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Accounting (9-1) (0985)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (9-1) (0985)

35 Different Questions Every time

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6 / 35

A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60.
During the year ended 31 August 2021:
12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year
10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year.
On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from
8 members.
What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021?

7 / 35

Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of
$38 750.
On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated
as a revenue receipt.
In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for
the year ended 31 March 2022.
What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?

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Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?

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What is recorded in the sales journal?

10 / 35

The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares.
On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000.
For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000.
An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the
year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000.
What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?

11 / 35

On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly
recorded as office expenses, $90.
Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase.
What was the effect on the profit for the year?

12 / 35

What are advantages of operating as a sole trader?
1 The owner can keep all the profit.
2 The owner can raise finance by issuing debentures.
3 The owner can make decisions independently.
4 The owner is protected by limited liability.

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What is recorded in a petty cash book?

15 / 35

Which is an application of the materiality principle?

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What are advantages of keeping a full set of accounting records?
1 Financial statements will be free from errors.
2 It is impossible to make fraudulent entries.
3 More informed decision-making is possible.
4 The calculation of profit is more accurate.

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18 / 35

What is the accounting equation?

19 / 35

What is prepared by a book-keeper?

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21 / 35

Shula’s financial year ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021 there was a credit balance of $100 on
Yasmin’s account in Shula’s purchases ledger.
What does this mean?

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23 / 35

What is shown in the capital and liabilities section of a statement of financial position of a
business?

24 / 35

John maintains a full set of accounting records.
Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?

25 / 35

Kamika’s financial statements did not comply with the accounting principle of money
measurement.
What had Kamika done?

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29 / 35

What is a cheque counterfoil used for?

30 / 35

Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the
person who maintains the sales ledger?

31 / 35

What is not a limitation of inter-firm comparison?

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34 / 35

A limited company raised funds from an issue of debentures.
Which statement is correct?

35 / 35

Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients.
How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year?

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Accounting (0452)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (0452)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

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4 / 35

Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and
1 November.
An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid.
Which accounting principle was applied?

5 / 35

Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action
where necessary?

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7 / 35

AB Stores had the following transactions.
1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital.
2 $2000 was paid to trade payables.
3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid.
By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions?

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Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?

11 / 35

Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month.
Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this?

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13 / 35

Rashida sells goods on credit and allows her customers a trade discount.
Which statements are correct?
1 A debit entry is made in the customer’s account in the sales ledger for the net value
of the goods sold.
2 The date of sale, name of the customer, cost price and trade discount are entered in
the sales journal.
3 The trade discount is debited to the customer’s account and credited to the discount
allowed account.

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Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement?
1 furniture store
2 insurance company
3 newsagent
4 toy shop
5 window-cleaner

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Which item is an asset?

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Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year?
1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account
2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers
3 drawings made by the owner during the year
4 wages paid to employees during the year

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23 / 35

Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time.
How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position?

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25 / 35

Jameel’s financial year ends on 31 December. On 1 January 2021 he brought down a debit
balance on his stationery account.
What does this balance represent?

26 / 35

The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column.
One account balance had been entered in the wrong column.
Which one was it?

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Which statements about book-keeping and accounting are correct?

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Which statement is not true about a trial balance?

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Which are examples of book-keeping?

1 entering details of a cheque received from a customer in a cash book
2 entering details of goods purchased on credit in a purchases journal
3 producing an income statement to calculate the profit for the year
4 recording details of credit sales in the account of a credit customer

35 / 35

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Biology (0610)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (0610)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

3 / 40

What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells?

4 / 40

Some reptiles can lose and regrow their tails to avoid predation.
Which process occurs to regrow the tail?

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What is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles?

6 / 40

The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species.
What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are?

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9 / 40

Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed.
1 calcium
2 fat
3 fibre
4 vitamin D
Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones?

10 / 40

What is a chemical barrier to pathogens?

