0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Which item is not included as part of the capital cost of a new machine? invoice price of the machine cost of installing the new machine interest on a loan used to buy the machine cost of delivering the machine to the factory 2 / 30 When does cost–volume–profit analysis inform users about cost behaviour? when the level of output changes and when absorption costing is used when different time periods are involved and when absorption costing is used when different time periods are involved and when marginal costing is used when the level of output changes and when marginal costing is used 3 / 30 What is included in the reserves of a limited company? debentures share premium preference shares ordinary shares 4 / 30 Which items are recorded in the income statement of a sole trader? interest payable on bank loan interest on capital transfer to general reserve 1 and 2 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 only 5 / 30 The correction of which error requires an entry in the suspense account? A cheque, $1000, paid to Kong had been debited to Kang’s account. Commission income, $170, had been debited to the loan interest account. A purchase of stamps, $50, had been debited to the purchases account. The insurance account had been undercast by $200 and the wages account overcast by $200. 6 / 30 A B C D 7 / 30 B A D C 8 / 30 Which items are included in the marginal cost of a unit of production? direct labour and direct materials only direct labour, direct materials, fixed production costs and variable production overheads direct labour, direct materials and variable production overheads only direct labour, direct materials, fixed costs and variable production overheads 9 / 30 A business sold a non-current asset. It had been purchased for $15 000 and had an estimated life of 10 years, with no residual value. It was depreciated using the straight-line method. It was sold after six years. Disposal costs were $1000 and there was a profit on disposal of $3000. What was the sale price? $10 000 $9000 $13 000 $8000 10 / 30 $111 700 $110 000 $110 200 $113 400 11 / 30 The provisions of the Partnership Act apply if partners do not draw up a partnership agreement. Which statement is true as a provision of the Partnership Act? Interest on drawings is charged at 5% a year. Profits are to be shared in the ratio of fixed capitals. Interest on loans from partners is to be at 8% a year. Partners are not entitled to salaries. 12 / 30 D C B A 13 / 30 Which statement concerning the break-even point is correct? Contribution equals fixed costs at the break-even point. Variable costs equal fixed costs at the break-even point. Fixed costs are equal to sales revenue at the break-even point. At the break-even point a company makes a profit. 14 / 30 $68 000 $72 000 $84 000 $60 000 15 / 30 $5270 $4720 $11 800 $5900 16 / 30 Which statements describe the limitations of accounting information? Businesses in the same industry may use different accounting policies. Non-monetary aspects of a business are excluded from financial statements. Results of accounting ratios are based on the use of historic cos 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 17 / 30 B D C A 18 / 30 What is recorded in both the appropriation account and the current accounts of a partnership? drawings interest on drawings interest on capital 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 only 1 only 19 / 30 D C A B 20 / 30 $878 000 $728 000 $828 000 $678 000 21 / 30 C A B D 22 / 30 At the end of the year, Barack’s draft accounts showed a capital account balance of $4300. His drawings account included a debit entry of $150 for goods taken for his own use. Barack realised that this entry had been recorded in error at selling price rather than cost price. He sells goods with a mark-up of 50%. What is the correct closing capital account balance? $4300 $4250 $4225 $4350 23 / 30 A business increased its profits by changing from marginal costing to absorption costing. Which statement is correct? Production stopped in the period. Production was greater than sales. Production and sales were equal. Production was less than sales. 24 / 30 $4200 $7140 $6440 $5600 25 / 30 $30 600 $28 600 $33 400 $34 600 26 / 30 What are the benefits of preparing a bank reconciliation statement? acts as a deterrent to fraud identifies out-of-date cheques prevents the business going into overdraft provides the correct bank balance for financial statements 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 27 / 30 Why does a business maintain sales and purchases ledger control accounts as part of the double entry accounting system? It allows a trial balance to be prepared easily from the nominal ledger. It can involve separate employees which makes fraud more difficult. There is no need to keep sales and purchases journals. There is no need to reconcile with personal accounts for customers and suppliers. 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 28 / 30 Why might a business prepare a budget? to determine the amount of bank loan it needs to identify the quality of its products to identify its market share to determine the skills of labour force 29 / 30 In March, a company’s overhead absorption rate was $2 per machine hour. In April this rate increased. What had increased in April causing the change in the overhead absorption rate? number of budgeted machine hours cost of insurance for the factory number of actual machine hours worked hourly pay rate of production workers 30 / 30 1.27 : 1 4.67 : 1 0.64 : 1 2.33 : 1 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
Which item is not included as part of the capital cost of a new machine?
