IGCSE Past Papers Practice

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Biology (9-1) (0970)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (9-1) (0970)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

What occurs as a result of artificial selection?

3 / 40

With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code?

4 / 40

The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease.
Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier?

5 / 40

Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology?

6 / 40

7 / 40

According to the binomial system, how should a human be named?

8 / 40

Which type of organism causes tooth decay?

9 / 40

Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct?

10 / 40

The statements refer to reproduction.
1 A zygote is formed.
2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent.
3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together.
Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?

11 / 40

What causes the development of female secondary sexual characteristics?

12 / 40

What is an example of passive immunity?

13 / 40

A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds.
Which group of organisms is an example of a population?

14 / 40

15 / 40

Which description of assimilation is correct?

16 / 40

Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?

17 / 40

Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?

18 / 40

A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds.
Which group of organisms is an example of a population?

19 / 40

The sequence of the bases present on one strand of a DNA molecule is shown.
ATTGGACGGT
Which sequence shows the bases present on the opposite strand?

20 / 40

The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool.
seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls
What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases?
There will be

21 / 40

What is an example of sexual reproduction?

22 / 40

In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive.
A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig.
What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?

23 / 40

What is the principal source of energy input into most biological systems?

24 / 40

Meiosis is sometimes called ‘reduction division’.
What is reduced during meiosis?

25 / 40

26 / 40

Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?

27 / 40

What can be used to reduce competition between crop plants and weeds?

28 / 40

The following are statements about immunity.
1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity.
2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells.
3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens.
Which statements are correct?

29 / 40

Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules?

30 / 40

What is the balanced chemical equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?

31 / 40

What is not affected by the environment?

32 / 40

33 / 40

The scientific names of some animals are listed.
1 Arius felis
2 Felis concolor
3 Felis rufus
4 Macropus rufus
Which animals are in the same genus?

34 / 40

Which statement about antibiotic use in humans is correct?

35 / 40

Which hormone is used in contraceptive pills?

36 / 40

Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body?

37 / 40

What is a reason for conserving plant species?

38 / 40

The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood.
Which statement is correct?

39 / 40

Which organ detects the changes in the carbon dioxide concentration of the blood?

40 / 40

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Petroleum is a mixture.
Which method is used to separate petroleum?

2 / 40

Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S.
The results are shown.
1) Magnesium does not react with the solution.
2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution.
3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution.
What is S?

3 / 40

Which statements about hydrogen are correct?

1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released.
2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated.
3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.

4 / 40

The results of two tests on a solution of compound Q are shown.

Test Observation
add ammonia solution green precipitate formed
add dilute nitric acid followed
by aqueous barium nitrate		 white precipitate formed

What is Q?

5 / 40

Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?

6 / 40

Which statement describes a disadvantage of sulfur dioxide?

7 / 40

Some properties of metal J are listed.
● J does not react with cold water.
● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon.
What is J?

8 / 40

Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct?

9 / 40

Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic?
1) carbohydrates
2) nylon
3) proteins
4) Terylene

10 / 40

Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene
with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst.
What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?

11 / 40

12 / 40

State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime

13 / 40

The compound magnesium nitrate has the formula Mg(NO3)2.

What is the relative formula mass of magnesium nitrate?

14 / 40

A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).
1 manufacture of cement
2 manufacture of iron
3 treating alkaline soils
Which suggestions are correct?

15 / 40

Which substances are natural polymers?
1) proteins
2) carbohydrates
3) nylon
4) poly(ethene)

16 / 40

Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere?

17 / 40

An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca
Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium.
number of protons?

Wrong

18 / 40

The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown.
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Write the symbol of an element which: is extracted from an ore called bauxite

19 / 40

Solid copper(II) carbonate reacts with dilute sulfuric acid.
CuCO3 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + CO2 + H2O
The rate of the reaction can be changed by varying the conditions.
Which changes always increase the rate of this chemical reaction?
1) increasing the concentration of sulfuric acid
2) increasing the size of the pieces of copper(II) carbonate
3) increasing the temperature
4) increasing the volume of sulfuric acid

20 / 40

In bright sunlight, ethane and chlorine combine in substitution reactions.
Which compound is not formed in these reactions?

