0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What would increase the current ratio of a business? buying goods on credit for $2000 and selling immediately for $3000 cash selling goods of $1000 at cost price on credit paying wages of $1000 in cash purchasing a non-current asset of $10 000 on credit 2 / 30 What may help a book-keeper detect errors in the accounting records of a business? books of original entry sales ledger control account statement of financial position trial balance 3 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 3 / 30 When preparing a bank reconciliation statement, which item is an uncredited deposit? an amount paid into the bank not yet recorded on the bank statement a cheque to a credit supplier not yet recorded on the bank statement an amount charged by the bank not yet recorded in the cash book a credit transfer from a credit customer not yet recorded in the cash book 4 / 30 Why might a business use budgets? to determine the level of demand for its product to have a benchmark against which to assess actual performance to know how much raw material suppliers will be able to supply 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 5 / 30 $2552 $2752 $2652 $2710 6 / 30 A trial balance did not agree and the book-keeper found the following errors. A bank overdraft of $100 had been shown as a debit in the trial balance. A cash purchase of $160 had been entered in the purchases account as $150; the purchase was entered correctly in the cash account. A telephone invoice for $400 had been debited to the insurance account. The book-keeper opened a suspense account in order to correct the errors. What was the opening entry in the suspense account? debit $60 debit $550 credit $190 credit $210 7 / 30 A company paid an ordinary share dividend of $15 000 in the year. Where would it appear in the financial statements? as a finance cost in the income statement under share capital in the statement of changes in equity under retained earnings in the statement of changes in equity as an administrative expense in the income statement 8 / 30 The year end of a business is 31 December 2021. On 5 January 2022, inventory was counted and valued at cost, $30 000. The following was then discovered. Goods purchased and received after the year end, costing $1500, had been included in the valuation. It included goods returned by a customer after the year end. They had a selling price of $900 which included a mark-up of 25% during the year. Some goods included in the inventory, costing $500, were damaged. They can be sold for $300 after repairs costing $100. Which value of inventory should be included in the financial statements at 31 December 2021? $29 270 $28 275 $27 480 $27 525 9 / 30 Which group would appear only on the credit side of a sales ledger control account? cash refunds, contras with the purchases ledger control accounts, sales cash refunds, contras with the purchases ledger control accounts, sales returns irrecoverable debts written off, cash refunds, sales irrecoverable debts written off, cash received, discounts allowed 10 / 30 6.67 times 6.89 times 7.75 times 11.43 times 11 / 30 Which statements relating to marginal costing are correct? Fixed production costs are included in inventory valuations. Fixed production costs are fully written off as an expense. Variable production costs are included in inventory valuations. Variable production costs are fully written off as an expense. 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 3 and 4 12 / 30 Non-current assets at the end of Year 1 were recorded as cost, $500000, and carrying value, $360 000. During Year 2, certain assets were sold. They had originally cost $100 000 and had been depreciated by $40 000. The depreciation charge for the remaining non-current assets in Year 2 was $30 000. What was the carrying value of non-current assets at the end of Year 2? $330 000 $270 000 $300 000 $370 000 13 / 30 At 31 December 2021, the draft statement of financial position for a business showed total assets of $1 000 000. The following was then discovered. An increase in the provision for doubtful debts, $5000, had not been recorded. Closing inventory had been overvalued by $20 000. Depreciation, $10 000, had not been recorded. What was the corrected total assets value? $965 000 $1 015 000 $1 005 000 $985 000 14 / 30 A business sold a non-current asset. It had been purchased for $15 000 and had an estimated life of 10 years, with no residual value. It was depreciated using the straight-line method. It was sold after six years. Disposal costs were $1000 and there was a profit on disposal of $3000. What was the sale price? $13 000 $9000 $8000 $10 000 15 / 30 A C B D 16 / 30 A C B D 17 / 30 The following actions took place in respect of a limited company. A transfer of $50 000 was made from retained earnings to general reserve. An issue of 200 000 ordinary shares of $1 each at a price of $2.50 each was made. Non-current assets with a carrying value of $1 250 000 were revalued at $1 500 000. Ordinary dividends of $100 000 were proposed. What was the increase in the company’s total equity? $650 000 $750 000 $450 000 $500 000 18 / 30 P and Q are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. On 1 January 2021, the partnership had net assets of $410 000. At that date, R was admitted into the business on the following terms. Net assets to be revalued to $480 000. Goodwill was valued at $50 000 but will not be retained in the books of account. Profits and losses will now be shared P 40%, Q 40% and R 20%. What was the change in Q’s capital immediately after R’s admission? decrease by $33 000 decrease by $40 000 increase by $33 000 increase by $40 000 19 / 30 The correction of which error requires an entry in the suspense account? The insurance account had been undercast by $200 and the wages account overcast by $200. Commission income, $170, had been debited to the loan interest account. A purchase of stamps, $50, had been debited to the purchases account. A cheque, $1000, paid to Kong had been debited to Kang’s account. 20 / 30 D C A B 21 / 30 A trader has prepared financial statements which include unpaid wages to her employees. Which accounting concept is being applied? business entity duality substance over form matching 22 / 30 87 days 79 days 63 days 72 days 23 / 30 45 days 28 days 35 days 23 days 24 / 30 Which accounting concepts are not reasons for including depreciation in the income statement? matching materiality prudence realisation 1 and 4 4 only 2 and 3 3 only 25 / 30 X, Y and Z are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :2 :1. X is allowed an annual salary of $10 000. Y has made a loan to the partnership on which the partnership pays interest of $5000 each year. Profit for the year before appropriation was $150 000. What was Z’s total share of profit for the year? $30 000 $29 000 $28 000 $27 000 26 / 30 $618 500 $613 500 $588 500 $638 500 27 / 30 8.17 2.45 1.03 3.42 28 / 30 Which item is a direct cost? cleaning materials for the factory carriage inwards on production materials wages of the factory manager factory rent 29 / 30 increase of $30 000 decrease of $30 000 increase of $60 000 decrease of $60 000 30 / 30 Y → X → Z X → Y → Z Y → Z → X Z → Y → X NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
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A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
What would increase the current ratio of a business?