11 / 40

Large areas of forest are cut down in order to clear the land for other uses.
If the land is not replanted with trees or crops, what effect does this have on the atmosphere?

12 / 40

What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction when a new crop disease appears on a farm?

13 / 40

The following are statements about immunity.
1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity.
2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells.
3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens.
Which statements are correct?

14 / 40

In which part of the alimentary canal does ingestion take place?

15 / 40

Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins.
Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins?

16 / 40

A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus.
What do the two parts of this name refer to?

17 / 40

What ensures that blood flows in one direction in the human circulatory system?

18 / 40

What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc?

19 / 40

A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds.
Which group of organisms is an example of a population?

20 / 40

Which is the correct definition of a drug?

21 / 40

Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?

22 / 40

The heart, arteries, veins and capillaries work together.
Which level of organisation is shown by these structures working together?

23 / 40

A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak
that was adapted to extract small insects from the water.
Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak?

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The amount of urea in the blood increases as it passes through organ X.
What is organ X?

26 / 40

When damaged tissues are repaired cells undergo division by

27 / 40

What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant
body temperature?

28 / 40

In a length of DNA, 20% of the bases were T.
What is the percentage of base G in this length of DNA?

29 / 40

What happens during respiration in germinating seeds?

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Which process is carried out by all organisms

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35 / 40

Three statements about immune responses are listed.
1) Antigens trigger an immune response which produces antibodies.
2) Memory cells are produced.
3) Antibodies are acquired from another individual.
Which statements are correct when describing active immunity?

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37 / 40

What is the principal source of energy input into food chains?

38 / 40

What is a function of phloem?

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40 / 40

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Biology (9-1) (0970)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (9-1) (0970)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects
touching his hand.
What could cause this?

2 / 40

What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein?

3 / 40

Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas?

4 / 40

Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?

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6 / 40

An area of forest was destroyed by a forest fire. Eventually the forest regrew.
What is likely to happen to the amount of soil erosion and flooding when the forest has regrown?

7 / 40

By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation?

8 / 40

Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air.
Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?

9 / 40

In a length of DNA, 20% of the bases were T.
What is the percentage of base G in this length of DNA?

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11 / 40

What is a use of pectinase in the food industry?

12 / 40

One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are
listed.
1) inhibit FSH production
2) inhibit LH production
3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall
Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell?

13 / 40

An advisor was presented with a list of statements for a discussion group with potential parents
who were considering using in vitro fertilisation (IVF) to start a family.
Which statements about IVF are correct?

1 IVF is available to everyone.
2 IVF is 100% successful and therefore always leads to pregnancy.
3 IVF provides an opportunity for single parents to have a family.
4 IVF is not expensive and everyone can afford it.
5 Sperm or egg donation may be involved which means the couple are not always the
biological parents.

14 / 40

What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome?

15 / 40

Some statements about bacteria are listed.
1) They contain plasmids.
2) They can make complex molecules.
3) They have a rapid reproduction rate.
4) They contain many chromosomes.
5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms.
Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?

16 / 40

Some human phenotypes are listed.
1 body mass
2 foot size
3 height
4 sex
Which features are examples of continuous variation?

17 / 40

Which adaptation may be present in a xerophyte?

18 / 40

Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?

19 / 40

Why are people advised not to drive a car after drinking an excessive quantity of alcohol?

20 / 40

Which organ excretes urea?

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Which human characteristic is an example of discontinuous variation?

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23 / 40

What determines the sex of a baby?

24 / 40

Examples of responses to hormones are listed.
1 increased breathing rate
2 increased pulse rate
3 growth of body hair
4 widened pupils
Which responses are caused by the hormone adrenaline?

25 / 40

Why are bacteria useful in genetic engineering?

26 / 40

Some terms used to describe enzyme-controlled reactions are listed.
1 catalyst
2 product
3 protein
4 substrate
Which terms describe an enzyme?

27 / 40

Alcohol is a drug.
Which statement is correct?