21 / 40

Ethanoic acid is a weak acid and hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.
Both ethanoic acid and hydrochloric acid dissociate in aqueous solution.
Define the term acid

22 / 40

One element in the first 36 elements is used as the fuel in a fuel cell.
Name this element

23 / 40

Which statement about homologous series is correct?

24 / 40

Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water?

25 / 40

Which statements about acids and bases are correct?
1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen.
2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia.
3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide.
4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange.

26 / 40

Calcium reacts with chlorine to produce calcium chloride.
What happens when a calcium ion forms during this reaction?

27 / 40

Limestone is added to the blast furnace. The limestone is converted into calcium oxide and
carbon dioxide. The reaction is endothermic.

CaCO3 →CaO + CO2

What type of chemical reaction is this?

28 / 40

A mixture of colourless compounds is separated using chromatography.
Which type of reagent is used to detect these compounds after separation?

29 / 40

The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.
Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?

30 / 40

A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown.
2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O
What is the value of z?

31 / 40

Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt.
Which method is suitable for obtaining solid lead(II) sulfate?

32 / 40

This question is about solids, liquids and gases.
(a) The list gives the names of nine substances.
aqueous copper(II) sulfate
aqueous potassium manganate(VII)
aqueous sodium chloride
dilute hydrochloric acid
ethanol
hexene
mercury
octane
water
Answer the following questions about these substances.
Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all.
State which substance:
(i) is an alkane

33 / 40

The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.
When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

34 / 40

Water can be treated by filtration then chlorination.
Which uses do not need water of this quality?
1. water for cooling in industry
2. water for washing clothes
3. water for drinking

35 / 40

36 / 40

When magnesium is heated with zinc oxide a reaction occurs.
The equation is shown.
Mg + ZnO → MgO + Zn
Which substance is oxidised?

37 / 40

Coal gas is made by heating coal in the absence of air.
The list shows the main gases present in coal gas.
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide
ethene
hydrogen
methane
nitrogen

Which one of these gases is an alkane?

38 / 40

Name the alloy formed when zinc is mixed with copper

39 / 40

This question is about iron and iron compounds.
(a) Name the main ore of iron

40 / 40

A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant.
For safety reasons, an inert gas is used.
Which gas is suitable?

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Chemistry (0620)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Chemistry (0620)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Which statements about ethanoic acid are correct?
1 Aqueous ethanoic acid reacts with magnesium to form magnesium ethanoate.
2 Carbon dioxide is formed when aqueous ethanoic acid reacts with
sodium carbonate.
3 Hydrogen is formed when aqueous ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide.
4 Ethanoic acid turns red litmus paper blue.

2 / 40

Which statements are correct?
1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers.
2) Proteins are natural polymers.
3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food.

3 / 40

Which statement about acids is correct?

4 / 40

In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride
and molten lead(II) bromide.
What would happen in both experiments?

5 / 40

Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct?

6 / 40

Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion.
Iron objects must be protected from corrosion.
Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?

7 / 40

Which property is shown by aqueous ethanoic acid?

8 / 40

Solid copper(II) carbonate reacts with dilute sulfuric acid.
CuCO3 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + CO2 + H2O
The rate of the reaction can be changed by varying the conditions.
Which changes always increase the rate of this chemical reaction?
1) increasing the concentration of sulfuric acid
2) increasing the size of the pieces of copper(II) carbonate
3) increasing the temperature
4) increasing the volume of sulfuric acid

9 / 40

Substance J takes part in a redox reaction.
In the reaction, J gains electrons.
Which statement is correct?