2 / 30
When does cost–volume–profit analysis inform users about cost behaviour?
3 / 30
What is included in the reserves of a limited company?
4 / 30
Which items are recorded in the income statement of a sole trader?
5 / 30
The correction of which error requires an entry in the suspense account?
6 / 30
7 / 30
8 / 30
Which items are included in the marginal cost of a unit of production?
9 / 30
A business sold a non-current asset. It had been purchased for $15 000 and had an estimated life of 10 years, with no residual value. It was depreciated using the straight-line method. It was sold after six years. Disposal costs were $1000 and there was a profit on disposal of $3000. What was the sale price?
10 / 30
11 / 30
The provisions of the Partnership Act apply if partners do not draw up a partnership agreement. Which statement is true as a provision of the Partnership Act?
12 / 30
13 / 30
Which statement concerning the break-even point is correct?
14 / 30
15 / 30
16 / 30
Which statements describe the limitations of accounting information?
17 / 30
18 / 30
What is recorded in both the appropriation account and the current accounts of a partnership?
19 / 30
20 / 30
21 / 30
22 / 30
At the end of the year, Barack’s draft accounts showed a capital account balance of $4300. His drawings account included a debit entry of $150 for goods taken for his own use. Barack realised that this entry had been recorded in error at selling price rather than cost price. He sells goods with a mark-up of 50%. What is the correct closing capital account balance?
23 / 30
A business increased its profits by changing from marginal costing to absorption costing. Which statement is correct?
24 / 30
25 / 30
26 / 30
What are the benefits of preparing a bank reconciliation statement?
27 / 30
Why does a business maintain sales and purchases ledger control accounts as part of the double entry accounting system?
28 / 30
Why might a business prepare a budget?
29 / 30
In March, a company’s overhead absorption rate was $2 per machine hour. In April this rate increased. What had increased in April causing the change in the overhead absorption rate?
30 / 30
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What is present in the blood in human veins? chloride ions carbonic anhydrase oxyhaemoglobin 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 / 40 When active tissues have high carbon dioxide concentrations, oxyhaemoglobin needs to release oxygen to the tissues. How is the carbon dioxide transported away by the blood from the tissues? as carboxyhaemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin as hydrogencarbonate ions 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 / 40 A C D B 4 / 40 Bread contains a mixture of polypeptides known as gluten. Two of the polypeptides found in gluten are glutenin and gliadin. Which statement describes the tertiary structure of a protein? Disulfide bonds form between glutenin and gliadin. α-helical sections are found in glutenin and gliadin. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are found on the inside of glutenin. A large proportion of the amino acids in gliadin are glutamine. 5 / 40 B C A D 6 / 40 B D A C 7 / 40 A C B D 8 / 40 Which molecules make up the structure of ATP? adenine thymine deoxyribose phosphate ribose 1, 3 and 4 1, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 3 2, 4 and 5 9 / 40 D A B C 10 / 40 Which statement about viruses is correct? They all have a capsid made of protein. They all have an outer envelope made of phospholipids. They all contain 80S ribosomes. They all contain RNA 11 / 40 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 12 / 40 A student wrote the following statements about the production of monoclonal antibodies. Which statement is not correct? Non-self antigen is injected into a mammal. Selected hybridoma cells divide by mitosis to form a clone Plasma cells secrete the specific antibody in response to a non-self antigen. T-lymphocytes are fused with cancer cells to form hybridoma cells. 13 / 40 D C B A 14 / 40 C B A D 15 / 40 Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a human female during early pregnancy. Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced? HCG is injected into a mouse, and plasma cells in the mouse produce antibodies specific to HCG. Antibodies are extracted from the mouse and then fused with cancer cells to produce hybridoma cells. Single hybridoma cells are cultured and they divide by mitosis to produce a clone of hybridoma cells. 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 16 / 40 Which statement about the role of co-transporter proteins in the movement of sucrose is correct? Sucrose is moved through co-transporter proteins by active transport. Hydrogen ions diffuse through co-transporter proteins with sucrose into companion cells. Co-transporter proteins pump hydrogen ions into phloem sieve tubes along with sucrose. Plasmodesmata move sucrose into phloem sieve tubes via co-transporter proteins. 17 / 40 The cells were broken apart at the nuclear envelope; structure X is a ribosome. The cells were broken apart at the tonoplast; structure X is a plasmodesma. The cells were broken apart at the nuclear envelope; structure X is a nuclear pore. The cells were broken apart at the endoplasmic reticulum; structure X is a ribosome. 