2 / 30
What may help a book-keeper detect errors in the accounting records of a business?
3 / 30
When preparing a bank reconciliation statement, which item is an uncredited deposit?
4 / 30
Why might a business use budgets?
5 / 30
6 / 30
A trial balance did not agree and the book-keeper found the following errors.
The book-keeper opened a suspense account in order to correct the errors. What was the opening entry in the suspense account?
7 / 30
A company paid an ordinary share dividend of $15 000 in the year. Where would it appear in the financial statements?
8 / 30
The year end of a business is 31 December 2021. On 5 January 2022, inventory was counted and valued at cost, $30 000. The following was then discovered.
9 / 30
Which group would appear only on the credit side of a sales ledger control account?
10 / 30
11 / 30
Which statements relating to marginal costing are correct?
12 / 30
Non-current assets at the end of Year 1 were recorded as cost, $500000, and carrying value, $360 000. During Year 2, certain assets were sold. They had originally cost $100 000 and had been depreciated by $40 000. The depreciation charge for the remaining non-current assets in Year 2 was $30 000. What was the carrying value of non-current assets at the end of Year 2?
13 / 30
At 31 December 2021, the draft statement of financial position for a business showed total assets of $1 000 000. The following was then discovered.
What was the corrected total assets value?
14 / 30
A business sold a non-current asset. It had been purchased for $15 000 and had an estimated life of 10 years, with no residual value. It was depreciated using the straight-line method. It was sold after six years. Disposal costs were $1000 and there was a profit on disposal of $3000. What was the sale price?
15 / 30
16 / 30
17 / 30
The following actions took place in respect of a limited company.
What was the increase in the company’s total equity?
18 / 30
P and Q are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. On 1 January 2021, the partnership had net assets of $410 000. At that date, R was admitted into the business on the following terms.
19 / 30
The correction of which error requires an entry in the suspense account?
20 / 30
21 / 30
A trader has prepared financial statements which include unpaid wages to her employees. Which accounting concept is being applied?
22 / 30
23 / 30
24 / 30
Which accounting concepts are not reasons for including depreciation in the income statement?
25 / 30
X, Y and Z are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :2 :1. X is allowed an annual salary of $10 000. Y has made a loan to the partnership on which the partnership pays interest of $5000 each year. Profit for the year before appropriation was $150 000. What was Z’s total share of profit for the year?
26 / 30
27 / 30
28 / 30
Which item is a direct cost?