10 / 40

The reaction used to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is reversible.
An equilibrium is established between ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen.
Which statement describes the equilibrium?

11 / 40

Which statements about ethanol are correct?
1 Ethanol is used as a solvent.
2 Ethanol can be made directly from ethane.
3 Ethanol is a covalent compound.

12 / 40

Which statements about the general properties of metals are correct?
1 They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
2 They have low melting points.
3 They react with dilute acids to form a salt and water.
4 They react with oxygen to form basic oxides.

13 / 40

Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide

14 / 40

The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3.
What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3?

15 / 40

Which statement explains why galvanising prevents iron from rusting?

16 / 40

When the colourless gas N2O4 is heated, it forms the brown gas NO2.
When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless.
Which type of reaction is described by these observations?

17 / 40

Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound.
Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct?
1 It conducts electricity when solid.
2 It has a high melting point.
3 It is soluble in water.
4 It is highly volatile.

18 / 40

Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.
Which types of substances will react with zinc oxide?

19 / 40

Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth.
Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?

20 / 40

Which statement describes a transition element?

21 / 40

Which statements about ethene are correct?
1 It contains a C=C bond.
2 It does not decolourise bromine water.
3 Its molecules can join together to form long chain compounds.

22 / 40

Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food?

23 / 40

Some properties of element E are listed.

It has a high density.
It has a high melting point.
What is E?

24 / 40

Three statements about synthetic polymers are listed.
1 Man-made fibres are used for making clothing.
2 Plastics can cause pollution problems both on land and at sea.
3 Plastics which do not rot away are described as non-biodegradable.
Which statements are correct?

25 / 40

Which statement explains why metals conduct electricity when solid?

26 / 40

Which processes are physical changes?
1 melting ice
2 reduction of copper(II) oxide
3 burning sulfur
4 boiling ethanol

27 / 40

Three properties of element X are listed.
● It contains atoms with a full outer shell of electrons.
● It is monoatomic.
● It is unreactive.
In which part of the Periodic Table is the element placed?

28 / 40

Which temperature range is used in the production of ethanol by fermentation?

29 / 40

Copper(II) chloride crystals are made by adding solid copper(II) carbonate to dilute
hydrochloric acid until no more dissolves.
Which process is used to obtain pure copper(II) chloride crystals from the mixture?

30 / 40

Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?

31 / 40

Which statements about the products of electrolysis, using inert electrodes, are correct?
1 When molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed, bromine is formed at the cathode.
2 When dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed, oxygen is formed at the anode.
3 When concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed, sodium is formed at
the cathode.
4 When concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed, chlorine is formed at the
anode.

32 / 40

Which type of reaction occurs when calcium oxide is formed from calcium carbonate?

33 / 40

Substances change state when their temperature is changed.
Which changes of state take place when the temperature of a substance is lowered?
1 boiling
2 condensation
3 freezing
4 melting

34 / 40

Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.
carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead
What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

35 / 40

Mild steel is galvanised to prevent corrosion of the iron.
Which statements about galvanising are correct?
1 Galvanising prevents corrosion because the zinc forms an alloy.
2 If the coating is damaged, water and oxygen do not corrode the iron.
3 Zinc is a sacrificial metal and corrodes in preference to iron.

36 / 40

Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

37 / 40

Which substances are needed for iron to rust?

38 / 40

An example of a redox reaction is shown.
Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu
Which statement about the reaction is correct?

39 / 40

The equation for the reaction when hydrogen is used as a fuel is shown.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Which statement about this reaction is correct?

40 / 40

Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only.
By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen.
What is the empirical formula of X?

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Economics (9-1) (0987)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (9-1) (0987)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive
production?

2 / 30

Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US
government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is
essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative
use of a valuable good.
Which two concepts apply to this statement?

3 / 30

A country has the highest GDP per head in the world.
What is this information most likely to suggest about the country?

4 / 30

A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to
increase economic growth.
Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims?

