0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What will be debited in the appropriation account of a partnership? interest on partners’ drawings interest on the partner’s loan salaries of partners partners’ share of goodwill written off 3 only 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 2 / 30 The totals on a trial balance were: debit $500150 credit $500 000 Which error could have caused the difference? A cash sale has only been recorded in the sales account. A credit sale has not been recorded. A credit sale has only been recorded in a customer’s account. A credit purchase has only been recorded in a supplier’s account. 3 / 30 D B A C 4 / 30 C A D B 5 / 30 62.50% 37.50% 55.56% 44.44% 6 / 30 Why did Amitav prefer to form a partnership with Lennie rather than set up as a sole trader? Amitav was certain they could work without disagreements. The financial statements of a partnership are not shared publicly. Lennie had a different area of expertise to Amitav. The legal requirements in setting up the business would be reduced. 7 / 30 $59 000 $54 000 $51 000 $55 000 8 / 30 A business makes and sells a single product. It has a selling price of $100 and a contribution per unit of $40. When output is 500 units, the business makes a profit of $2000. The direct material price is expected to rise by $4 per unit. How many units will need to be made and sold for the profit to be unchanged? 450 550 455 556 9 / 30 X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital account balances of $200 000. Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account. Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000. How much capital did Z contribute? $40 000 $20 000 $50 000 $70 000 10 / 30 L, M and N are in partnership, sharing profits and losses equally. On 31 December 2020 N retired. At that date: N’s capital account balance was $30 000 and his current account had a debit balance of $5400. Profit for the year was $21 000 before paying L’s salary of $6000. The goodwill was valued at $18 000 but is not to remain in the books of account. Other assets are to be revalued upwards by $6000. How much will N be entitled to on his retirement? $30 600 $41 400 $37 600 $42 400 11 / 30 The balance on the purchases ledger control account did not agree with the total of balances from the purchases ledger accounts. The following errors were then discovered. Contra entries had not been entered in the general journal. Debit balances on the purchases ledger had not been included in the control account. Discount allowed total had been included in the control account. Goods returned to a supplier had not been recorded in the purchases returns journal. Which errors will require entries being made in the purchases ledger? 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 12 / 30 $5270 $5900 $11 800 $4720 13 / 30 $130000 $80000 $320000 $220000 14 / 30 $125 000 $150 000 $185 000 $175 000 15 / 30 A suspense account had a balance of $450 debit. What caused this balance in the suspense account? motor expenses of $675 entered in the cash book as a credit of $225 and posted to motor expenses as a debit of $225 motor expenses of $450 correctly entered in the cash book and posted to motor vehicles as a debit motor expenses of $225 entered in the cash book as a receipt and posted to motor expenses as a credit motor expenses of $225 correctly entered in the cash book and posted to motor expenses as a credit 16 / 30 Why might a business prepare budgets? to encourage planning and decision-making to improve coordination between departments to monitor and control costs 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 17 / 30 The sales ledger control account of a business had a balance of $17 640. This did not agree with the total of the individual customer accounts in the sales ledger. The following errors have been discovered. An invoice in the sales journal for $460 has been entered wrongly in the sales ledger as $640. Credit balances on the sales ledger, $470, have been omitted from the sales ledger control account. Discounts allowed have been incorrectly totalled as $310 instead of $325. Goods sold to Harry for $690 have been entered in the account of Barry in error. What is the correct balance on the sales ledger control account? $16 975 $18 125 $17 185 $17 155 18 / 30 Which statement describes a cost centre rather than a cost unit? any location where costs are incurred a measurable part of a product or service a location where only variable costs are incurred a part of a product or service for which costs are calculated 19 / 30 The year end of a business is 31 December 2021. On 5 January 2022, inventory was counted and valued at cost, $30 000. The following was then discovered. Goods purchased and received after the year end, costing $1500, had been included in the valuation. It included goods returned by a customer after the year end. They had a selling price of $900 which included a mark-up of 25% during the year. Some goods included in the inventory, costing $500, were damaged. They can be sold for $300 after repairs costing $100. Which value of inventory should be included in the financial statements at 31 December 2021? $29 270 $27 480 $28 275 $27 525 20 / 30 A B C D 21 / 30 A business increased its profits by changing from marginal costing to absorption costing. Which statement is correct? Production was greater than sales. Production stopped in the period. Production and sales were equal. Production was less than sales. 22 / 30 A C D B 23 / 30 The provisions of the Partnership Act apply if partners do not draw up a partnership agreement. Which statement is true as a provision of the Partnership Act? Partners are not entitled to salaries. Interest on loans from partners is to be at 8% a year. Interest on drawings is charged at 5% a year. Profits are to be shared in the ratio of fixed capitals. 24 / 30 A trader has been making a provision for irrecoverable debts for some years. He is now considering reducing the percentage rate of the provision. Which ratios would be affected by this reduction? current ratio gross margin profit margin 1 and 3 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 25 / 30 Which costs are charged to individual jobs in a job costing system? direct materials plus production overhead direct labour plus direct materials direct labour plus production overhead direct labour plus direct materials plus production overhead 26 / 30 C D A B 27 / 30 What is not a reason for a business to maintain a purchases journal? to assist in preparing the purchases ledger control account to divide book-keeping duties between several people to reduce the number of entries in the purchases ledger to keep transactions of a similar nature in one place 28 / 30 B D A C 29 / 30 John and Mary are in partnership. After the first year of operation, the current accounts of both partners had a debit balance. What might have caused the debit balances? drawings loss for the year salaries they are entitled to 2 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 30 / 30 What will apply to a partnership where there is no partnership agreement? Partners are not entitled to interest on loans they make to the partnership. Partners are entitled to interest on the capital they have contributed to the partnership. Partners are not charged interest on their drawings. Partners are entitled to salaries. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
What will be debited in the appropriation account of a partnership?