29 / 30
30 / 30
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C A B D 2 / 40 Which description of movement of substances during tissue fluid formation is correct? Low hydrostatic pressure forces substances out of the capillary at the arterial end allowing small substances to enter the fluid that bathes the cells. A high water potential of the surrounding tissue fluid causes substances to leave the capillaries at the arterial end. Movement of water in tissue fluid into the capillary by osmosis is due to the low water potential and low hydrostatic pressure inside the capillary. Tissue fluid moves back into the venule due to a net hydrostatic pressure change in the capillary. 3 / 40 Which eukaryotic cell structures all contain nucleic acids? centrioles, chloroplasts, mitochondria, ribosomes centrioles, mitochondria, nuclei, ribosomes cytoplasm, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, nuclei chloroplasts, mitochondria, cytoplasm, ribosomes 4 / 40 Some of the features present in the transport tissues of plants are listed. lignified walls cytoplasm mitochondria chloroplasts plasmodesmata Which features are present in sieve tube elements? 1, 2 and 5 2, 4 and 5 2, 3 and 5 1, 3 and 4 5 / 40 Which statement about the structure of the heart is correct? The semilunar valves close when the pressure in the ventricles falls lower than the pressure in the arteries. A muscle called the septum separates the atria from the ventricles. Closure of valves in the veins prevents backflow of blood into the ventricles. There is a small patch of tissue in the right atrium that acts to delay the electrical impulse. 6 / 40 Which statements about triglycerides and phospholipids are correct? Fatty acids in a triglyceride may be saturated or unsaturated but in a phospholipid they are always saturated. Triglycerides and phospholipids both have a hydrophobic region. Triglycerides are non-polar molecules and phospholipids are polar molecules. 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 only 3 only 7 / 40 2 and 3 2 only 1 and 3 1 only 8 / 40 2.0 × 101 2.0 × 103 2.0 × 104 2.0 × 102 9 / 40 Which range of cell diameters is typical for prokaryotic cells? 1 nm to 5 × 102 nm 1 × 102 μm to 5 × 103μm 1 × 101 μm to 5 × 102 μm 1 × 103 nm to 5 μm 10 / 40 Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable temperature? It has a high latent heat of vaporisation. It has a high specific heat capacity. It has a low latent heat of vaporisation. It has a low specific heat capacity. 11 / 40 Some of the features present in transport tissues are listed. lignified walls cytoplasm mitochondria pits plasmodesmata Which features are present in xylem vessel elements? 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 4 and 5 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 5 12 / 40 Some features of a disease are listed It can be transmitted by animals to other animals, including humans. One mode of transmission is by transfusion with contaminated blood. The causative organism can show multiple drug resistance. The majority of humans who die from the disease are children. The majority of humans who die from the disease are children. malaria HIV/AIDS tuberculosis cholera 13 / 40 Some cells are listed. bacterial cells cancer cells lymphocytes mature red blood cells stem cells Which cells can divide by mitosis? 3, 4 and 5 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 5 14 / 40 D C B A 15 / 40 Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl–) in the chloride shift. What is the importance of the chloride shift? It maintains a balance of positive and negative charge between the cell and the plasma. It prevents carbon dioxide combining with haemoglobin, allowing haemoglobin to combine with oxygen. It helps to maintain a neutral pH in the red blood cell by acting as a buffer. It causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, releasing more oxygen. 16 / 40 How many of these processes produce genetically identical cells? ● growth of plant roots ● replacement of dead human skin cells ● repair of damaged muscle tissue ● asexual reproduction of coral 3 4 2 1 17 / 40 A second antibody peak would occur in person H that would be lower than the first peak. Tetanus antibodies would not be produced in person G. Antibody concentration would stay constant in person H Antibody production would peak after day 32 in person G. 18 / 40 A gene codes for the sequence of amino acids in a single polypeptide. Haemoglobin consists of two α-globins and two β-globins. How many genes are needed to code for a single haemoglobin molecule? 2 1 4 8 19 / 40 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 20 / 40 Which disease is caused by a eukaryote? smallpox cholera measles malaria 21 / 40 B D C A 22 / 40 Which sequence of events could lead to mass flow in a phloem sieve tube? Sucrose moves into a sieve tube element. Protons (H+) and sucrose molecules move into a companion cell through a co-transporter protein. A very high hydrostatic pressure is produced. The water potential of the sieve tube element decreases. Protons (H+) are actively pumped out of a companion cell. Water moves down a water potential gradient by osmosis. 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 6 5 → 2 → 1 → 4 → 6 → 3 1 → 2 → 5 → 6 → 4 → 3 3 → 1 → 2 → 5 → 6 → 4 23 / 40 Plant cells were submerged in a solution with a water potential less negative than that found inside the cells. What describes the condition of the plant cells after 20 minutes? burst turgid plasmolysed incipient plasmolysis 24 / 40 Some of the events that occur during transcription are listed. Bonds break between complementary bases. Bonds form between complementary bases. Sugar-phosphate bonds form. Free nucleotides pair with complementary nucleotides. Before the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus, which events occur twice during transcription? 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 25 / 40 A bacterial circular DNA molecule is 2 600 150 base pairs long. 26% of the bases are adenine. How many cytosine bases would be in the DNA molecule? 676 039 624 036 1 248 072 1 352 078 26 / 40 D C A B 27 / 40 By which process does sucrose move through phloem sieve tube elements? facilitated diffusion active transport mass flow diffusion 28 / 40 Which feature is visible with a light microscope using a natural light source? Paramecium cell of diameter 200 µm phospholipid bilayer of width 8 nm ribosome of diameter 20 nm DNA molecule of diameter 2 nm 29 / 40 B A D C 30 / 40 Which organelles found in animal or plant cells are surrounded by double membranes? chloroplasts, mitochondria, nuclei mitochondria, nuclei, vacuoles chloroplasts, mitochondria, vacuoles chloroplasts, nuclei, vacuoles 31 / 40 D C B A 32 / 40 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 33 / 40 Which events listed are part of the cell cycle? interphase prophase cytokinesis 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 34 / 40 B D C A 35 / 40 Which statement describes the structure of ATP? It is an RNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates. It is a DNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates. It is a DNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates. It is an RNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates. 36 / 40 ×63 ×6.3 ×6300 ×630 37 / 40 glycogen amylopectin cellulose amylose 38 / 40 What is the function of the nucleolus? the synthesis of rRNA the formation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope the formation of rough endoplasmic reticulum the synthesis of ribosomal proteins 39 / 40 Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria? They contain 80S ribosomes. They can transcribe their circular DNA. They can translate mRNA. They are enclosed by double membranes. 1, 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 40 / 40 A D C B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
Which description of movement of substances during tissue fluid formation is correct?