18 / 40 Which part of the structure of haemoglobin carries oxygen? hydrogen bonds hydrophilic R groups haem groups four polypeptide chains 19 / 40 2 and 3 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 20 / 40 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 21 / 40 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 22 / 40 Which polymers are present in all viruses and all prokaryotes? polynucleotides polypeptides polysaccharides 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 23 / 40 In an investigation, a plant cell was placed in pure water. The initial rate at which water molecules entered the cell, R, was greater than the initial rate at which water molecules left the cell. In a second investigation, a plant cell of the same type was placed in a solution with a water potential equal to that of the cell contents. What will happen in the second investigation over a period of five minutes? Water molecules will enter and leave the cell in equal amounts, both at an initial rate that is less than R in the first investigation. Water molecules will not enter or leave the cell because the water potential of the cell contents is equal to that of the solution. Water molecules will enter and leave the cell in equal amounts, both at an initial rate that is equal to R in the first investigation. Water molecules will enter and leave the cell in equal amounts, both at an initial rate that is greater than R in the first investigation. 24 / 40 14μm 170μm 80μm 140μm 25 / 40 Liver cells contain vesicles that have proteins in their membranes which are specific for the transport of glucose. When these cells need to take up glucose, the vesicles fuse with the cell surface membrane. How does the uptake of glucose occur? endocytosis exocytosis facilitated diffusion diffusion 26 / 40 C D A B 27 / 40 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 28 / 40 What correctly describes triglycerides? polar molecules that are soluble in ethanol non-polar molecules that are soluble in water non-polar molecules that are soluble in ethanol polar molecules that are soluble in water 29 / 40 A student carries out a semi-quantitative test with Benedict’s solution. Which statement about this procedure is correct? A colorimeter needs to be used to determine the glucose concentration. It provides an indication of relative reducing sugar concentrations. It detects only the presence or absence of glucose. The precipitate needs to be filtered, dried and weighed to give the reducing sugar concentration. 30 / 40 D B A C 31 / 40 xylem vessel element companion cell stem cell phloem sieve tube element 32 / 40 A C D B 33 / 40 C A D B 34 / 40 Which events result in a person developing actively acquired immunity? becoming infected by TB bacteria drinking breast milk receiving an injection of antigens receiving an injection of antibodies 1 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 35 / 40 A D C B 36 / 40 Which property of the tertiary structure of a globular protein enables it to catalyse a metabolic reaction? The three-dimensional shape depends on hydrogen bonding. The R groups of some amino acids form bonds with a substrate. It will be denatured by high temperatures. It has hydrophobic amino acid R groups on the outside. 37 / 40 Comorbidity is where an individual has two or more diseases or medical conditions at the same time. Some medical conditions are particularly likely to result in comorbidity. In one example, initial infection with one pathogen can increase the risk of developing a second disease by a factor of 15 or more. The second disease is then the major cause of death for these people. Which description could fit this example? cholera infection followed by development of malaria malaria infection followed by development of TB cholera infection followed by development of AIDS HIV infection followed by development of TB 38 / 40 A scale bar on an electron micrograph is 2 cm long and represents an actual length of 1 m. What is the magnification of the electron micrograph? ×200 000 ×200 ×20 000 ×2000 39 / 40 D B C A 40 / 40 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
What is present in the blood in human veins?
2 / 40
When active tissues have high carbon dioxide concentrations, oxyhaemoglobin needs to release oxygen to the tissues. How is the carbon dioxide transported away by the blood from the tissues?
3 / 40
4 / 40
Bread contains a mixture of polypeptides known as gluten. Two of the polypeptides found in gluten are glutenin and gliadin. Which statement describes the tertiary structure of a protein?
5 / 40
6 / 40
7 / 40
8 / 40
Which molecules make up the structure of ATP?
9 / 40
10 / 40
Which statement about viruses is correct?
11 / 40
12 / 40
A student wrote the following statements about the production of monoclonal antibodies. Which statement is not correct?
13 / 40
14 / 40
15 / 40
Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a human female during early pregnancy. Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced?
16 / 40
Which statement about the role of co-transporter proteins in the movement of sucrose is correct?
17 / 40
18 / 40
Which part of the structure of haemoglobin carries oxygen?
19 / 40
20 / 40
21 / 40
22 / 40
Which polymers are present in all viruses and all prokaryotes?
23 / 40
In an investigation, a plant cell was placed in pure water. The initial rate at which water molecules entered the cell, R, was greater than the initial rate at which water molecules left the cell. In a second investigation, a plant cell of the same type was placed in a solution with a water potential equal to that of the cell contents. What will happen in the second investigation over a period of five minutes?