2 / 30
The totals on a trial balance were: debit $500150 credit $500 000 Which error could have caused the difference?
3 / 30
4 / 30
5 / 30
6 / 30
Why did Amitav prefer to form a partnership with Lennie rather than set up as a sole trader?
7 / 30
8 / 30
A business makes and sells a single product. It has a selling price of $100 and a contribution per unit of $40. When output is 500 units, the business makes a profit of $2000. The direct material price is expected to rise by $4 per unit. How many units will need to be made and sold for the profit to be unchanged?
9 / 30
X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital account balances of $200 000. Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account. Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000. How much capital did Z contribute?
10 / 30
L, M and N are in partnership, sharing profits and losses equally. On 31 December 2020 N retired. At that date:
11 / 30
The balance on the purchases ledger control account did not agree with the total of balances from the purchases ledger accounts. The following errors were then discovered.
12 / 30
13 / 30
14 / 30
15 / 30
A suspense account had a balance of $450 debit. What caused this balance in the suspense account?
16 / 30
Why might a business prepare budgets?
17 / 30
The sales ledger control account of a business had a balance of $17 640. This did not agree with the total of the individual customer accounts in the sales ledger. The following errors have been discovered.
18 / 30
Which statement describes a cost centre rather than a cost unit?
19 / 30
The year end of a business is 31 December 2021. On 5 January 2022, inventory was counted and valued at cost, $30 000. The following was then discovered.
20 / 30
21 / 30
A business increased its profits by changing from marginal costing to absorption costing. Which statement is correct?
22 / 30
23 / 30
The provisions of the Partnership Act apply if partners do not draw up a partnership agreement. Which statement is true as a provision of the Partnership Act?
24 / 30
A trader has been making a provision for irrecoverable debts for some years. He is now considering reducing the percentage rate of the provision. Which ratios would be affected by this reduction?
25 / 30
Which costs are charged to individual jobs in a job costing system?
26 / 30
27 / 30
What is not a reason for a business to maintain a purchases journal?
28 / 30
29 / 30
John and Mary are in partnership. After the first year of operation, the current accounts of both partners had a debit balance. What might have caused the debit balances?
30 / 30
What will apply to a partnership where there is no partnership agreement?
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution decreased, causing water to move into the cell less rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty less frequently. The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution increased, causing water to move into the cell less rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty less frequently. The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution increased, causing water to move into the cell more rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty more frequently. The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution decreased, causing water to move into the cell more rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty more frequently. 2 / 40 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 4 only 3 / 40 When animal cells are cultured, salt solution is added to keep the cells alive. What is the purpose of the salt solution? to prevent net movement of water into or out of the cells to provide a source of energy for active transport to prevent diffusion of other ions in or out of the cells to allow facilitated diffusion of salts into the cells 4 / 40 Which statement about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) is correct for an enzyme with a low affinity for its substrate? It has a high Km and reaches Vmax at a low substrate concentration. It has a low Km and reaches Vmax at a high substrate concentration It has a low Km and reaches Vmax at a low substrate concentration. It has a high Kmm and reaches Vmax at a high substrate concentration. 5 / 40 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 6 / 40 In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood cell is 260 million. How many α-globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human? 1.04 × 109 2.6 × 108 5.2 × 108 1.3 × 108 7 / 40 C B D A 8 / 40 Which molecules contain at least three double bonds? saturated fatty acid, collagen and haemoglobin collagen and saturated fatty acid saturated fatty acid and haemoglobin haemoglobin and collagen 9 / 40 D C A B 10 / 40 C A B D 11 / 40 A B D C 12 / 40 A C B D 13 / 40 A B C D 14 / 40 Which statement helps to explain why the two sugar-phosphate chains in a DNA molecule are a constant distance apart? Each nucleotide molecule is the same size. The sugar-phosphate strands of the helix are held together by sulfur bridges. Adenine and thymine are held together by the same number of hydrogen bonds as cytosine and guanine. Each purine base is linked to a pyrimidine base. 15 / 40 A B D C 16 / 40 C B D A 17 / 40 β-glucose and β-galactose α-glucose and α-galactose β-glucose and α-galactose α-glucose and β-galactose 18 / 40 A D B C 19 / 40 A B D C 20 / 40 Which statement about the structure of the heart is correct? The semilunar valves close when the pressure in the ventricles falls lower than the pressure in the arteries. Closure of valves in the veins prevents backflow of blood into the ventricles. A muscle called the septum separates the atria from the ventricles. There is a small patch of tissue in the right atrium that acts to delay the electrical impulse. 