3 / 40
Which eukaryotic cell structures all contain nucleic acids?
4 / 40
Some of the features present in the transport tissues of plants are listed.
Which features are present in sieve tube elements?
5 / 40
Which statement about the structure of the heart is correct?
6 / 40
Which statements about triglycerides and phospholipids are correct?
7 / 40
8 / 40
9 / 40
Which range of cell diameters is typical for prokaryotic cells?
10 / 40
Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable temperature?
11 / 40
Some of the features present in transport tissues are listed.
12 / 40
Some features of a disease are listed
The majority of humans who die from the disease are children.
13 / 40
Some cells are listed.
14 / 40
15 / 40
Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl–) in the chloride shift. What is the importance of the chloride shift?
16 / 40
How many of these processes produce genetically identical cells? ● growth of plant roots ● replacement of dead human skin cells ● repair of damaged muscle tissue ● asexual reproduction of coral
17 / 40
18 / 40
A gene codes for the sequence of amino acids in a single polypeptide. Haemoglobin consists of two α-globins and two β-globins. How many genes are needed to code for a single haemoglobin molecule?
19 / 40
20 / 40
Which disease is caused by a eukaryote?
21 / 40
22 / 40
Which sequence of events could lead to mass flow in a phloem sieve tube?
23 / 40
Plant cells were submerged in a solution with a water potential less negative than that found inside the cells. What describes the condition of the plant cells after 20 minutes?
24 / 40
Some of the events that occur during transcription are listed.
25 / 40
A bacterial circular DNA molecule is 2 600 150 base pairs long. 26% of the bases are adenine. How many cytosine bases would be in the DNA molecule?
26 / 40
27 / 40
By which process does sucrose move through phloem sieve tube elements?
28 / 40
Which feature is visible with a light microscope using a natural light source?
29 / 40
30 / 40
Which organelles found in animal or plant cells are surrounded by double membranes?
31 / 40
32 / 40
33 / 40
Which events listed are part of the cell cycle?
34 / 40
35 / 40
Which statement describes the structure of ATP?
36 / 40
37 / 40
38 / 40
What is the function of the nucleolus?
39 / 40
Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria?
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 / 40 Two moles of VO2+ions react with one mole of zinc atoms in the presence of dilute acid. The products include Zn2+ ions and an ion, Y. Ion Y contains vanadium. Only zinc and vanadium change oxidation state in the reaction. What is ion Y? VO3– VO2+ VO+ VO22+ 3 / 40 There are two naturally occuring isotopes of bromine. One isotope has 44 neutrons. The other isotope has 46 neutrons. Ignoring fragments, how many peaks are there in the mass spectrum of tribromomethane, 12C1HBr3? 3 4 2 6 4 / 40 Which statement is correct? The second ionisation energy of sulfur is equal to the first ionisation energy of phosphorus. The first ionisation energy of chlorine is more than the first ionisation energy of argon. The second ionisation energy of calcium is more than the second ionisation energy of magnesium. The eighth ionisation energy of chlorine is more than the first ionisation energy of neon 5 / 40 C B A D 6 / 40 A mixture contains magnesium carbonate and barium carbonate only. A sample of the mixture is dissolved in nitric acid to produce a solution. How could this solution be processed into a magnesium compound and a separate barium compound? Add H2SO4(aq), filter off the solid magnesium sulfate. Add HCl(aq), filter off the solid magnesium chloride. Add H2SO4(aq), filter off the solid barium sulfate. Add HCl(aq), filter off the solid barium chloride. 7 / 40 Q is a Group 2 metal. An excess of QCO3(s) is added to H2SO4(aq) followed by filtration. A sample of QSO4 is then obtained by evaporation of the filtrate. What could be the identity of Q? barium, calcium or magnesium calcium only calcium or magnesium only barium or calcium only 8 / 40 Methylbut-2-ene reacts with HBr at room temperature to produce compound X as a major product. Compound X reacts with KCN in ethanol to produce compound Y. Compound Y is hydrolysed with acid to produce compound Z. What is compound Z? 2,3-dimethylbutanoic acid 3-methylpentanoic acid 2-methylpentanoic acid 2,2-dimethylbutanoic acid 9 / 40 Compound Q can be hydrolysed by HCl(aq). The two products of this hydrolysis have the same empirical formula. What could Q