5 / 30

Economic growth can be defined as

6 / 30

7 / 30

Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and
Russia are of state-owned enterprises.
Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information?

8 / 30

9 / 30

10 / 30

What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods
and services?

11 / 30

12 / 30

13 / 30

Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies?

14 / 30

What is included in microeconomics?

15 / 30

What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country?

16 / 30

In farming, what is an example of what economists call capital?

17 / 30

What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40?

18 / 30

19 / 30

A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth.
What is most likely to occur?

20 / 30

21 / 30

What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?

22 / 30

A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1.
Three years later it was 0.8%.
What can be concluded from this information?

23 / 30

What is the most accurate definition of a foreign exchange rate?

24 / 30

What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure?

25 / 30

Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy?

26 / 30

In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers.
What might explain this situation?

27 / 30

28 / 30

Which topic is not included in microeconomics?

29 / 30

A farmer reduces the land used to grow wheat from 80 hectares to 60 hectares and increases the
use of the land for growing potatoes from 80 to 100 hectares.

What is the opportunity cost of this change?

30 / 30

What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no
other changes in the economy?

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Economics (0455)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (0455)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

What can be found in a market economy?

2 / 30

What is the most accurate definition of a foreign exchange rate?

3 / 30

4 / 30

What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation?

5 / 30

In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels
because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government.
Which argument for protectionism was the EU using?

6 / 30

What describes frictional unemployment?

7 / 30

What is a likely cause of economic growth?

8 / 30

Why would an increase in the interest rate potentially lead to lower inflation?

9 / 30

10 / 30

What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate?

11 / 30

12 / 30

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a better measure of comparative living standards when it is
adjusted for the effects of

13 / 30

What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy?

14 / 30

A country is experiencing a period of full employment.
What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation?

15 / 30

Germany is considered a capital-intensive economy while Indonesia is considered a
labour-intensive economy.
What does this mean about the economies of Germany and Indonesia?

16 / 30

A country’s minister for agriculture said
“the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we
are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”.
Which type of country is this most likely to be?

17 / 30

In recent years, a government has started to make more use of the free market system. However,
they are doing it very slowly to avoid the disadvantages that a free market system might bring.
What is a possible disadvantage of the free market system?

18 / 30

What is an example of a non-wage factor?

19 / 30

20 / 30

What is identified as economic growth?

21 / 30

What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?

22 / 30

Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment?

23 / 30

What will deflation most likely lead to?

24 / 30

What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?

25 / 30

A government uses different supply-side policy measures to improve economic performance.
Which policy measure would not satisfy one of the government’s macroeconomic aims?

26 / 30

China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa.
Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly
but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line.
Who bears the external costs of this operation?

27 / 30

The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China.
What is likely to happen?

28 / 30

What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy?

29 / 30

What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation?

30 / 30

The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital.
What will be the effect of this?

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Physics (9-1) (0972)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (9-1) (0972)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

3 / 40

A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker.
The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot
hear the sound.
What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker?

4 / 40

5 / 40

A nuclide has the symbol 146C.
Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?

6 / 40

7 / 40

8 / 40

9 / 40

10 / 40

Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

11 / 40

12 / 40

13 / 40

Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet.
The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench.
A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings.
Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb.
Which statement correctly explains the last observation?

14 / 40

An object moves at constant speed around a circular path.
Which statement is correct?

15 / 40

16 / 40

When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon
thread, the foil is repelled by the comb.
Why is this?

17 / 40

A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field.
Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct?

18 / 40

A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is
repelled by the rod.
Why is this?

19 / 40

20 / 40

21 / 40

An object emits infrared radiation.
Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the
object?

22 / 40

23 / 40

What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a
normal healthy person?

24 / 40

25 / 40

26 / 40

27 / 40

When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated.
What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?

28 / 40

29 / 40

30 / 40

Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?

31 / 40

32 / 40

33 / 40

34 / 40

A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force.
What is the work done on the object?