28 / 40

Some fruit flies have orange eyes and others have red eyes.
If two orange-eyed fruit flies are crossed, their offspring always have orange eyes.
If two red-eyed fruit flies are crossed, their offspring can have orange eyes or red eyes.
What can be concluded from these observations?

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What are the products when proteins are broken down?

30 / 40

By which process do oxygen and carbon dioxide move between cells and capillaries?

31 / 40

What is the correct order of arthropod groups, from those with the most legs to those with the
fewest legs?

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The statements refer to reproduction.
1 A zygote is formed.
2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent.
3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together.
Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?

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A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds.
Which group of organisms is an example of a population?

35 / 40

Three statements about immune responses are listed.
1) Antigens trigger an immune response which produces antibodies.
2) Memory cells are produced.
3) Antibodies are acquired from another individual.
Which statements are correct when describing active immunity?

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37 / 40

Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous
individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial.
What could be the reason for this?

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39 / 40

What would be the effect of cutting down forests, on the carbon dioxide concentration in the
atmosphere?

40 / 40

What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans?

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Which statement about polymerisation is correct?

2 / 40

3 / 40

Which process is used to produce drinking water from sea water?

4 / 40

X and Y are two different elements.
X and Y have the same number of nucleons.
Which statement about X and Y is correct?

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6 / 40

When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid
remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns.
Which process describes these changes?

7 / 40

Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change.
Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the
dissolving of ammonium chloride?

8 / 40

Which list contains only chemical changes?

9 / 40

Which statement about ethane is correct?

10 / 40

A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown.
2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O
What is the value of z?

11 / 40

River water contains soluble impurities, insoluble impurities and bacteria.
River water is made safe to drink by filtration and chlorination.
Which statement is correct?

12 / 40

What is added to molten iron to make steel?

13 / 40

Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation?

14 / 40

The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown.
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Write the symbol of an element which:  forms a binary compound with hydrogen that is a strong acid.

15 / 40

When magnesium is heated with zinc oxide a reaction occurs.
The equation is shown.
Mg + ZnO → MgO + Zn
Which substance is oxidised?

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17 / 40

Four students collect the gas produced from the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute
hydrochloric acid. Each student records the time taken to collect a volume of gas.

Which results show the highest average rate of reaction?

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Some properties of an organic compound J are listed.
● It is a liquid at room temperature.
● It is soluble in water.
● A solution of J reacts with calcium carbonate to form carbon dioxide.
● A solution of J has a pH of 3.
In which homologous series does J belong?

19 / 40

Which statement about the structure of a metal explains why metals are malleable?

20 / 40

Give the name of the process that is used: to produce bromine from molten lead(II) bromide

21 / 40

Which polymers have the same linkage between monomer units?

22 / 40

A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid.
Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment?
1 stop-clock
2 measuring cylinder
3 thermometer
4 balance

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24 / 40

State the full name of this compound of copper

25 / 40

Silver chloride, AgCl, is insoluble. It can be made by a precipitation reaction between aqueous
barium chloride and a suitable aqueous silver salt.
(i) What is meant by the term precipitate?

26 / 40

Which element forms ions with a charge of 2+ containing 10 electrons

27 / 40

What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?

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29 / 40

Which reaction is reversible?

30 / 40

Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid.
Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction
mixture?
1) crystallisation
2) filtration
3) chromatography
4) distillation

31 / 40

State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime

32 / 40

Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite.
Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made?

33 / 40

A list of symbols and formulae is shown.
Al3+
CH4
CO2
Fe3+
N2
NO2
O2
O2-
Zn2+
Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae.
Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide

34 / 40

Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

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36 / 40

Which statement about an alloy is correct?

37 / 40

State the electronic structure of the following atom and ion
Al

38 / 40

Which statement about metals is correct?

39 / 40

40 / 40

Which equation for the decomposition of calcium nitrate is correct?

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Chemistry (0620)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Chemistry (0620)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas.
The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly.
What is Z?