be? CH3CO2CH2CH2CO2H CH3CH2CH(OH)CH(OH)CH2CH3 CH3CO2CH2CH2OH CH3CH2CO2CH2CH2CH3 10 / 40 neither reaction reaction 1 only both reactions reaction 2 only 11 / 40 2-bromopropane reacts with hot ethanolic sodium hydroxide. Which substance is the major product of this reaction? propan-1-ol propan-2-ol 2-hydroxypropene propene 12 / 40 When an evacuated glass bulb of volume 200 cm3 is filled with a gas at 300K and 101 kPa, the mass of the bulb increases by 0.68 g. The gas obeys the ideal gas equation. What is the identity of the gas? krypton neon argon nitrogen 13 / 40 How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O? 1 3 4 2 14 / 40 NCl3 reacts with H2O. NCl3 + 3H2O → NH3 + 3HClO The oxidation state of nitrogen does not change in this reaction. Which statement is correct? This is not a redox reaction. Chlorine is oxidised. Hydrogen is both oxidised and reduced. Chlorine is reduced. 15 / 40 5 2 6 4 16 / 40 NH4NO3 decomposes into N2O and H2O on heating. Which statements are correct? The ammonium ion is behaving as a reducing agent. The nitrate(V) ion is behaving as an oxidising agent. It is a redox reaction. It is a disproportionation reaction. 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 17 / 40 B D C A 18 / 40 T is an organic compound which contains 66.7% by mass of carbon. T also contains one atom of oxygen per molecule. T reacts with alkaline I2(aq) to produce a yellow precipitate. What is T? butan-2-ol butanone methylpropan-2-ol butanal 19 / 40 Solid R is added to a solution of ammonium nitrate and the mixture is heated. A gas is given off which turns red litmus to blue. What could be R? phosphorus oxide sodium oxide magnesium chloride aluminium chloride 20 / 40 A D C B 21 / 40 Which species is a free radical? Zn Be– O2- He 22 / 40 A C B D 23 / 40 A B C D 24 / 40 Which reagent: can confirm the presence of a carbonyl group in an organic compound does not distinguish between aldehydes and ketones? Fehling’s reagent LiAl H4 2,4-DNPH reagent acidified K2Cr2O7 25 / 40 heat under reflux with CH3OH/H+ heat under reflux with Cr2O7 2- /H+ Na at room temperature PCl5 at room temperature 26 / 40 X is a mixture of two stereoisomers; Y is a mixture of four stereoisomers. X is a mixture of four stereoisomers; Y is a mixture of four stereoisomers. X is a mixture of four stereoisomers; Y does not have stereoisomers X is a mixture of two stereoisomers; Y does not have stereoisomers. 27 / 40 A C D B 28 / 40 D B A C 29 / 40 C B D A 30 / 40 D A C B 31 / 40 D A B C 32 / 40 B D A C 33 / 40 Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium? There are more delocalised electrons in calcium than in barium as it has a lower ionisation energy The structure of calcium is partly giant molecular. Calcium cations are smaller than barium cations and have a stronger attraction to the delocalised electrons. There is greater repulsion between barium atoms as they have more complete electron shells than calcium atoms 34 / 40 C A D B 35 / 40 The compound (CH3)3NAlCl3 has a simple molecular structure. Which statement about (CH3)3NAlCl3 is correct? The molecules contain coordinate bonding The Al atom in (CH3)3NAlCl3 has an incomplete valence shell of electrons. (CH3)3NAl Cl3 molecules attract each other by hydrogen bonds. The bonds around the Al atom are planar 36 / 40 A D C B 37 / 40 CH3CCl=CH2 CHCl=CHCl CH3CCl=CHCl CH2=CHCl 38 / 40 For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them? third and fourth ionisation energies fifth and sixth ionisation energies fourth and fifth ionisation energies sixth and seventh ionisation energies 39 / 40 Which compound will decolourise Br2(aq)? CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CHO CH3CH2CH2CO2CH2CH3 CH3CHCHCH2CH2CH2OH CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CO2H 40 / 40 In a catalytic converter, 5.6 g of carbon monoxide react with an excess of nitrogen monoxide. What is produced in this reaction? 2.4 g of C and 6.0 g of NO2 8.8 g of CO2 and 2.8 g of N2 8.8 g of CO2 and 1.4 g of N2 2.4 g of C and 9.2 g of NO2 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
Two moles of VO2+ions react with one mole of zinc atoms in the presence of dilute acid. The products include Zn2+ ions and an ion, Y. Ion Y contains vanadium. Only zinc and vanadium change oxidation state in the reaction. What is ion Y?
There are two naturally occuring isotopes of bromine. One isotope has 44 neutrons. The other isotope has 46 neutrons. Ignoring fragments, how many peaks are there in the mass spectrum of tribromomethane, 12C1HBr3?