24 / 40
25 / 40
Liver cells contain vesicles that have proteins in their membranes which are specific for the transport of glucose. When these cells need to take up glucose, the vesicles fuse with the cell surface membrane. How does the uptake of glucose occur?
26 / 40
27 / 40
28 / 40
What correctly describes triglycerides?
29 / 40
A student carries out a semi-quantitative test with Benedict’s solution. Which statement about this procedure is correct?
30 / 40
31 / 40
32 / 40
33 / 40
34 / 40
Which events result in a person developing actively acquired immunity?
35 / 40
36 / 40
Which property of the tertiary structure of a globular protein enables it to catalyse a metabolic reaction?
37 / 40
Comorbidity is where an individual has two or more diseases or medical conditions at the same time. Some medical conditions are particularly likely to result in comorbidity. In one example, initial infection with one pathogen can increase the risk of developing a second disease by a factor of 15 or more. The second disease is then the major cause of death for these people.
Which description could fit this example?
38 / 40
A scale bar on an electron micrograph is 2 cm long and represents an actual length of 1 m. What is the magnification of the electron micrograph?
39 / 40
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 1.0 mol of an organic compound, J, requires 6.0 mol of oxygen for complete combustion. 1.0 mol of J reacts with sodium, producing 0.50 mol of a gas that gives a ‘pop’ with a lighted splint. J reacts with an excess of hot acidified potassium manganate(VII) to produce an organic compound which gives an orange-red precipitate with 2,4-DNPH reagent. Which compound is J? butan-2-ol but-1-ene 2-methylpropan-2-ol propan-2-ol 2 / 40 A D B C 3 / 40 reaction 2 only reaction 1 only both reaction 1 and reaction 2 both reaction 1 and reaction 2 4 / 40 A student adds 3 mol of acidified K2Cr2O7 to an excess of I– ions. The chromium is all reduced to Cr3+ and I– ions are oxidised to I2. The I2 released is reduced back to I– ions by X mol of S2O3 2– ions. 1 mol of I2 is reduced by 2 mol of S2O3 2– ions. What is the value of X? 18 3 6 9 5 / 40 D B A C 6 / 40 Ethane reacts with an excess of chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light to form a mixture of products. How many of these products contain two carbon atoms and one or more chlorine atoms? 8 6 9 7 7 / 40 Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct? Ammonia gas is produced when an aqueous solution containing the ammonium ion is reacted with a strong acid. The ammonium ion has the same number of electrons as a methane molecule. The square planar ammonium ion contains a dative covalent bond Silver iodide is soluble in a concentrated aqueous solution of ammonia. 8 / 40 17.6 g of pentan-1-ol is completely combusted. Which volume of gaseous products is formed when measured at s.t.p.? 52.8 dm3 22.4 dm3 49.3 dm3 24.0 dm3 9 / 40 Which statement about the Cl –N=O molecule is correct? It is a non-polar molecule The nitrogen atom is sp2 hybridised . It is a linear molecule Each molecule contains one σ and two π bonds 10 / 40 4 8 16 6 11 / 40 Which statement about the first ionisation energies of magnesium and neon is correct? Neon has the greater numerical value and both are exothermic. Magnesium has the greater numerical value and both are endothermic. Magnesium has the greater numerical value and both are exothermic. Neon has the greater numerical value and both are endothermic. 12 / 40 C D A B 13 / 40 D A C B 14 / 40 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 15 / 40 The enthalpy change for neutralisation of HNO3(aq) with NaOH(aq) is –57.0 kJ mol–1. In an experiment, 20.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 HNO3 is mixed with 30.0 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm–3 NaOH in an insulated container. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0 °C. It can be assumed that the heat capacity of the product mixture is 4.2 J cm–3°C–1 and that there are no heat losses. What is the maximum final temperature of the mixture? 41.3°C 52.1°C 44.0°C 46.7°C 16 / 40 This question is about buckminsterfullerene, graphite, iodine and diamond. How many of these substances have a simple molecular structure? 