2 / 40

Which statement explains why metals are malleable?

3 / 40

Which oxide neutralises aqueous sodium hydroxide?

4 / 40

Which property is shown by aqueous ethanoic acid?

5 / 40

Which reaction in the Contact process requires the use of a catalyst?

6 / 40

Which statement about aqueous ethanoic acid is correct?

7 / 40

Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?

8 / 40

Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol.
What is X?

9 / 40

Which type of compound is made when a protein is hydrolysed?

10 / 40

Which statement about polymers is correct?

11 / 40

An example of a redox reaction is shown.
Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu
Which statement about the reaction is correct?

12 / 40

Chromium is a more reactive metal than iron but less reactive than zinc.
Which statements are correct?
1 Chromium does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.
2 Chromium oxide is reduced when it is heated with carbon.
3 Chromium reacts with zinc oxide to form zinc.
4 Chromium reacts with steam to form hydrogen gas.

13 / 40

Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?

14 / 40

Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?

15 / 40

Three substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes.
Which substances produce hydrogen at the negative electrode?
1 concentrated hydrochloric acid
2 concentrated aqueous sodium chloride
3 dilute sulfuric acid

16 / 40

Some properties of metal J are listed.
● J does not react with cold water.
● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon.
What is J?

17 / 40

Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere?

18 / 40

How much hydrogen is needed to react completely with 0.02 moles of butene to make butane?

19 / 40

Which substance is used to reduce zinc oxide in the manufacture of zinc?

20 / 40

Magnesium is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
25 cm3 of gas is given off in the first 30 s of the reaction.
The experiment is repeated at a lower temperature. All other reaction conditions are the same.
Which volume of gas is produced in the first 30 s of this reaction?

21 / 40

Which statements explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of
reaction?
1 It increases the collision rate of particles.
2 It lowers the activation energy.
3 A greater proportion of the colliding molecules have the required activation energy.
4 There are more particles per unit volume.

22 / 40

Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium from bauxite?

23 / 40

Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth.
Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?

24 / 40

Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct?
1) They contain both single and double bonds.
2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown.
3) They can be manufactured by cracking.

25 / 40

Two isotopes of carbon are 12C and 14C.
Which statement about these two isotopes is correct?

26 / 40

The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon monoxide is shown.
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
What is the maximum mass of iron that can be made from 480 g of iron(III) oxide?

27 / 40

Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct?

28 / 40

Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?

29 / 40

Aqueous solutions of sodium sulfate and barium chloride are mixed.
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
Which process is used to separate a sample of barium sulfate from the reaction mixture?

30 / 40

The equation for a reaction occurring in the Contact process is shown.
2SO2 + O2 →2SO3
What is the catalyst used in this reaction?

31 / 40

Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly.
Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only.
The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner.
What is metal Q?

32 / 40

When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of a metal ion, a grey-green precipitate
forms, which dissolves in excess to form a dark green solution.
What is the identity of the metal ion?

33 / 40

Which substances are needed for iron to rust?

34 / 40

Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid?

35 / 40

Which pair of formulae represents two alkanes?

36 / 40

Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis.
Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis?

37 / 40

Pure iron is a soft metal.
When mixed with small amounts of tungsten it produces a hard alloy called tungsten steel.
Which statements are correct?
1 Pure iron is a transition element.
2 The particles in pure iron are arranged in ordered layers.
3 Tungsten steel is a compound.

38 / 40

Which processes produce carbon dioxide?
1 respiration
2 photosynthesis
3 fermentation
4 combustion of hydrogen

39 / 40

Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.
carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead
What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

40 / 40

A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144.
What is element X?

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Economics (9-1) (0987)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (9-1) (0987)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

A government uses different supply-side policy measures to improve economic performance.
Which policy measure would not satisfy one of the government’s macroeconomic aims?

2 / 30

A Swedish furniture maker bought a Romanian firm that owned 83 000 hectares of trees.
Which type of merger is this most likely to be?

