0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 The bank column of the cash book showed a credit balance of $2915. This did not agree with the balance shown on the bank statement. It was then discovered that: a bank transfer, $150, from a customer was not recorded in the cash book a cheque, $450, received from a customer was not recorded on the bank statement a cheque, $530, issued to a supplier was incorrectly recorded in the cash book as $350 but was correctly recorded by the bank bank charge, $25, was not recorded in the cash book. When these items were adjusted, the cash book balance agreed with the bank statement balance. What was the balance shown on the bank statement before any adjustments were made? $2520 debit $2520 credit $3420 debit $3420 credit 2 / 30 Which items are included in the marginal cost of a unit of production? direct labour and direct materials only direct labour, direct materials and variable production overheads only direct labour, direct materials, fixed costs and variable production overheads direct labour, direct materials, fixed production costs and variable production overheads 3 / 30 D C A B 4 / 30 $38 000 $34 000 $44 000 $41 000 5 / 30 $7000 $9000 $29 000 $19 000 6 / 30 A company paid an ordinary share dividend of $15 000 in the year. Where would it appear in the financial statements? under retained earnings in the statement of changes in equity under share capital in the statement of changes in equity as a finance cost in the income statement as an administrative expense in the income statement 7 / 30 $70 000 $69 000 $68 000 $71 000 8 / 30 $1300 overstated $1300 understated $2700 overstated $2700 understated 9 / 30 When a company produces 5000 units of a product it requires one supervisor. If production is increased beyond 5000 units then two supervisors are required. Which type of cost is this an example of? variable semi-variable stepped fixed 10 / 30 C D B A 11 / 30 What is a limitation of absorption costing? It does not take into account all costs of production. It does not comply with accounting principles It is not accepted for preparing published financial statements. It is not useful for improving the organisation’s performance. 12 / 30 $135 000 $81 000 $54 000 $90 000 13 / 30 What are shown in the statement of changes in equity? bonus issue, dividends proposed, loss for the year rights issue, dividends paid, profit for the year bonus issue, debenture interest paid, profit for the year rights issue, debenture interest paid, loss for the year 14 / 30 An employee is paid at the hourly rate of $20 basic pay for working 8 hours a day. Overtime is paid at the hourly rate of basic pay plus 25% (time and a quarter). A productivity bonus is also paid at the hourly rate of basic pay plus 50% (time and a half) for every unit produced more than 30 units per day. On Wednesday, the employee worked 10 hours and produced 32 units. How much was the employee’s gross pay for Wednesday? $210 $220 $310 $270 15 / 30 A production worker is paid $15 per hour for working 8 hours a day. Overtime is paid at the rate of time and a fifth (basic pay plus 20%). A productivity bonus is also paid at the rate of $21 per unit for each unit produced in excess of 12 units per day. Last Friday, the production worker worked 12 hours and assembled 14 units. How much did he earn on Friday? $162 $192 $144 $234 16 / 30 17.25% 23.53% 20.17% 14.78% 17 / 30 Which statements about budgeting are correct? Accurate overhead allocations are always made. Managers may make budgets easy to achieve. Financial factors are considered. Very little time is taken to produce the budget. 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 3 and 4 18 / 30 3.67 times 3.16 times 3.74 times 3.09 times 19 / 30 A bank statement shows a credit balance of $8360. Comparison with the cash book reveals: bank charges of $124 have not been entered in the cash book cheques received from customers for $16 223 have not been credited by the bank cheques sent to suppliers for $18 725 have not been presented. What is the correct cash book balance? $5734 debit $5734 credit $5858 debit $10 986 credit 20 / 30 X, Y and Z are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. At 31 December 2020, X had a capital account balance of $100 000 and a current account credit balance of $80 000. On 1 January 2021 X retired. Non-current assets and goodwill were revalued upwards by a total of $60 000. X left half the amount due to her on retirement as a loan to the partnership. The balance was paid to her by cheque. How much was X paid? $40 000 $120 000 $100 000 $60 000 21 / 30 The total of shareholders’ equity at 31 December 2019 was $45 500. During the year ended 31 December 2020, the following took place. An issue of 10 000 ordinary shares of $1 each at a premium of $0.25 was made. A bonus issue of 5000 shares of $1 each was made. Buildings were revalued from $250 000 to $265 000. The profit for the year was $20 400. There was a transfer to the general reserve of $6000. The directors proposed a final dividend of $8000. What was the balance of the shareholders’ equity at 31 December 2020? $85 400 $87 400 $93 400 $98 400 22 / 30 Charlie and Daphne are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :1. Their fixed capital account balances at 31 December 2019 were $20 000 and $13 000 respectively. They changed the terms of the partnership on 1 January 2020 to introduce interest on capital at the rate of 10% per annum. Which effect did this change have on Charlie’s total share of profit for the year ended 31 December 2020? increase of $200 decrease of $700 increase of $700 decrease of $200 23 / 30 A trial balance included a suspense account. The bank balance of $28 412 had mistakenly been entered as an overdraft and placed on the credit side as $28 142. There had also been an addition error and the debit side of the trial balance had been undercast by $450. Which entry in the suspense account will correct these errors? debit $57 004 debit $56 104 credit $57 004 credit $56 104 24 / 30 46.67% 48.67% 53.33% 32.67% 25 / 30 B D C A 26 / 30 A trader keeps a full set of accounting records. Which statement is correct? Sales invoices are recorded in the general journal. Credit notes issued are recorded in the sales journal. The sales journal is prepared from entries in the sales ledger. The sales account is kept in the general ledger. 27 / 30 A business pays its employees $2 for each unit of X they assemble and $3.20 for each unit of Y. Monthly output is 1800 units of X and 1000 units of Y. The factory supervisor is paid $1000 per month. What is the direct labour cost per month? $7760 $6800 $7800 $8760 28 / 30 D B A C 29 / 30 A company received its bank statement dated 30 June showing a credit balance of $6890. The cash book on this date had a debit balance of $7234. The following items were discovered. Bank charges of $54 had not been entered in the cash book. Deposits made to the bank on 30 June for $490 had not been shown on the bank statement. Suppliers had not banked cheques for $200. Which figure should be used for bank in the statement of financial position at 30 June? $7126 $6654 $7180 $6600 30 / 30 A business had calculated a draft profit for the year. The following items have been discovered. A customer has been declared bankrupt and is unable to pay the amount they owe. Unsold goods on sale or return basis have been included in inventory. Rent paid in advance has not been included. The owner’s cash drawings have been entered into the owner’s capital account. Which of these need to be adjusted to calculate the correct profit for the period? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
The bank column of the cash book showed a credit balance of $2915. This did not agree with the balance shown on the bank statement. It was then discovered that:
2 / 30
Which items are included in the marginal cost of a unit of production?