0 3 1 2 17 / 40 C A D B 18 / 40 Halogenoalkanes react with hot ethanolic potassium cyanide. The reaction mechanism is either SN1 or SN2. Which statement is correct? Both the halogenoalkane and the cyanide ion are involved in the initial step of the SN1 mechanism. Chloroethane reacts with cyanide ions by the SN1 mechanism only. The SN2 mechanism involves a short-lived negatively charged transition state. All secondary halogenoalkanes react by the SN2 mechanism only. 19 / 40 Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers? CH3CH2COCH2CH3 CH3CH(CH3)CH2CO2H CH3CH2CH2CHO CH3CH2COCH3 20 / 40 A C D B 21 / 40 C A D B 22 / 40 Compound R can be formed from 1-bromopropane using a nucleophilic substitution reaction followed by an oxidation reaction. What is the identity of R? propanoic acid propanone propyl ethanoate propylamine 23 / 40 The nitrogen partial pressure is increased to 150 kPa. The temperature is increased to 500 °C. The iron is removed. Both the nitrogen and hydrogen partial pressures are changed to 100 kPa. 24 / 40 Which reagent: can confirm the presence of a carbonyl group in an organic compound does not distinguish between aldehydes and ketones? Fehling’s reagent 2,4-DNPH reagent acidified K2Cr2O7 LiAl H4 25 / 40 109.5° 107° 120° 90° 26 / 40 B C A D 27 / 40 Mixture R consists of one mole of C3H6 and one mole of C4H6. What is the minimum number of moles of oxygen molecules needed for complete combustion of mixture R? 20 7 10 6.5 28 / 40 How many bonds are present in one H–C≡C–C(CH3)=CH(CH3) molecule? 13 16 11 5 29 / 40 D C B A 30 / 40 A C D B 31 / 40 Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium? There are more delocalised electrons in calcium than in barium as it has a lower ionisation energy The structure of calcium is partly giant molecular. Calcium cations are smaller than barium cations and have a stronger attraction to the delocalised electrons. There is greater repulsion between barium atoms as they have more complete electron shells than calcium atoms 32 / 40 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. Y is a gaseous hydrocarbon which decolourises aqueous bromine. 10.0 g of Y occupies a volume of 3.43 dm3 under room conditions. How many isomeric structures are possible for Y? 5 7 4 6 33 / 40 D C B A 34 / 40 6 2 4 5 35 / 40 C D A B 36 / 40 D C A B 37 / 40 D C A B 38 / 40 HCN has been detected in interstellar gas. The molecules below have also been detected in interstellar gas. Which molecule contains the same total number of valence shell (outer shell) electrons as HCN? NO NH3 PN HNO 39 / 40 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. If a molecule contains two non-identical chiral carbon atoms, four optical isomers exist. How many isomers are there with: molecular formula C7H14O and a five-membered ring and a tertiary alcohol group? 5 13 9 4 40 / 40 Which sample contains the same number of the named species as the number of molecules in 35.5 g of chlorine? atoms in 16 g of sulfur ions in 74.5g of potassium chloride molecules in 88 g of carbon dioxide atoms in 23 g of sodium NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
1.0 mol of an organic compound, J, requires 6.0 mol of oxygen for complete combustion. 1.0 mol of J reacts with sodium, producing 0.50 mol of a gas that gives a ‘pop’ with a lighted splint. J reacts with an excess of hot acidified potassium manganate(VII) to produce an organic compound which gives an orange-red precipitate with 2,4-DNPH reagent. Which compound is J?
A student adds 3 mol of acidified K2Cr2O7 to an excess of I– ions.
The chromium is all reduced to Cr3+ and I– ions are oxidised to I2.
The I2 released is reduced back to I– ions by X mol of S2O3 2– ions.
1 mol of I2 is reduced by 2 mol of S2O3 2– ions.
What is the value of X?
Ethane reacts with an excess of chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light to form a mixture of products. How many of these products contain two carbon atoms and one or more chlorine atoms?
Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct?
17.6 g of pentan-1-ol is completely combusted. Which volume of gaseous products is formed when measured at s.t.p.?
Which statement about the Cl –N=O molecule is correct?
Which statement about the first ionisation energies of magnesium and neon is correct?
The enthalpy change for neutralisation of HNO3(aq) with NaOH(aq) is –57.0 kJ mol–1. In an experiment, 20.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 HNO3 is mixed with 30.0 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm–3 NaOH in an insulated container. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0 °C. It can be assumed that the heat capacity of the product mixture is 4.2 J cm–3°C–1 and that there are no heat losses. What is the maximum final temperature of the mixture?
This question is about buckminsterfullerene, graphite, iodine and diamond.
How many of these substances have a simple molecular structure?
Halogenoalkanes react with hot ethanolic potassium cyanide. The reaction mechanism is either SN1 or SN2. Which statement is correct?
Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers?
Compound R can be formed from 1-bromopropane using a nucleophilic substitution reaction followed by an oxidation reaction. What is the identity of R?
Which reagent:
Mixture R consists of one mole of C3H6 and one mole of C4H6.