Which statement is correct?
A mixture contains magnesium carbonate and barium carbonate only. A sample of the mixture is dissolved in nitric acid to produce a solution.
How could this solution be processed into a magnesium compound and a separate barium compound?
Q is a Group 2 metal.
An excess of QCO3(s) is added to H2SO4(aq) followed by filtration. A sample of QSO4 is then obtained by evaporation of the filtrate.
What could be the identity of Q?
Methylbut-2-ene reacts with HBr at room temperature to produce compound X as a major product. Compound X reacts with KCN in ethanol to produce compound Y. Compound Y is hydrolysed with acid to produce compound Z. What is compound Z?
Compound Q can be hydrolysed by HCl(aq). The two products of this hydrolysis have the same empirical formula. What could Q be?
2-bromopropane reacts with hot ethanolic sodium hydroxide. Which substance is the major product of this reaction?
When an evacuated glass bulb of volume 200 cm3 is filled with a gas at 300K and 101 kPa, the mass of the bulb increases by 0.68 g. The gas obeys the ideal gas equation. What is the identity of the gas?
How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O?
NCl3 reacts with H2O.
NCl3 + 3H2O → NH3 + 3HClO
The oxidation state of nitrogen does not change in this reaction. Which statement is correct?
NH4NO3 decomposes into N2O and H2O on heating.
Which statements are correct?
T is an organic compound which contains 66.7% by mass of carbon. T also contains one atom of oxygen per molecule. T reacts with alkaline I2(aq) to produce a yellow precipitate. What is T?
Solid R is added to a solution of ammonium nitrate and the mixture is heated. A gas is given off which turns red litmus to blue. What could be R?
Which species is a free radical?
Which reagent:
Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium?
The compound (CH3)3NAlCl3 has a simple molecular structure. Which statement about (CH3)3NAlCl3 is correct?
For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them?
Which compound will decolourise Br2(aq)?
In a catalytic converter, 5.6 g of carbon monoxide react with an excess of nitrogen monoxide. What is produced in this reaction?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Which statement about the circular flow of income is correct? When consumers use past savings to increase their spending, there will be a rise in national income. When a government increases withdrawals by increasing the rate of income tax, there must be an equivalent increase in injections to compensate. Exports and imports do not affect the equilibrium level of national income because they always cancel each other out. The greater the level of saving, the greater the level of injections in the form of investment must be. 2 / 30 A rise in the price of a good is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded. What could explain this? The substitute goods are all very much more expensive. Consumers spend a high proportion of disposable income on the good. The price of the good is taken to be an indication of the level of quality. The price of a complementary good has also increased. 3 / 30 The £ depreciated against the US$ and the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and depreciated against the €. The £ depreciated against the US$ and appreciated against the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and the € 4 / 30 ORWY QRWU PQUT PRWT 5 / 30 Why will a contractionary monetary policy reduce inflation? Consumers will have higher disposable income. Banks will lend more. Consumers will pay more tax. Consumers will save more. 6 / 30 Disinflation took place between 2014 and 2015. The purchasing power of money increased between 2014 and 2015. The cost of living fell from 2016 onwards. The price of goods and services fell between 2013 and 2014. 7 / 30 A government raises interest rates to improve the current account of the balance of payments. What might reduce the effectiveness of this policy? price-elastic demand for exports increased domestic saving consumer pessimism a fall in domestic growth 8 / 30 MN XP MX NP 9 / 30 US$2800bn US$2900bn US$2700bn US$3000bn 10 / 30 An increase in which variable is a contractionary monetary policy? the budget surplus the budget deficit the interest rate the money supply 11 / 30 B C D A 12 / 30 What is most likely to cause a rise in a country’s exchange rate? a rise in its imports a fall in its direct taxes a fall in its export orders a rise in its interest rates 13 / 30 Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax? corporation tax in India that is imposed on the profits of companies import duties in Brazil that are imposed on imported goods stamp duty in Malaysia that is the tax on the purchase of a residential property specific tax in South Africa imposed on the purchase of cigarettes 14 / 30 What is most likely to cause a shift in the supply curve for rice? a change in the price of meat a change in the price of the rice a change in the size of the rice industry a change in tastes and preferences for rice 15 / 30 an increase in money wage rates a decrease in income tax an increase in the money supply a decrease in the price of goods 16 / 30 Assuming nothing else changes, which change in an economy’s labour market will cause the production possibility curve to shift to the left? an increase in the school leaving age an increase in the retirement age an increase in worker immigration an increase in labour productivity 17 / 30 The number of passenger journeys remained the same since privatisation. Average prices were higher in 2012 than 2015. Profits have increased since privatisation. Average prices were higher in 2015 than 2014. 