35 / 40

36 / 40

37 / 40

38 / 40

A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus.
Where is the positive charge in an atom?

39 / 40

Which quantity is equal to acceleration?

40 / 40

On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.
Which statement explains this?

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Physics (0625)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (0625)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes.
What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?

2 / 40

A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus.
Where is the positive charge in an atom?

3 / 40

When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon
thread, the foil is repelled by the comb.
Why is this?

4 / 40

5 / 40

6 / 40

7 / 40

8 / 40

A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.
A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.
Background radiation can be ignored.
What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

9 / 40

10 / 40

11 / 40

12 / 40

Three situations are listed.
1 An object has a resultant force acting on it.
2 A moving object experiences an impulse.
3 An object is decelerating.
In which situations is the momentum of the object changing?

13 / 40

14 / 40

15 / 40

16 / 40

17 / 40

A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker.
The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot
hear the sound.
What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker?

18 / 40

19 / 40

An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted
on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object
increases to 6.0 m / s.
What force is exerted on the object?

20 / 40

Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?

21 / 40

Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object?

22 / 40

23 / 40

A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance.
Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere?
She has no other apparatus.

24 / 40

Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?

25 / 40

The list gives three properties of different states of matter.
1 They cannot be compressed significantly.
2 They can flow.
3 They always completely fill their container.
Which properties are correct for liquids?

26 / 40

27 / 40

28 / 40

29 / 40

30 / 40

In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope.
The smoke particles move about with short random movements.
Which of the following statements is correct?

31 / 40

32 / 40

A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is
repelled by the rod.
Why is this?

33 / 40

34 / 40

35 / 40

36 / 40

37 / 40

38 / 40

39 / 40

40 / 40

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Science – Combined (0653)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Science – Combined (0653)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Most cars burn fossil fuels to release energy for their movement.
Which characteristic of living organisms is similar to this?

2 / 40

3 / 40

4 / 40

5 / 40

Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series.
What are the general properties of a homologous series?

  1. same general formula
  2. same melting point
  3. similar chemical properties

6 / 40

Light travels at a speed of 3.0 × 108m / s in a vacuum.
A radio station transmits radio waves at a frequency of 9.1 × 107Hz.
What is the wavelength of the radio waves?

7 / 40

Which statement about homologous series is correct?

8 / 40

9 / 40

10 / 40

11 / 40

12 / 40

A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time.
When does he develop the greatest power?

13 / 40

14 / 40

Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources?

15 / 40

Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace.
Coke and hematite are added at the top of the blast furnace, and hot air enters at the bottom.
Which statements are correct?

  1. Coke burns to produce high temperatures.
  2. Carbon monoxide is formed by the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide
  3. Hematite contains iron(III) oxide which is oxidised by carbon monoxide.
  4. The oxygen needed for the combustion of the coke comes from the hematite

16 / 40

What are enzymes made from?

17 / 40

Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur?

18 / 40

What are properties of transition elements?

  1. They can act as catalysts.
  2.  They only form white compounds.
  3. They have high densities.

19 / 40

20 / 40

What is a property of infra-red radiation?

21 / 40

22 / 40

23 / 40

24 / 40

25 / 40

26 / 40

Which process produces pure copper sulfate from aqueous copper sulfate?

27 / 40

28 / 40

The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth.
This stops when the food reaches the stomach.
Why does this happen?

29 / 40

30 / 40

In which list are all the sources of energy renewable?

31 / 40

A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes.
How much useful power does the motor produce?

32 / 40

During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina.
What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?

33 / 40

A solid block has a mass of 1.5 kg and a volume of 0.30 m3.
What is its density?

34 / 40

Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45.
In which direction does the light continue?

35 / 40

36 / 40

Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct?

37 / 40

38 / 40

39 / 40

40 / 40

What is the function of valves in the circulatory system?

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Accounting (9-1) (0985)

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Accounting (9-1) (0985)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (9-1) (0985)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

2 / 35

Which statement describes the going concern principle?