3 / 30

Carlos has been offered a new job with a large multinational company. He is undecided whether
to accept the position.
What is a non-wage factor he might consider?

4 / 30

An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency.
Why would such a policy have been necessary?

5 / 30

During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment
rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group.
Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job?

6 / 30

What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country?

7 / 30

Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation.
Why might this policy be effective?

8 / 30

What is included in microeconomics?

9 / 30

10 / 30

11 / 30

12 / 30

What is the definition of foreign exchange rate?

13 / 30

14 / 30

What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?

15 / 30

What is the definition of diseconomies of scale?

16 / 30

What would an economist regard as an example of the factor of production capital?

17 / 30

The standard rate for Value Added Tax (sales tax) is 20% in a country. Different consumers
buying the same product have to pay the same amount of tax.
What kind of tax is this?

18 / 30

19 / 30

What is a fiscal policy measure?

20 / 30

What describes frictional unemployment?

21 / 30

One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce
inequality.
Which policy will achieve this aim?

22 / 30

China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa.
Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly
but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line.
Who bears the external costs of this operation?

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25 / 30

What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation?

26 / 30

27 / 30

28 / 30

What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force?

29 / 30

A private sector firm is given a contract by the government to supply a country’s water.
Which government directive will minimise the risk of market failure?

30 / 30

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Economics (0455)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (0455)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation?

2 / 30

3 / 30

What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40?

4 / 30

What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive
production?

5 / 30

The government has an important role in mixed economies.
Which function would it not perform?

6 / 30

A Swedish furniture maker bought a Romanian firm that owned 83 000 hectares of trees.
Which type of merger is this most likely to be?

7 / 30

What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy?

8 / 30

What suggests that there is market failure?

9 / 30

An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency.
Why would such a policy have been necessary?

10 / 30

What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?

11 / 30

12 / 30

In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased.
What could have happened to other factors to cause this?

13 / 30

Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation.
Why might this policy be effective?

14 / 30

15 / 30

A government uses different supply-side policy measures to improve economic performance.
Which policy measure would not satisfy one of the government’s macroeconomic aims?

16 / 30

In farming, what is an example of what economists call capital?

17 / 30

Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment?

18 / 30

The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China.
What is likely to happen?

19 / 30

Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US
government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is
essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative
use of a valuable good.
Which two concepts apply to this statement?

20 / 30

Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses?

21 / 30

A student has nothing to do on a Friday evening. She withdraws $5 from the $100 she has in a
savings account and buys a present to take to a party, to which admission is free.
What does this involve?

22 / 30

What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production?

23 / 30

A farmer reduces the land used to grow wheat from 80 hectares to 60 hectares and increases the
use of the land for growing potatoes from 80 to 100 hectares.

What is the opportunity cost of this change?

24 / 30

A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce
electric power.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?

25 / 30

What is meant by equilibrium in a market?

26 / 30

Which pair of economic institutions can be found in a market economy?

27 / 30

A bank continues to operate loss-making branches.
Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?

28 / 30

To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration
of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause.
Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem?

29 / 30

What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force?

30 / 30

In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers.
What might explain this situation?

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Physics (9-1) (0972)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (9-1) (0972)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it.
As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?

2 / 40

A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2
at the tip of
the nail.
What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail?

3 / 40

4 / 40

5 / 40

6 / 40

7 / 40

One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.
Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

8 / 40

The mass of an empty flask is 34 g.
The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3.
The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g.
What is the density of the liquid?

9 / 40

Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

10 / 40

What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

11 / 40

On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.
Which statement explains this?

12 / 40

13 / 40

14 / 40

Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?

15 / 40

16 / 40

17 / 40

18 / 40

Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?

19 / 40

20 / 40

21 / 40

22 / 40

23 / 40

24 / 40

Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
What is the name of this region of the spectrum?

25 / 40

26 / 40

A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit.
Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?