What is the minimum number of moles of oxygen molecules needed for complete combustion of mixture R?
How many bonds are present in one H–C≡C–C(CH3)=CH(CH3) molecule?
Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium?
Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. Y is a gaseous hydrocarbon which decolourises aqueous bromine. 10.0 g of Y occupies a volume of 3.43 dm3 under room conditions. How many isomeric structures are possible for Y?
HCN has been detected in interstellar gas. The molecules below have also been detected in interstellar gas. Which molecule contains the same total number of valence shell (outer shell) electrons as HCN?
Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. If a molecule contains two non-identical chiral carbon atoms, four optical isomers exist. How many isomers are there with:
Which sample contains the same number of the named species as the number of molecules in 35.5 g of chlorine?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 increasing returns to scale in the production of both goods and services diminishing returns to scale in the production of both goods and services infinite returns to scale in the production of both goods and services constant returns to scale in the production of both goods and services 2 / 30 What would be increased by an expansionary fiscal policy? rate of direct taxation budget deficit money supply exchange rate 3 / 30 D C B A 4 / 30 Demand curves are drawn ceteris paribus. Which ‘other things’ are not required to remain the same when an individual’s demand curve for ice cream is constructed? the price of ice cream the consumer’s income the consumer’s tastes and preferences the price of fresh fruit 5 / 30 C D A B 6 / 30 B A C D 7 / 30 What is least likely to rise as a result of the use of expansionary fiscal policy? budget surplus aggregate demand inflation nominal income 8 / 30 $160 million $220 million $280 million $120 million 9 / 30 an increase in interest rates that increases the cost of borrowing an increase in government spending on infrastructure that increases the production potential of the economy an increase in real wages of labour an increase in the exchange rate that makes locally produced goods less price-competitive, both at home and abroad 10 / 30 The volume of imports increasingly exceeds the volume of exports. The terms of trade have deteriorated. The general level of prices has fallen. Export prices have increased each year. 11 / 30 People plant flowers in a local park. Which statement is correct? Flowers in parks are a public good because people can enjoy them at no charge. Flowers in parks are not a public good if local people can limit the number of visitors to the parks. Flowers in parks are not a public good if they are individual, not identical, in nature. Flowers in parks are a public good because they are owned by local people and are not for profit. 12 / 30 The government of a country is worried about a large deficit on the current account of its balance of payments and an increasing rate of inflation. The country has a fixed exchange rate for its currency. Which policy measure is most likely to help the government to reduce the current account deficit and lower the rate of inflation? decreasing the direct taxes devaluation of the currency increasing the interest rate increasing government spending 13 / 30 Which factor of production is needed first in order to set up a new business? labour land capital enterprise 14 / 30 C D A B 15 / 30 W to X Z to Y X to W Y to Z 16 / 30 Which government policy is most likely to cause expenditure switching that will benefit a country’s current account? increasing subsidies to domestic firms increasing income tax allowances increasing import quotas increasing spending on unemployment benefits 17 / 30 Food prices in a country increased by 20% in three months due to an infectious virus. Which statement about the cause of this rise in food prices is normative? Farm workers demanded higher wages to cover extra hours worked. Consumers were scared of running out of food. Transport costs increased by 10%. Supply of foreign food was reduced because of closed borders. 18 / 30 C B D A 19 / 30 A D C B 20 / 30 D A B C 21 / 30 What can be best understood from a knowledge of a country’s terms of trade? its balance of payments performance the purchasing power of its exports the value of its real exchange rate the standard of living within the country 22 / 30 D C B A 23 / 30 zero infinity –1 –0.5 24 / 30 $500 $200 $300 $100 25 / 30 D A B C 26 / 30 Why do some local governments subsidise the provision of bicycles to encourage their use? Consumers are unable to afford bicycles. Consumers are afraid of having car accidents. Consumers ignore the external costs of using bicycles. Consumers are not aware of the external benefits of using bicycles. 27 / 30 Only the minimum price will be effective. Both the maximum and the minimum price will be effective. The market price will continue to operate. Only the maximum price will be effective. 28 / 30 C A D B 29 / 30 Income inequality is greater in country P than in country Q. Wealth inequality is greater in country P than in country Q. Gini coefficients are not comparable between income and wealth because one is a flow concept and the other is a stock concept. Wealth inequality is greater than income inequality in both countries. 30 / 30 In year 1, a country’s real GDP was $500 billion. In year 2, nominal GDP rose to $577.5 billion and the prices increased by 5%. What is the real GDP in year 2? $550 billion $5 billion $476 billion $4.76 billion NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
What would be increased by an expansionary fiscal policy?