3 / 35

4 / 35

How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements?

5 / 35

Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?

6 / 35

7 / 35

8 / 35

Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir.
Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit
balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two
accounts was agreed.
Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account?

9 / 35

Jameel sold goods on credit.
Where did he first record the invoice he issued?

10 / 35

Which document does a trader issue to remind a credit customer that payment is due?

11 / 35

12 / 35

13 / 35

14 / 35

15 / 35

The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares.
Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021.
The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of
$5000.
What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year?

16 / 35

Anjum rents part of her premises to Ajay for $6120 per annum. At the beginning of the year Ajay
had paid two months rent in advance. At the end of the year Ajay had paid three months rent in
advance.
How much rent was received from Ajay during the year?

17 / 35

What is shown in a manufacturing account?
1 cost of material consumed
2 purchases of finished goods
3 cost of production
4 cost of sales

18 / 35

What is the accounting equation?

19 / 35

A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000.
It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered
on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account.
What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account?

20 / 35

Javid’s sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $12000. Interest on an overdue
account, $40, and discount allowed, $150, had been omitted.
What was the correct balance on the sales ledger control account?

21 / 35

What is the purpose of preparing a partnership appropriation account?

22 / 35

Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of
$38 750.
On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated
as a revenue receipt.
In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for
the year ended 31 March 2022.
What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?

23 / 35

24 / 35

Which items appear in the capital and reserves section of a statement of financial position of a
limited company?

25 / 35

26 / 35

27 / 35

Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its
debts when they fall due.
Sally is considering the following proposals.

1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000
2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months
3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years
4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account
Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business?

28 / 35

Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed.
list price: $200 per unit
credit period: 60 days
trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased
cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month
A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days.
What was the total of the invoice?

29 / 35

30 / 35

The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for
$4000.
He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100.
Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation.
The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500.
What was the loss on disposal?

31 / 35

32 / 35

33 / 35

Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct?

34 / 35

What is a reason for preparing a sales ledger control account?

35 / 35

Which statement about a trial balance is correct?

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Accounting (0452)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (0452)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column.
One account balance had been entered in the wrong column.
Which one was it?

2 / 35

Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed.
list price: $200 per unit
credit period: 60 days
trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased
cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month
A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days.
What was the total of the invoice?

3 / 35

What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not
a wholesale business?

4 / 35

What is included in a purchases ledger control account?

5 / 35

A trader is considering selling goods on credit to a new customer.
What could be calculated from the customer’s financial statements to indicate the time normally
taken to pay for goods purchased on credit?

6 / 35

Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir.
Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit
balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two
accounts was agreed.
Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account?

7 / 35

8 / 35

9 / 35

The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for
$4000.
He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100.
Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation.
The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500.
What was the loss on disposal?

10 / 35

Jameel’s financial year ends on 31 December. On 1 January 2021 he brought down a debit
balance on his stationery account.
What does this balance represent?

11 / 35

The discount column on the debit side of a trader’s cash book totalled $1300 and the discount
column on the credit side totalled $700.
How much discount did the trader receive?

12 / 35

A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840.
Which error caused this?

13 / 35

Shula’s financial year ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021 there was a credit balance of $100 on
Yasmin’s account in Shula’s purchases ledger.
What does this mean?

14 / 35

15 / 35

The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares.
Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021.
The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of
$5000.
What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year?

16 / 35

A limited company raised funds from an issue of debentures.
Which statement is correct?

17 / 35

18 / 35

Rashida sells goods on credit and allows her customers a trade discount.
Which statements are correct?
1 A debit entry is made in the customer’s account in the sales ledger for the net value
of the goods sold.
2 The date of sale, name of the customer, cost price and trade discount are entered in
the sales journal.
3 The trade discount is debited to the customer’s account and credited to the discount
allowed account.