27 / 40

28 / 40

29 / 40

A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery.
(12V,  30 kg,  216 kJ,  680A)
One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery.
What is the e.m.f. of the battery?

30 / 40

31 / 40

32 / 40

Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)?

33 / 40

Which statement about mass is correct?

34 / 40

35 / 40

A nuclide has the symbol 146C.
Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?

36 / 40

A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F.
The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N.
The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s.
What is the value of F?

37 / 40

38 / 40

39 / 40

What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a
normal healthy person?

40 / 40

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Physics (0625)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (0625)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed.
What causes the ripples to refract?

2 / 40

A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high
speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing.
Which state of matter is being described?

3 / 40

Which quantity is equal to acceleration?

4 / 40

5 / 40

Which are examples of friction?
1 tension in a spring
2 air resistance
3 weight

6 / 40

A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.
What is the average speed of the train?

7 / 40

A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3.
When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g.
What is the density of the liquid?

8 / 40

9 / 40

A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times
per minute.
The speed of sound is 320 m / s.
What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

10 / 40

In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?

11 / 40

12 / 40

13 / 40

14 / 40

Small pollen particles are suspended in water.
When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly.
What causes this movement?

15 / 40

A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete
wavelengths pass her in 20 s.
What is the frequency of this wave?

16 / 40

17 / 40

18 / 40

19 / 40

How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of
the original nucleus?

20 / 40

Which statement about mass is correct?

21 / 40

22 / 40

An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open
and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on.
Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable
resistor?

23 / 40

In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?

24 / 40

Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west direction.
1 hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer
2 heating the magnet until red hot
3 withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it
Which methods demagnetise the magnet?

25 / 40

Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

26 / 40

27 / 40

28 / 40

29 / 40

30 / 40

31 / 40

32 / 40

A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface.
The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction
between the box and the surface.
How much work is done by the force?

33 / 40

34 / 40

Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank.
The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2.
What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?

35 / 40

Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)?

36 / 40

37 / 40

38 / 40

39 / 40

40 / 40

What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

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Science – Combined (0653)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Science – Combined (0653)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

What is a property of infra-red radiation?

2 / 40

3 / 40

Which compound contains covalent bonds?

4 / 40

5 / 40

6 / 40

7 / 40

8 / 40

9 / 40

Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45.
In which direction does the light continue?

10 / 40

11 / 40

12 / 40

Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct?

13 / 40

14 / 40

15 / 40

Which ingredient of a cake contains the most protein per gram?

16 / 40

Air is trapped in a sealed glass bottle that has a fixed volume.
The temperature of the air in the bottle decreases.
Which statement describes what happens to the air in the bottle?

17 / 40

18 / 40

19 / 40

20 / 40

Some examples of responses in the body are listed.

  1. decreased pupil diameter
  2. increased breathing rate
  3. increased pulse rate
    Which responses are caused by the secretion of adrenaline?

21 / 40

22 / 40

23 / 40

Which change shows the presence of water?

24 / 40

Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperatures.
carbon + carbon dioxide →carbon monoxide
Which statement about the reaction is correct?

25 / 40

26 / 40

27 / 40

Some statements about adrenaline are listed.

  1. It has one target organ.
  2. It is a hormone.
  3. It is produced by a gland.
  4. It is transported in the blood.

Which statements are correct?

28 / 40

29 / 40

30 / 40

During pregnancy, what protects the embryo against toxins?

31 / 40

Which material is a good conductor of heat?

32 / 40

33 / 40

34 / 40

A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the
ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2.
The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg.
How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg?

35 / 40

Some examples of how parts of a plant grow are listed.
1 grow away from gravity
2 grow away from the direction of light
3 grow towards gravity
4 grow towards the direction of light
Which growth responses are due to gravitropism?

36 / 40

Which statement about asexual reproduction is correct?

37 / 40

Which statement about hydrocarbons is correct?

38 / 40

39 / 40

40 / 40

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