21 / 40 B C D A 22 / 40 Which events occur during ventricular systole? Atrioventricular valves close. Muscle in ventricle walls relaxes. Semilunar valves open. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 23 / 40 One molecule of X is formed by a single condensation reaction releasing one molecule of water. What is molecule X? a phospholipid a triglyceride a disaccharide a polysaccharide 24 / 40 Which statement is correct? Deoxyribose, fructose and ribose are all monosaccharides. Amylase, ribose and phospholipid are all macromolecules. Cellulose, glucose and catalase are all polymers. Sucrose, deoxyribose and amylopectin are all polysaccharides. 25 / 40 non-immobilised, 37 ºC immobilised, 37 ºC non-immobilised, 75 ºC immobilised, 75 ºC 26 / 40 D C A B 27 / 40 C D A B 28 / 40 Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle? interphase telophase cytokinesis 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 29 / 40 Which effect does increasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin? Haemoglobin is more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen. Haemoglobin is less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen. Haemoglobin is more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen. Haemoglobin is less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen. 30 / 40 D C A B 31 / 40 The statements describe some of the properties of water. requires a lot of heat energy to evaporate retains a lot of heat energy is able to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules is able to form hydrogen bonds with other polar and non-polar molecules Which properties are also important for transport in xylem? 1, 2 and 4 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 32 / 40 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 33 / 40 What enables triglycerides to perform their functions in living organisms? Triglycerides have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. Triglycerides have a high ratio of carbon–hydrogen bonds to carbon atoms. Hydrolysis of triglycerides releases metabolic water. 1 and 2 2 and 3 2 only 1 and 3 34 / 40 Batrachotoxin is a poison found in frogs in the Colombian jungle. The poison is used to produce poison darts. The poison works by increasing the permeability of the cell surface membrane of nerve and muscle cells to sodium ions, which move out of the cells. Four students made statements about how the poison affects the cells. Water leaves the cells by osmosis, causing the cells to shrink. Water enters the cells by osmosis, causing the cells to burst. When the sodium ions move out of the cells the intracellular fluid has a more positive water potential than the extracellular fluid. When the sodium ions move out of the cells the extracellular fluid has a more positive water potential than the intracellular fluid. Which statements are correct for the cells affected by batrachotoxin? 1 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 and 4 35 / 40 An indicator mixed with agar forms a pink colour. The pink-coloured agar becomes colourless when put in acid. Blocks of pink-coloured agar are cut to different sizes and put in acid. All other variables are kept constant. Which block becomes colourless most quickly? 6 mm × 12 mm × 12 mm 6 mm × 6 mm × 6 mm 12 mm × 12 mm × 12 mm 3 mm × 30 mm × 30 mm 36 / 40 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 37 / 40 Which processes occur during the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tubes? Protons are pumped out of the cytoplasm of the companion cell into its cell wall. There is a higher concentration of protons in the symplastic pathway outside the companion cell. Protons are unable to move back into the companion cell. A co-transporter molecule acts as a carrier for protons and sucrose. 1 and 2 1 and 4 3 and 4 2 and 3 38 / 40 What are the products when a DNA molecule replicates? two strands of DNA each made of a sequence of paired bases two strands of DNA each made of a sequence of paired nucleotides two molecules of DNA each made of a sequence of paired bases two molecules of DNA each made of a sequence of paired nucleotides 39 / 40 The very large (1000 nm) Pandora viruses found in Chile and Australia are considered to be viruses because they cannot replicate their own genome and cannot make proteins. They also share essential structural features with other viruses. What are the essential structural features of viruses? non-cellular protein coat both DNA and RNA either DNA or RNA 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 40 / 40 Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct? It can only occur with the dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin. It removes excess hydrogen ions, preventing blood from becoming too acidic. It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase. 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
3 / 40
When animal cells are cultured, salt solution is added to keep the cells alive. What is the purpose of the salt solution?
4 / 40
Which statement about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) is correct for an enzyme with a low affinity for its substrate?
5 / 40
6 / 40
In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood cell is 260 million. How many α-globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human?
7 / 40
8 / 40
Which molecules contain at least three double bonds?
9 / 40
10 / 40
11 / 40
12 / 40
13 / 40
14 / 40
Which statement helps to explain why the two sugar-phosphate chains in a DNA molecule are a constant distance apart?
15 / 40
16 / 40
17 / 40
18 / 40
19 / 40
20 / 40
Which statement about the structure of the heart is correct?
21 / 40
22 / 40
Which events occur during ventricular systole?
