 8 / 40 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1 angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2 9 / 40 C D A B 10 / 40 A C D B 11 / 40 10 cm3 80 cm3 20 cm3 40 cm3 12 / 40 Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90C. Both containers are the same size and both are sealed. The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q. Which statement is correct? P has a shinier surface than Q. P contains more water than Q. P is painted a darker colour than Q. P is surrounded by a vacuum and Q is surrounded by air. 13 / 40 D A C B 14 / 40 The image is inverted. The image is bigger than the object The image is closer to the lens than the object. The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens 15 / 40 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 16 / 40 A C D B 17 / 40 D A B C 18 / 40 C B D A 19 / 40 A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit? decreasing the thickness of the wire increasing the length of the wire connecting a second identical length of wire in series with the original wire connecting a second identical length of wire in parallel with the original wire 20 / 40 A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described? a gas being heated a liquid being heated a gas cooling a solid cooling 21 / 40 B C A D 22 / 40 D C A B 23 / 40 A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased? amplitude wavelength frequency speed 24 / 40 C A D B 25 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 4000W 40W 400W 40 000W 26 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. 27 / 40 An object emits infrared radiation. Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the object? the density and the surface area of the object the mass and the surface area of the object the density and the surface temperature of the object the surface area and the surface temperature of the object 28 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.19 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.0 m / s 0.31 m / s 29 / 40 C D B A 30 / 40 A B D C 31 / 40 750 J 300 J 1200 J 30 J 32 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 2.0N 6.0N 7.0N 4.0N 33 / 40 One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod? Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end. Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end. 34 / 40 D C A B 35 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of protons only. They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of neutrons only. 36 / 40 1 N to the right 1 N to the left 7 N to the left 7 N to the right 37 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor? E = IR E = IRt E = IV E = IVt 38 / 40 A C D B 39 / 40 0.88 s 18.4 s 17.6 s 0.92 s 40 / 40 D C A B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration. Which statement explains this?
Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?
Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?
Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90C. Both containers are the same size and both are sealed. The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q. Which statement is correct?
A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct?
A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?
A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described?
A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased?
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
An object emits infrared radiation. Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the object?
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Dilute sulfuric acid breaks down when electricity is passed through it. What is the name of this process? cracking electrolysis distillation crystallisation 2 / 40 C D B A 3 / 40 What happens at the anode during the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide? Aluminium ions lose electrons to form aluminium atoms Oxide ions gain electrons to form oxygen molecules. Aluminium ions gain electrons to form aluminium atoms. Oxide ions lose electrons to form oxygen molecules. 4 / 40 D A C B 5 / 40 D A C B 6 / 40 A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell? 16.0 mm 0.4 mm 4.0 mm 1.6 mm 7 / 40 4.0Ω 0.25Ω 0.33Ω 3.0Ω 8 / 40 dove fox cat wheat 9 / 40 Which statements describe an endothermic reaction? 1 Energy is given out. 2 Energy is taken in. 3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases. 4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases. 1 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 10 / 40 B A C D 11 / 40 locust fox eagle small bird 12 / 40 Which substance does not react with chlorine? NaBr H2 Kr Li 13 / 40 Methane, ethane and propane are all alkanes. Their formulae are shown. methane, CH4 ethane, C2H6 propane, C3H8 Which statement is not correct? All three compounds are hydrocarbons. Methane is the main constituent of natural gas All three compounds burn. Propane burns completely to form carbon dioxide and hydrogen. 14 / 40 A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed? clock ruler thermometer balance 15 / 40 D A B C 16 / 40 Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is correct? Lead ions gain electrons at the anode. Bromide ions gain electrons at the anode Lead ions lose electrons at the anode. Bromide ions lose electrons at the anode. 17 / 40 0.27A 0.24A 0.36A 0.22A 18 / 40 A D C B 19 / 40 D A B C 20 / 40 Which process takes carbon dioxide out of the air? plant respiration decomposition combustion photosynthesis 21 / 40 Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them? decomposers herbivores producers carnivores 22 / 40 C B A D 23 / 40 D C A B 24 / 40 C A D B 25 / 40 Which compound contains covalent bonds? HCl KCl NaCl CaCl2 26 / 40 A C B D 27 / 40 Which large molecules are made from smaller molecules of glucose? amino acids and fatty acids glycogen and glycerol starch and glycogen glycerol and fatty acids 28 / 40 Where does sound travel at the greatest speed? in a liquid in a gas in a solid in a vacuum 29 / 40 Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z? a compound an element a mixture a noble gas 30 / 40 Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources? oil, geothermal, solar geothermal, solar, wind nuclear, solar, wind geothermal, nuclear, solar 31 / 40 A C D B 32 / 40 0.33 Hz 20Hz 3.0 Hz 0.050 Hz 33 / 40 Which statement about forces is always correct? Friction on an object sliding along rough ground acts in the opposite direction to its motion. No forces act on any object that is at rest. Air resistance acting on an object falling in still air causes its speed to increase. A resultant force is needed to keep an object moving at constant speed in a straight line. 34 / 40 A D C B 35 / 40 What is a characteristic of all living organisms? eating egestion movement breathing 36 / 40 B C A D 37 / 40 In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed? adding hydrochloric acid to calcium carbonate burning coal in air burning methane in air adding hydrochloric acid to calcium 38 / 40 D A C B 39 / 40 ingestion and absorption absorption and digestion digestion and egestion egestion and ingestion 40 / 40 What is the function of valves in the circulatory system? to act as a pump to provide a large surface area to ensure blood only flows one way to stop blood vessels bursting NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Dilute sulfuric acid breaks down when electricity is passed through it. What is the name of this process?
What happens at the anode during the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide?
A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell?
Which statements describe an endothermic reaction? 1 Energy is given out. 2 Energy is taken in. 3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases. 4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases.
Which substance does not react with chlorine?
Methane, ethane and propane are all alkanes. Their formulae are shown. methane, CH4 ethane, C2H6 propane, C3H8 Which statement is not correct?
A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed?
Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is correct?
Which process takes carbon dioxide out of the air?
Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them?
Which compound contains covalent bonds?
Which large molecules are made from smaller molecules of glucose?
Where does sound travel at the greatest speed?
Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z?
Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources?
Which statement about forces is always correct?
What is a characteristic of all living organisms?
In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed?
What is the function of valves in the circulatory system?