18 / 30 What would be likely to decrease inflation in an economy? a decrease in unemployment an increase in labour productivity an increase in taxes on imports a decrease in consumer saving 19 / 30 A D B C 20 / 30 B C D A 21 / 30 A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its balance of payments. What is likely to decrease as a consequence? the prices of imports into the country the level of employment in the country the prices of imports into the country the exports of capital from the country 22 / 30 A D C B 23 / 30 Which change is shown directly by the use of aggregate demand and aggregate supply analysis? the nominal income level the wage level the unemployment level the price level 24 / 30 Which change affecting the foreign exchange market for the US$ would be most likely to result in a shift to the right of the demand curve and a movement along the supply curve? Foreign currency speculators in Switzerland believe that the US$ is undervalued and act accordingly. The US government reduces subsidies on exports to the EU. US pharmaceutical companies experience a fall in demand for their products from the rest of the world. The US government intervenes in the foreign exchange market so as to bring about a drop in the value of the US$. 25 / 30 2013 2011 2012 2014 26 / 30 What is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP? taxation changes in the price level interest rates exchange rates 27 / 30 A government fixes a maximum price for a product in order to increase its consumption. What would be the likely outcome of such a policy? Consumption will fall if the maximum price is above the current equilibrium price. Consumption will rise if the maximum price is below the current equilibrium price. Production will fall if the maximum price is above the current equilibrium price. Production will fall if the maximum price is below the current equilibrium price 28 / 30 It rose in only two years. It was constant in only one year. It fell in only two years. It fell in only one year. 29 / 30 What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an increase in factor productivity? downward shift of the aggregate supply curve an upward shift of the aggregate demand curve an upward shift of the aggregate supply curve downward shift of the aggregate demand curve 30 / 30 the price elasticities of domestic supply and demand the tariff rate and the price elasticities of both domestic demand and supply the tariff rate and the price elasticity of domestic demand the tariff rate and the price elasticity of domestic supply NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
Which statement about the circular flow of income is correct?
A rise in the price of a good is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded. What could explain this?
Why will a contractionary monetary policy reduce inflation?
A government raises interest rates to improve the current account of the balance of payments. What might reduce the effectiveness of this policy?
An increase in which variable is a contractionary monetary policy?
What is most likely to cause a rise in a country’s exchange rate?
Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax?
What is most likely to cause a shift in the supply curve for rice?
Assuming nothing else changes, which change in an economy’s labour market will cause the production possibility curve to shift to the left?
What would be likely to decrease inflation in an economy?
A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its balance of payments. What is likely to decrease as a consequence?
Which change is shown directly by the use of aggregate demand and aggregate supply analysis?
Which change affecting the foreign exchange market for the US$ would be most likely to result in a shift to the right of the demand curve and a movement along the supply curve?
What is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP?
A government fixes a maximum price for a product in order to increase its consumption. What would be the likely outcome of such a policy?
What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an increase in factor productivity?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C A D B 2 / 40 The principle of superposition states that a certain quantity is added when two or more waves meet at a point. What is this quantity? displacement wavelength intensity amplitude 3 / 40 2.97 × 10-4m3 1.98 × 10-4m3 6.93 × 10-4m3 4.95 × 10-4m3 4 / 40 B C A D 5 / 40 B D C A 6 / 40 A D C B 7 / 40 Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units? J s and kg m2 s–1 Ns and kgm s–3 J C–1 and kgm2A–1 s–2 N m and kg m3 s–2 8 / 40 D C A B 9 / 40 Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave? They consist of vibrating atoms. The distance from a peak to the next trough is equal to a wavelength. They can be demonstrated in ripple tanks. They transfer energy from one position to another. 10 / 40 A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15Ω and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the free electrons in nichrome is 9.0 × 1028 m–3. A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0V is applied between the ends of the wire. What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire? 2.5 × 10–5 m s–1 9.8 × 10–7 m s–1 3.9 × 10–6 m s–1 6.1 × 10–6 m s–1 11 / 40 Decrease the temperature of the thermistor. Reduce the intensity of light incident on the light-dependent resistor (LDR). Replace the fixed resistor with a 500 Ω resistor. Increase the resistance of the variable resistor. 12 / 40 An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm. The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J. What is the stretched length of the spring? 6.0 cm 8.0 cm 3.0 cm 5.0 cm 13 / 40 Points Q and S vibrate in phase. The distance between P and T is three wavelengths. Point R is at a node. The wave transfers energy from P to T. 14 / 40 10 N 20 N 17 N 5 N 15 / 40 2.5 N m 2.7 N m 5.4 N m 1.3 N m 16 / 40 Which statement about β–decay is correct? A proton changes to a neutron in the nucleus and an electron and an antineutrino are emitted. A neutron changes to a proton in the nucleus and an electron and an antineutrino are emitted. A proton changes to a neutron in the nucleus and an electron and a neutrino are emitted. A neutron changes to a proton in the nucleus and an electron and a neutrino are emitted. 17 / 40 Which statement is not a requirement of a pair of forces that obey Newton’s third law of motion? The forces act in opposite directions. The forces act on different objects. The forces are of equal magnitude. The forces act on objects in contact. 