23 / 40
One molecule of X is formed by a single condensation reaction releasing one molecule of water. What is molecule X?
24 / 40
Which statement is correct?
25 / 40
26 / 40
27 / 40
28 / 40
Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle?
29 / 40
Which effect does increasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin?
30 / 40
31 / 40
The statements describe some of the properties of water.
32 / 40
33 / 40
What enables triglycerides to perform their functions in living organisms?
34 / 40
Batrachotoxin is a poison found in frogs in the Colombian jungle. The poison is used to produce poison darts. The poison works by increasing the permeability of the cell surface membrane of nerve and muscle cells to sodium ions, which move out of the cells. Four students made statements about how the poison affects the cells.
35 / 40
An indicator mixed with agar forms a pink colour. The pink-coloured agar becomes colourless when put in acid. Blocks of pink-coloured agar are cut to different sizes and put in acid. All other variables are kept constant. Which block becomes colourless most quickly?
36 / 40
37 / 40
Which processes occur during the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tubes?
38 / 40
What are the products when a DNA molecule replicates?
39 / 40
The very large (1000 nm) Pandora viruses found in Chile and Australia are considered to be viruses because they cannot replicate their own genome and cannot make proteins. They also share essential structural features with other viruses. What are the essential structural features of viruses?
40 / 40
Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 NH4NO3 decomposes into N2O and H2O on heating. Which statements are correct? The ammonium ion is behaving as a reducing agent. The nitrate(V) ion is behaving as an oxidising agent. It is a redox reaction. It is a disproportionation reaction. 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 / 40 Structural and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. P has molecular formula C5H10O. P produces an orange precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH reagent). How many isomeric structures does P have? 5 8 7 6 3 / 40 C D A B 4 / 40 D B C A 5 / 40 C D B A 6 / 40 Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct? Silver iodide is soluble in a concentrated aqueous solution of ammonia. The square planar ammonium ion contains a dative covalent bond. The ammonium ion has the same number of electrons as a methane molecule. Ammonia gas is produced when an aqueous solution containing the ammonium ion is reacted with a strong acid. 7 / 40 In this question, alkenes and cyclic alkanes should be considered. How many structural isomers of C4H8 are there? 6 3 5 4 8 / 40 no change 4 gained 2 gained 2 lost 9 / 40 2.24 × 108 4.46 × 10–9 7.14 × 10 –5 4.76 × 10–5 10 / 40 Which reagent: can confirm the presence of a carbonyl group in an organic compound does not distinguish between aldehydes and ketones? LiAl H4 Fehling’s reagent acidified K2Cr2O7 2,4-DNPH reagent 11 / 40 A B D C 12 / 40 What is the least number of carbon atoms in a non-cyclic alkane molecule that has a chiral centre? 9 7 8 10 13 / 40 Compound R can be formed from 1-bromopropane using a nucleophilic substitution reaction followed by an oxidation reaction. What is the identity of R? propyl ethanoate propylamine propanoic acid propanone 14 / 40 C B A D 15 / 40 Which reagent will react with pentan-3-ol to give a mixture of stereoisomers? ethanoic acid in the presence of a little concentrated H2SO4 hydrogen chloride concentrated sulfuric acid acidified potassium dichromate 16 / 40 HCN has been detected in interstellar gas. The molecules below have also been detected in interstellar gas. Which molecule contains the same total number of valence shell (outer shell) electrons as HCN? NH3 HNO PN NO 17 / 40 4 2 5 6 18 / 40 a decrease in pressure a decrease in temperature an increase in pressure an increase in temperature 19 / 40 Structural isomerism only should be considered when answering this question. Several compounds with molecular formula C4H8O2 have one carbonyl group and one OH group. How many of these compounds produce yellow crystals with alkaline I2(aq) at room temperature? 3 2 4 5 20 / 40 B A C D 21 / 40 Tartaric acid, HOOCCH(OH)CH(OH)COOH, is found in many plants. A sample of tartaric acid reacts with an excess of LiAlH4 to form the organic product J. What happens when NaOH(aq) is added to separate samples of tartaric acid and J? Only tartaric acid reacts. Both tartaric acid and J react. Only J reacts. Neither tartaric acid nor J react 22 / 40 The carbonate of an s-block element is reacted with an excess of hydrochloric acid. 0.833 g of the carbonate releases 200 cm3 of gas, measured under room conditions. What is the identity of the metal carbonate? K2CO3 Na2CO3 CaCO3 MgCO3 23 / 40 Sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon and phosphorus are all elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table. Three statements about the oxides and chlorides of these elements are given. The ionically bonded oxides all react with dilute hydrochloric acid All metal chlorides produce neutral solutions when added to water The two most electronegative elements both form covalently bonded chlorides. Which statements are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 24 / 40 Compound Q is a white crystalline solid which dissolves easily in water. When concentrated sulfuric acid is added to a dry sample of Q, steamy white fumes are formed. When these white fumes are passed into aqueous silver nitrate solution, a white precipitate forms. This precipitate is soluble in dilute ammonia solution. What is compound Q? AgCl NaCl PbBr2 NaBr 25 / 40 A D C B 26 / 40 A B D C 27 / 40 Which statement about the oxides of nitrogen is correct? During lightning storms, atmospheric oxygen and nitrogen combine to form oxides of nitrogen. In car engines, the restricted supply of oxygen eliminates the possibility of the formation of oxides of nitrogen. In the atmosphere, nitrogen monoxide reacts with sulfur dioxide to produce sulfur trioxide. In a catalytic converter, nitrogen monoxide is removed by reaction with carbon dioxide. 