Demand curves are drawn ceteris paribus. Which ‘other things’ are not required to remain the same when an individual’s demand curve for ice cream is constructed?
What is least likely to rise as a result of the use of expansionary fiscal policy?
People plant flowers in a local park. Which statement is correct?
The government of a country is worried about a large deficit on the current account of its balance of payments and an increasing rate of inflation. The country has a fixed exchange rate for its currency. Which policy measure is most likely to help the government to reduce the current account deficit and lower the rate of inflation?
Which factor of production is needed first in order to set up a new business?
Which government policy is most likely to cause expenditure switching that will benefit a country’s current account?
Food prices in a country increased by 20% in three months due to an infectious virus. Which statement about the cause of this rise in food prices is normative?
What can be best understood from a knowledge of a country’s terms of trade?
Why do some local governments subsidise the provision of bicycles to encourage their use?
In year 1, a country’s real GDP was $500 billion. In year 2, nominal GDP rose to $577.5 billion and the prices increased by 5%. What is the real GDP in year 2?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 430 Hz 1400 Hz 680 Hz 1100 Hz 2 / 40 A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15Ω and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the free electrons in nichrome is 9.0 × 1028 m–3. A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0V is applied between the ends of the wire. What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire? 6.1 × 10–6 m s–1 3.9 × 10–6 m s–1 9.8 × 10–7 m s–1 2.5 × 10–5 m s–1 3 / 40 Two progressive waves meet at a point. Which condition must be met for superposition of the waves to occur? The waves must be of the same type. The waves must be travelling in opposite directions. The waves must meet in phase. The waves must be coherent. 4 / 40 3 m s–1 to the left 13 m s–1 to the left 13 m s–1 to the right 3 m s–1 to the right 5 / 40 C A B D 6 / 40 1.4 m 3.1 m 2.7 m 6.2 m 7 / 40 Which ratio has the same units as electromotive force (e.m.f.)? charge per unit time energy transferred per unit charge energy transferred per unit time charge per unit energy transferred 8 / 40 A resistor of resistance R is connected across a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance. Which single change to the circuit would lead to the largest increase in the power dissipated in the resistor? halving the value of R halving the value of E doubling the value of E doubling the value of R 9 / 40 B A C D 10 / 40 4.95 × 10-4m3 6.93 × 10-4m3 1.98 × 10-4m3 2.97 × 10-4m3 11 / 40 A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line of travel. Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct? They must travel at the same speed. They must have the same frequency. They must have the same wavelength. They must have a constant phase difference. 12 / 40 D C B A 13 / 40 The electric current in a metal wire is 4.0 mA. How many electrons pass a fixed point in the wire in a time of 10 hours? 9.0 × 1020 2.5 × 1020 9.0 × 1023 2.5 × 1017 14 / 40 Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units? N m and kg m3 s–2 J C–1 and kgm2A–1 s–2 Ns and kgm s–3 J s and kg m2 s–1 15 / 40 Which unit is not an SI base unit? A C kg s 16 / 40 A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm. Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk. Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5 ± 0.5) cm. Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4 ± 0.1) cm. Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct? It is more accurate but less precise than the measurement of student Y. It is less accurate but more precise than the measurement of student Y. It is less accurate and less precise than the measurement of student Y. It is more accurate and more precise than the measurement of student Y. 17 / 40 Which statement about systematic errors is not correct? Zero error is a type of systematic error. A systematic error can be caused by using an incorrectly calibrated instrument. One particular type of systematic error can affect all the measurements by the same amount. The effect of a systematic error can be reduced by repeating and averaging the measurements. 18 / 40 Which two particles have opposite charges? beta-minus particle and electron antiproton and beta-plus particle positron and proton alpha-particle and helium nucleus 19 / 40 Two waves of equal frequency and amplitude are travelling in opposite directions along a stretched string. When they meet, they form a stationary wave with three nodes and two antinodes. The frequency of both waves is doubled and a new stationary wave is formed. How many antinodes are there in the new stationary wave? 3 2 1 4 20 / 40 What is not a requirement for two forces to act as a couple? The two forces act through the same point. The two forces combine to produce zero resultant force. The two forces have equal magnitude. The two forces act in opposite directions. 21 / 40 buzzer loudspeaker microphone electric bell 22 / 40 A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of (15.0 ± 0.1) cm. What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder? (424.1 ± 0.3) cm2 (420 ± 30) cm2 (280 ± 10) cm2 (282.7 ± 0.2) cm2 23 / 40 9V 12V 15V 8V 24 / 40 4.4 N m 6.5 N m 9.4 N m 1.5 N m 25 / 40 In a large container in an oil refinery, three oils of different densities are mixed. No chemical activity occurs. The mixture consists of: 1200 kg of oil of density 1100 kgm–3 1500 kg of oil of density 860 kgm–3 4000 kg of oil of density 910 kgm–3. What is the density of the mixture? 