18 / 40 136 g 44 g 38 g 120 g 19 / 40 6.8 N 4.0 N 3.4 N 8.1 N 20 / 40 4 mV 5 mV 15 mV 16 mV 21 / 40 The force that X exerts on Y is less than the force that Y exerts on X. The force that X exerts on Y is less than F. The force that X exerts on Y is equal to F. The acceleration of X is equal to force F divided by the mass of X. 22 / 40 A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line of travel. Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct? They must have the same wavelength. They must have the same frequency. They must have a constant phase difference. They must travel at the same speed. 23 / 40 For a current-carrying wire, the current can be calculated using the equation shown. I = Anvq What is the meaning of n? the number of charge carriers multiplied by the volume of the wire the number of charge carriers per unit volume of the wire the number of charge carriers per unit length of the wire the number of charge carriers in the wire 24 / 40 An α-particle passes close to a gold nucleus and is deflected through an angle greater than 90°. Which property of the α-particle changes as a result of the deflection? nucleon number charge momentum proton number 25 / 40 What is a conclusion from the alpha-particle scattering experiment? The nucleus contains most of the mass of the atom. Protons and electrons have equal but opposite charges. Protons have a much larger mass than electrons. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons 26 / 40 Which list of regions of the electromagnetic spectrum is in order of increasing wavelength from left to right? X-ray → ultraviolet → gamma-ray microwave → X-ray → infrared gamma-ray → ultraviolet → infrared infrared → microwave → ultraviolet 27 / 40 A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of (15.0 ± 0.1) cm. What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder? (282.7 ± 0.2) cm2 (420 ± 30) cm2 (280 ± 10) cm2 (424.1 ± 0.3) cm2 28 / 40 speed frequency amplitude wavelength 29 / 40 A cell with constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) is connected across a fixed resistor. Over time, the internal resistance of the cell increases. Which change occurs as the internal resistance of the cell increases? a decrease in the potential difference measured across the cell an increase in the number of charge carriers leaving the cell per unit time a decrease in the charge of each charge carrier an increase in the energy dissipated per unit time in the fixed resistor 30 / 40 Two resistors have a combined resistance of 34Ω when connected in series. The same resistors have a combined resistance of 7.4Ω when connected in parallel. What is the resistance of one of the resistors? 17Ω 23Ω 27Ω 15Ω 31 / 40 Which estimate is reasonable? 1 × 10–2 m3 for the volume of a tennis ball 1 × 104W for the power of a light bulb in a house 1 × 10–3 kg for the mass of a grain of sand 1 × 100 J for the work done lifting an apple from waist height to head height 32 / 40 6.35V 10.8V 3.18V 2.65V 33 / 40 A C B D 34 / 40 A B D C 35 / 40 B A C D 36 / 40 Lamp Q emits four times as much power as lamp P Lamp Q emits twice as much power as lamp P. Lamp P emits twice as much power as lamp Q. Lamp P emits four times as much power as lamp Q. 37 / 40 X and Y are at rest at their maximum heights. X and Y take the same time to return to the ground. X and Y travel the same distance. X and Y are fired with the same speed. 38 / 40 Which pair of quantities are physical quantities? charge and ampere period and potential difference pascal and strain efficiency and kilogram 39 / 40 C D A B 40 / 40 Which ratio has the same units as electromotive force (e.m.f.)? energy transferred per unit charge energy transferred per unit time charge per unit energy transferred charge per unit time NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
The principle of superposition states that a certain quantity is added when two or more waves meet at a point. What is this quantity?
Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units?
Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave?
A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15Ω and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the free electrons in nichrome is 9.0 × 1028 m–3. A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0V is applied between the ends of the wire. What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire?
An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm. The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J. What is the stretched length of the spring?
Which statement about β–decay is correct?
Which statement is not a requirement of a pair of forces that obey Newton’s third law of motion?
A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line of travel. Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct?
For a current-carrying wire, the current can be calculated using the equation shown. I = Anvq What is the meaning of n?
An α-particle passes close to a gold nucleus and is deflected through an angle greater than 90°. Which property of the α-particle changes as a result of the deflection?
What is a conclusion from the alpha-particle scattering experiment?
Which list of regions of the electromagnetic spectrum is in order of increasing wavelength from left to right?
A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of (15.0 ± 0.1) cm. What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder?
A cell with constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) is connected across a fixed resistor. Over time, the internal resistance of the cell increases. Which change occurs as the internal resistance of the cell increases?
Two resistors have a combined resistance of 34Ω when connected in series. The same resistors have a combined resistance of 7.4Ω when connected in parallel. What is the resistance of one of the resistors?
Which estimate is reasonable?
Which pair of quantities are physical quantities?
Which ratio has the same units as electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