28 / 40 An excess of chlorine was bubbled into 100 cm3 of hot 6.0 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide. How many moles of sodium chloride would be produced in the reaction? 0.30 0.50 0.60 0.72 29 / 40 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 30 / 40 B D C A 31 / 40 Which statement relating to the elements in Group 17 and their compounds is correct? Chlorine reacts with hydrogen to form a colourless gas. Bromide ions react to form a white precipitate when added to silver nitrate solution. Bromine will reduce KI to form iodine. Iodide ions react to form a white precipitate when added to silver nitrate solution. 32 / 40 A carbonyl compound, X, reacts with HCN in the presence of NaCN to make a compound with Mr 85. Compound X does not react with Fehling’s reagent. What is compound X? butanal butanone propanal propanone 33 / 40 The first ionisation energy of potassium, K, is 418 kJ mol–1. The first ionisation energy of strontium, Sr, is 548 kJmol–1. Which statement helps to explain why Sr has a greater first ionisation energy than K? The outer electron in a Sr atom is further from the nucleus than the outer electron in a K atom. The charge on a Sr nucleus is greater than the charge on a K nucleus. The outer electron in a Sr atom experiences greater shielding than the outer electron in a K atom. The outer electron in a Sr atom experiences spin-pair repulsion. 34 / 40 A D C B 35 / 40 Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers? CH3CH(CH3)CH2CO2H CH3CH2COCH3 CH3CH2COCH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2CHO 36 / 40 Which reaction is a redox reaction? ethanenitrile heated under reflux with dilute hydrochloric acid ethanoic acid reacted with aqueous sodium hydroxide ethyl ethanoate heated under reflux with dilute hydrochloric acid ethanoic acid reacted with sodium 37 / 40 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 38 / 40 How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O? 4 1 2 3 39 / 40 C B A D 40 / 40 Which pair of alcohols are isomers of each other? butan-1-ol and 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol pentan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol butan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
NH4NO3 decomposes into N2O and H2O on heating.
Which statements are correct?
Structural and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. P has molecular formula C5H10O. P produces an orange precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH reagent). How many isomeric structures does P have?
Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct?
In this question, alkenes and cyclic alkanes should be considered. How many structural isomers of C4H8 are there?
Which reagent:
What is the least number of carbon atoms in a non-cyclic alkane molecule that has a chiral centre?
Compound R can be formed from 1-bromopropane using a nucleophilic substitution reaction followed by an oxidation reaction. What is the identity of R?
Which reagent will react with pentan-3-ol to give a mixture of stereoisomers?
HCN has been detected in interstellar gas. The molecules below have also been detected in interstellar gas. Which molecule contains the same total number of valence shell (outer shell) electrons as HCN?
Structural isomerism only should be considered when answering this question.
Several compounds with molecular formula C4H8O2 have one carbonyl group and one OH group.
How many of these compounds produce yellow crystals with alkaline I2(aq) at room temperature?
Tartaric acid, HOOCCH(OH)CH(OH)COOH, is found in many plants. A sample of tartaric acid reacts with an excess of LiAlH4 to form the organic product J. What happens when NaOH(aq) is added to separate samples of tartaric acid and J?
The carbonate of an s-block element is reacted with an excess of hydrochloric acid. 0.833 g of the carbonate releases 200 cm3 of gas, measured under room conditions. What is the identity of the metal carbonate?
Sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon and phosphorus are all elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table. Three statements about the oxides and chlorides of these elements are given.
Compound Q is a white crystalline solid which dissolves easily in water. When concentrated sulfuric acid is added to a dry sample of Q, steamy white fumes are formed. When these white fumes are passed into aqueous silver nitrate solution, a white precipitate forms. This precipitate is soluble in dilute ammonia solution. What is compound Q?
Which statement about the oxides of nitrogen is correct?
An excess of chlorine was bubbled into 100 cm3 of hot 6.0 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide. How many moles of sodium chloride would be produced in the reaction?
Which statement relating to the elements in Group 17 and their compounds is correct?
A carbonyl compound, X, reacts with HCN in the presence of NaCN to make a compound with Mr 85. Compound X does not react with Fehling’s reagent.
What is compound X?
The first ionisation energy of potassium, K, is 418 kJ mol–1. The first ionisation energy of strontium, Sr, is 548 kJmol–1. Which statement helps to explain why Sr has a greater first ionisation energy than K?
Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers?