1045 kgm–3 933 kgm–3 957 kgm–3 927 kgm–3 26 / 40 8 J 6 J 12 J 4 J 27 / 40 What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component? the product of the current in the component and its resistance the energy transferred to the component per unit charge the electrical power supplied to the component the voltage across the component 28 / 40 92Hz, 184Hz, 276Hz, 368Hz 92Hz, 276Hz, 828Hz, 1288Hz 92Hz, 138Hz, 184Hz, 230Hz 92Hz, 276Hz, 460Hz, 644Hz 29 / 40 B C A D 30 / 40 4.0 N 6.0 N 8.0 N 12 N 31 / 40 4U U U/4 2U 32 / 40 What is a conclusion from the alpha-particle scattering experiment? The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons The nucleus contains most of the mass of the atom. Protons and electrons have equal but opposite charges. Protons have a much larger mass than electrons. 33 / 40 1 N 20 N 100 N 0.2 N 34 / 40 What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component? the force per unit charge the resistance per unit current the charge per unit time passing through the component the energy transferred per unit charge 35 / 40 C B A D 36 / 40 There is an electric current in a copper wire. Which statement describing the average drift speed of the charge carriers in the wire is correct? It is proportional to the length of the wire. It is nearly 3 × 108 m s–1. It is proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire. It is proportional to the magnitude of the current. 37 / 40 710 m 390 m 770 m 570 m 38 / 40 Which statement about collisions is correct? Kinetic energy is conserved in all collisions. Momentum is only conserved in perfectly elastic collisions. When two objects of different masses collide, they exert forces of different magnitudes on each other. The relative speed of approach is equal to the relative speed of separation for perfectly elastic collisions. 39 / 40 A progressive wave of frequency 1.5 kHz travels in a medium at a speed of 340 m s–1. What is the minimum distance between two points on the wave that have a phase difference of 70°? 18 cm 8.8 cm 4.4 cm 23 cm 40 / 40 Which statement about elastic and plastic deformation must be correct? Elastic deformation and plastic deformation are proportional to the applied force. Elastic deformation and plastic deformation cause no change in volume. Elastic deformation causes heating of the material but plastic deformation does not. Elastic deformation is reversible but plastic deformation is not. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15Ω and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the free electrons in nichrome is 9.0 × 1028 m–3. A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0V is applied between the ends of the wire. What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire?
Two progressive waves meet at a point. Which condition must be met for superposition of the waves to occur?
Which ratio has the same units as electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
A resistor of resistance R is connected across a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance. Which single change to the circuit would lead to the largest increase in the power dissipated in the resistor?
A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line of travel. Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct?
The electric current in a metal wire is 4.0 mA. How many electrons pass a fixed point in the wire in a time of 10 hours?
Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units?
Which unit is not an SI base unit?
A desk has a true width of 50.0 cm. Two students, X and Y, measure the width of the desk. Student X uses a tape measure and records a width of (49.5 ± 0.5) cm. Student Y uses a metre rule and records a width of (51.4 ± 0.1) cm. Which statement about the measurement of student X is correct?
Which statement about systematic errors is not correct?
Which two particles have opposite charges?
Two waves of equal frequency and amplitude are travelling in opposite directions along a stretched string. When they meet, they form a stationary wave with three nodes and two antinodes. The frequency of both waves is doubled and a new stationary wave is formed. How many antinodes are there in the new stationary wave?
What is not a requirement for two forces to act as a couple?
A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of (15.0 ± 0.1) cm. What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder?
In a large container in an oil refinery, three oils of different densities are mixed. No chemical activity occurs. The mixture consists of: 1200 kg of oil of density 1100 kgm–3 1500 kg of oil of density 860 kgm–3 4000 kg of oil of density 910 kgm–3. What is the density of the mixture?
What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component?
What is a conclusion from the alpha-particle scattering experiment?
What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component?
There is an electric current in a copper wire. Which statement describing the average drift speed of the charge carriers in the wire is correct?
Which statement about collisions is correct?
A progressive wave of frequency 1.5 kHz travels in a medium at a speed of 340 m s–1. What is the minimum distance between two points on the wave that have a phase difference of 70°?
Which statement about elastic and plastic deformation must be correct?