19 / 35

A trader has purchased new business premises.
What are examples of capital expenditure?
1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises
2 cost of purchasing the new premises
3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises
4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises

20 / 35

The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the
year it was valued at $5400.
What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?

21 / 35

22 / 35

The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On
checking the books it was found that two errors had been made.
1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770.
2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly.
What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?

23 / 35

Why would a bakery business not include a value for inventory of stationery in the statement of
financial position?

24 / 35

25 / 35

What is shown in a trial balance?

26 / 35

There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60.
At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had
subscriptions outstanding.
At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance.
Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account?

27 / 35

Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each
financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of
the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500.
Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year?

28 / 35

A trader wrote off the balance on a credit customer’s account as irrecoverable.
Which accounting principle was applied?

29 / 35

Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method.
A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase.
Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a
second motor vehicle for $10 000.
What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020?

30 / 35

Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement?
1 furniture store
2 insurance company
3 newsagent
4 toy shop
5 window-cleaner

31 / 35

How should inventory be valued?

32 / 35

A farmer sold a piece of land at market value.
How should the proceeds of this sale be treated?

33 / 35

Hassin found that he needed help to run his business. He decided to take a partner rather than
employ an assistant.
Why did he decide to take a partner?
1 An assistant would not interfere with how the shop was run.
2 An assistant would not share risk.
3 A partner would introduce some additional capital.
4 A partner would take a share of the profit.

34 / 35

Why is a trial balance prepared?

35 / 35

What are advantages of operating as a sole trader?
1 The owner can keep all the profit.
2 The owner can raise finance by issuing debentures.
3 The owner can make decisions independently.
4 The owner is protected by limited liability.

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Biology (0610)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (0610)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Four processes involved in labour and birth are shown.
1 cutting the umbilical cord
2 contraction of muscles in the uterus wall
3 delivery of the afterbirth
4 dilation of the cervix
5 passage of the baby through the vagina
In which sequence do these events normally occur?

2 / 40

What occurs as a result of artificial selection?

3 / 40

Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle.
Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria?

4 / 40

Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct?

5 / 40

Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment?

6 / 40

Which statements describe how an oxygen debt is removed after vigorous exercise?
1) Lactic acid is transported to the liver.
2) Lactic acid is respired aerobically.
3) Heart rate stays high to remove lactic acid from the muscles

7 / 40

The amount of urea in the blood increases as it passes through organ X.
What is organ X?

8 / 40

What is the function of the optic nerve?

9 / 40

10 / 40

What is an example of a population?

11 / 40

What is a diploid nucleus?

12 / 40

What is a use of pectinase in the food industry?

13 / 40

What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?

14 / 40

15 / 40

16 / 40

Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in?

17 / 40

How does blood enter the heart?

18 / 40

Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?

19 / 40

What is part of the definition of transpiration?

20 / 40

The statements describe some of the events that occur in a plant after light energy is absorbed
by chlorophyll.
1) converted to chemical energy
2) converted to sucrose for translocation
3) starch is stored in the roots or seeds
4) glucose is produced
In which order do these events occur?

21 / 40

What is an example of a transmissible disease?

22 / 40

Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct?

23 / 40

Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?

24 / 40

25 / 40

Pea plants produce either yellow or green seeds. Yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y).
What are the most likely phenotypes of the offspring of a cross between YY and Yy plants?

26 / 40

Which pair of plant species belong to the same genus?

27 / 40

What kind of molecule is an enzyme?

28 / 40

What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material?

29 / 40

30 / 40

What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells?

31 / 40

Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce
the nutrient beta carotene.
What is this process called?

32 / 40

Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?

33 / 40

Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart?

34 / 40

35 / 40

Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?

36 / 40

Which disease is caused by a pathogen?

37 / 40

Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed.
1 carbon dioxide
2 glucose
3 oxygen
4 water
Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?

38 / 40

Which statement about respiration is correct?

39 / 40

What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?

40 / 40

What is an example of genetic engineering?

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