Which reaction is a redox reaction?
How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O?
Which pair of alcohols are isomers of each other?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP? exchange rates changes in the price level interest rates taxation 2 / 30 A B C D 3 / 30 Which statement defines the price elasticity of supply? It is a measure of how the supply of good X responds to a change in the price of good Y. It is a measure of how the supply of a good responds to a change in its cost of production. It is a measure of how the price of a good responds to a change in the quantity supplied. It is a measure of how the quantity supplied of a good responds to a change in its price 4 / 30 What best illustrates the process of privatisation? the purchase of shares in a private company a single private shareholder acquires complete control of an organisation the transfer of public sector assets to the private sector the purchase of government bonds by private sector commercial organisations 5 / 30 A country has a floating exchange rate. An increase in which variable in the country will cause its currency to appreciate? the general price level the interest rate the budget deficit the trade deficit 6 / 30 Assuming nothing else changes, which change in an economy’s labour market will cause the production possibility curve to shift to the left? an increase in the school leaving age an increase in worker immigration an increase in labour productivity an increase in the retirement age 7 / 30 What would be increased by an expansionary fiscal policy? rate of direct taxation money supply budget deficit exchange rate 8 / 30 The cross-elasticity of demand of good S with respect to the price of good P is +1.5. The cross-elasticity of demand of good S with respect to the price of good R is –1.5. The cross-elasticity of demand of good P with respect to the price of good R is –1.5. What can be concluded about goods P, R and S? S and P are substitutes; R is an inferior good. S and P are complements; P and R are substitutes. S and P are substitutes; P and R are complements. S and P are complements; R is an inferior good. 9 / 30 What is likely to explain an increase in the deficit on a country’s current account of the balance of payments? an increase in government tax rates an increase in the proportion of income saved by the country’s residents an increase in government foreign aid to countries abroad an increase in other countries’ exchange rates 10 / 30 Why does the basic economic problem of scarcity apply to both the rich and the poor? Natural resources are unevenly distributed amongst nations. Consumers pay the same prices for goods and services to satisfy their wants. Human wants exceed what can be produced from available resources. The choices people make are not dependent on income inequalities. 11 / 30 Which approach would a government be most likely to use to eliminate deflation? a reduction in indirect taxes a reduction in its budget surplus an increase in direct taxes an increase in interest rates 12 / 30 Exported services were valued at over US$477 428. Imported goods were valued at over US$1 632 639. The value of exported services was less than the value of exported goods. There was an overall current account deficit. 13 / 30 C D A B 14 / 30 An increase in which variable is a contractionary monetary policy? the budget deficit the money supply the budget surplus the interest rate 15 / 30 OWYZ minus OYZ OXYZ minus OYZ OXYZ minus WXY OWYZ minus OWY 16 / 30 C B A D 17 / 30 A government imposes a maximum price on medical face masks, below the market equilibrium. What is the most likely effect of this? Poorer consumers will be able to obtain all the masks they need at the maximum price. Firms will produce more masks to meet the excess demand at the maximum price. Some consumers will be unable to buy face masks at the maximum price. The market will clear at the maximum price. 18 / 30 Which change in economic circumstances is most likely to lead to a reduction in the rate of domestic inflation in an economy? a reduction in the productivity of labour an increase in direct taxes to finance increased welfare payments a worldwide recession a depreciation in the currency 19 / 30 B C D A 20 / 30 Following a 10% depreciation in the $ value of the £ sterling, a UK exporter leaves the $ price of the goods it sells in the US market unchanged. Other things being equal, what will be the effect on the revenue measured in sterling obtained by the manufacturer from its sales in the US? It will decrease. It will be unchanged. It will increase. It will depend on the elasticity of demand for the manufacturer’s good in the US. 21 / 30 Nominal output rose at a faster rate than real output. Nominal output rose at an increasing rate. Nominal output and real output increased at the same rate. Real output rose at a constant rate. 22 / 30 What does the Marshall–Lerner condition state must be present for a depreciation of a currency to cause an improvement in the current account balance? The price elasticity of demand for exports and the price elasticity of demand for imports are both less than one. The sum of the price elasticity of demand for exports and the price elasticity of demand for imports is greater than one. The price elasticity of demand for exports and the price elasticity of demand for imports are both greater than one. The sum of the price elasticity of demand for exports and the price elasticity of demand for imports is less than one. 23 / 30 A country with low unemployment and a managed floating exchange rate has a persistent current account deficit on its balance of payments. Which policy to reduce this deficit is most likely to keep unemployment low, but cause inflation? higher interest rates depreciating its currency higher direct taxation higher import tariffs 24 / 30 A D C B 25 / 30 B A C D 26 / 30 What is not a producer subsidy? a guaranteed minimum price paid to farmers to ensure the long run supply of food a payment made to the unemployed to allow them to buy essential goods and services a grant given to cover losses in an essential industry, such as the rail industry financial assistance given to a pharmaceutical company to develop a new vaccine 27 / 30 A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its balance of payments. What is likely to decrease as a consequence? the exports of capital from the country the prices of imports into the country the prices of imports into the country the level of employment in the country 28 / 30 A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding a fall in output. Which action is most likely to meet its needs? an increase in the exchange rate an increase in the budget surplus an increase in taxation an increase in laws to promote competition 29 / 30 What is the most likely cause of an outward shift of a country’s aggregate demand curve? a decrease in the money supply a decrease in the general price level a depreciation of the country’s exchange rate a decrease in the competitiveness of domestically produced products 30 / 30 The opportunity cost of producing corn falls when moving from M to N Resources used in producing corn are more efficient than in producing wheat The opportunity cost of producing corn is constant when moving from M to N. As the price of corn falls, more of it is demanded. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
What is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP?
Which statement defines the price elasticity of supply?
What best illustrates the process of privatisation?
A country has a floating exchange rate. An increase in which variable in the country will cause its currency to appreciate?
Assuming nothing else changes, which change in an economy’s labour market will cause the production possibility curve to shift to the left?
What would be increased by an expansionary fiscal policy?
The cross-elasticity of demand of good S with respect to the price of good P is +1.5. The cross-elasticity of demand of good S with respect to the price of good R is –1.5. The cross-elasticity of demand of good P with respect to the price of good R is –1.5.
What can be concluded about goods P, R and S?
What is likely to explain an increase in the deficit on a country’s current account of the balance of payments?
Why does the basic economic problem of scarcity apply to both the rich and the poor?
Which approach would a government be most likely to use to eliminate deflation?
An increase in which variable is a contractionary monetary policy?
A government imposes a maximum price on medical face masks, below the market equilibrium. What is the most likely effect of this?
Which change in economic circumstances is most likely to lead to a reduction in the rate of domestic inflation in an economy?
Following a 10% depreciation in the $ value of the £ sterling, a UK exporter leaves the $ price of the goods it sells in the US market unchanged. Other things being equal, what will be the effect on the revenue measured in sterling obtained by the manufacturer from its sales in the US?
What does the Marshall–Lerner condition state must be present for a depreciation of a currency to cause an improvement in the current account balance?
A country with low unemployment and a managed floating exchange rate has a persistent current account deficit on its balance of payments. Which policy to reduce this deficit is most likely to keep unemployment low, but cause inflation?
What is not a producer subsidy?
A country with a floating exchange rate experiences a large surplus on the current account of its balance of payments. What is likely to decrease as a consequence?
A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding a fall in output. Which action is most likely to meet its needs?
What is the most likely cause of an outward shift of a country’s aggregate demand curve?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A laser produces a beam of light of wavelength 650 nm. The beam is incident normally on two slits that are a distance of 0.12 mm apart. A screen is placed parallel to the slits. The bright interference fringes on the screen have a separation of 7.5 cm. What is the distance between the screen and the two slits? 1.4 m 7.0 m 14 m 2.8 m 2 / 40 A metal wire is connected between the terminals of a cell so that there is a current in the wire. Which statement is correct? Positively charged nuclei in the wire move from the positive terminal to the negative terminal. Negatively charged nuclei in the wire move from the negative terminal to the positive terminal. Negatively charged electrons in the wire move from the negative terminal to the positive terminal. Positively charged electrons in the wire move from the positive terminal to the negative terminal. 3 / 40 not precise and not accurate accurate and precise accurate but not precise precise but not accurate 4 / 40 C B D A 5 / 40 A B C D 6 / 40 4.1 × 10–7 m 8.2 × 10–7 m 9.4 × 10–7 m 4.7 × 10–7 m 7 / 40 loudspeaker microphone electric bell buzzer 8 / 40 X and Y take the same time to return to the ground. X and Y are at rest at their maximum heights. X and Y travel the same distance. X and Y are fired with the same speed. 9 / 40 A D C B 10 / 40 Which quantity is a vector? speed temperature Young modulus momentum 11 / 40 4 cm s–1 8 cm s–1 2 cm s–1 6 cm s–1 12 / 40 2U U/4 4U U 13 / 40 C D A B 14 / 40 A D B C 15 / 40 A telescope detects and analyses some electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 2 cm. Which type of telescope is it? X-ray telescope radio telescope microwave telescope optical telescope 16 / 40 D C B A 17 / 40 B D A C 18 / 40 A wire has a length of 3.0 m and is made of metal of resistivity 4.9 × 10–7 Ωm. A potential difference (p.d.) of 12V is applied across the wire so that it has a current of 1.4A. What is the cross-sectional area of the wire? 1.7 × 10–7 m2 1.2 × 10–7 m2 1.3 × 10–5 m2 1.1 × 10–6 m2 19 / 40 B D A C 20 / 40 C B D A 21 / 40 D C B A 22 / 40 A ball has a mass of 0.50 kg and a volume of 1.3 × 10–3 m3. The ball is floating in equilibrium on still water. The two forces that act on the ball are its weight and the upthrust due to the water. The density of the water is 1.0 × 103 kg m–3. What is the percentage of the volume of the ball above the surface of the water? 62% 3.9% 96% 38% 23 / 40 Which statement about progressive transverse and longitudinal waves is correct? Particles in a transverse wave have fixed equilibrium positions but those in longitudinal waves do not. Two-source interference can be demonstrated with transverse waves but not with longitudinal waves. Transverse waves can be polarised but longitudinal waves cannot. Transverse waves transfer energy but longitudinal waves do not. 24 / 40 For a current-carrying wire, the current can be calculated using the equation shown. I = Anvq What is the meaning of n? the number of charge carriers per unit length of the wire the number of charge carriers per unit volume of the wire the number of charge carriers multiplied by the volume of the wire the number of charge carriers in the wire 25 / 40 1.5V 12.1V 7.1V 2.1V 26 / 40 A metal wire is stretched. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. Which quantity has a value that does not change? extension strain Young modulus stress 27 / 40 Which product of two quantities is equal to power? work done × velocity force × distance force × velocity work done × time 28 / 40 precise to ± 0.1 kg and not accurate to ± 0.1 kg precise to ± 0.1 kg and accurate to ± 0.1 kg not precise to ± 0.1 kg and not accurate to ± 0.1 kg not precise to ± 0.1 kg and accurate to ± 0.1 kg 29 / 40 An experiment is set up to demonstrate the diffraction of water waves in a ripple tank. The waves pass through a gap of width w and some diffraction of the waves is observed. The wavelength of the waves is now doubled. What is the new gap width needed to cause the same amount of diffraction as before? 2w 4w w 0.5w 30 / 40 A progressive wave of frequency 1.5 kHz travels in a medium at a speed of 340 m s–1. What is the minimum distance between two points on the wave that have a phase difference of 70°? 4.4 cm 8.8 cm 23 cm 18 cm 31 / 40 D A C B 32 / 40 What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component? energy transferred per unit current energy transferred per unit time energy transferred per unit charge energy transferred per unit resistance 33 / 40 15 m s–2 6.5 m s–2 9.8 m s–2 4.9 m s–2 34 / 40 The spring loses gravitational potential energy and gains elastic potential energy. The spring gains both gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy. The spring gains gravitational potential energy and loses elastic potential energy. The spring loses both gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy. 35 / 40 B D C A 36 / 40 710 m 390 m 570 m 770 m 37 / 40 4 J 12 J 6 J 8 J 38 / 40 0.87 I30 0.25 I30 0.75 I30 0.33 I30 39 / 40 A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011Pa. One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. What is the extension of the wire? 3.0 × 10–4 m 3.0 × 10–7 m 3.0 × 10–5 m 3.0 × 10–2 m 40 / 40 A rock of mass 40 kg is released from rest from a height of 20 m above the surface of a planet. The rock has a kinetic energy of 32 kJ when it hits the surface of the planet. The planet does not have an atmosphere. What is the weight of the rock on the surface of the planet? 64 kN 1.6 kN 390 N 1.6 N NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
A laser produces a beam of light of wavelength 650 nm. The beam is incident normally on two slits that are a distance of 0.12 mm apart. A screen is placed parallel to the slits. The bright interference fringes on the screen have a separation of 7.5 cm. What is the distance between the screen and the two slits?
A metal wire is connected between the terminals of a cell so that there is a current in the wire. Which statement is correct?
Which quantity is a vector?
A telescope detects and analyses some electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 2 cm. Which type of telescope is it?
A wire has a length of 3.0 m and is made of metal of resistivity 4.9 × 10–7 Ωm. A potential difference (p.d.) of 12V is applied across the wire so that it has a current of 1.4A. What is the cross-sectional area of the wire?
A ball has a mass of 0.50 kg and a volume of 1.3 × 10–3 m3. The ball is floating in equilibrium on still water. The two forces that act on the ball are its weight and the upthrust due to the water. The density of the water is 1.0 × 103 kg m–3. What is the percentage of the volume of the ball above the surface of the water?
Which statement about progressive transverse and longitudinal waves is correct?
For a current-carrying wire, the current can be calculated using the equation shown. I = Anvq What is the meaning of n?
A metal wire is stretched. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. Which quantity has a value that does not change?
Which product of two quantities is equal to power?
An experiment is set up to demonstrate the diffraction of water waves in a ripple tank. The waves pass through a gap of width w and some diffraction of the waves is observed. The wavelength of the waves is now doubled. What is the new gap width needed to cause the same amount of diffraction as before?
A progressive wave of frequency 1.5 kHz travels in a medium at a speed of 340 m s–1. What is the minimum distance between two points on the wave that have a phase difference of 70°?
What is the definition of the potential difference across an electrical component?
A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011Pa. One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. What is the extension of the wire?
A rock of mass 40 kg is released from rest from a height of 20 m above the surface of a planet. The rock has a kinetic energy of 32 kJ when it hits the surface of the planet. The planet does not have an atmosphere. What is the weight of the rock on the surface of the planet?