3 / 30
4 / 30
5 / 30
6 / 30
A company paid an ordinary share dividend of $15 000 in the year. Where would it appear in the financial statements?
7 / 30
8 / 30
9 / 30
When a company produces 5000 units of a product it requires one supervisor. If production is increased beyond 5000 units then two supervisors are required. Which type of cost is this an example of?
10 / 30
11 / 30
What is a limitation of absorption costing?
12 / 30
13 / 30
What are shown in the statement of changes in equity?
14 / 30
An employee is paid at the hourly rate of $20 basic pay for working 8 hours a day. Overtime is paid at the hourly rate of basic pay plus 25% (time and a quarter). A productivity bonus is also paid at the hourly rate of basic pay plus 50% (time and a half) for every unit produced more than 30 units per day. On Wednesday, the employee worked 10 hours and produced 32 units. How much was the employee’s gross pay for Wednesday?
15 / 30
A production worker is paid $15 per hour for working 8 hours a day. Overtime is paid at the rate of time and a fifth (basic pay plus 20%). A productivity bonus is also paid at the rate of $21 per unit for each unit produced in excess of 12 units per day. Last Friday, the production worker worked 12 hours and assembled 14 units. How much did he earn on Friday?
16 / 30
17 / 30
Which statements about budgeting are correct?
18 / 30
19 / 30
A bank statement shows a credit balance of $8360. Comparison with the cash book reveals:
20 / 30
X, Y and Z are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. At 31 December 2020, X had a capital account balance of $100 000 and a current account credit balance of $80 000. On 1 January 2021 X retired. Non-current assets and goodwill were revalued upwards by a total of $60 000. X left half the amount due to her on retirement as a loan to the partnership. The balance was paid to her by cheque. How much was X paid?
21 / 30
The total of shareholders’ equity at 31 December 2019 was $45 500. During the year ended 31 December 2020, the following took place.
22 / 30
Charlie and Daphne are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :1. Their fixed capital account balances at 31 December 2019 were $20 000 and $13 000 respectively. They changed the terms of the partnership on 1 January 2020 to introduce interest on capital at the rate of 10% per annum. Which effect did this change have on Charlie’s total share of profit for the year ended 31 December 2020?
23 / 30
A trial balance included a suspense account. The bank balance of $28 412 had mistakenly been entered as an overdraft and placed on the credit side as $28 142. There had also been an addition error and the debit side of the trial balance had been undercast by $450. Which entry in the suspense account will correct these errors?
24 / 30
25 / 30
26 / 30
A trader keeps a full set of accounting records. Which statement is correct?
27 / 30
A business pays its employees $2 for each unit of X they assemble and $3.20 for each unit of Y. Monthly output is 1800 units of X and 1000 units of Y. The factory supervisor is paid $1000 per month. What is the direct labour cost per month?
28 / 30
29 / 30
A company received its bank statement dated 30 June showing a credit balance of $6890. The cash book on this date had a debit balance of $7234. The following items were discovered.
Which figure should be used for bank in the statement of financial position at 30 June?
30 / 30
A business had calculated a draft profit for the year. The following items have been discovered.
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What is present in a typical prokaryotic cell and a typical eukaryotic cell? starch granules 70S ribosomes circular DNA in the cytoplasm centrioles 2 / 40 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 and 3 3 only 3 / 40 D A B C 4 / 40 Which structures are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? nucleus and mitochondria mitochondria and ribosomes cell membrane and ribosomes cell membrane and nucleus 5 / 40 C D A B 6 / 40 Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria? coronary artery vena cava pulmonary artery pulmonary vein 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 7 / 40 Which statements about water movement in plants are correct? Water can pass through cellulose cell walls. Water cannot pass through lignified cell walls. Water can pass through cell walls that contain suberin 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 8 / 40 Which factors contribute to outbreaks of measles after natural disasters? contamination of drinking water with untreated sewage lack of effective vaccination coverage in the population before the disaster people living in overcrowded accommodation 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 9 / 40 An indicator is colourless in acid and pink in alkali. In an experiment a petri dish of agar was prepared using an acidic solution of this indicator. A disc of agar 1 cm in diameter was removed from the centre to create a well. A white card showing circular marker lines 1 cm apart was placed underneath the petri dish. 1 cm3 alkali solution was put into the well in the agar and a stop-watch was started. A circular disc of pink colour appeared and spread through the agar. It reached the first marker line in a short time but took longer to reach the second marker line and a very long time to reach the third marker line. What explains these observations? facilitated diffusion of alkali solution simple diffusion of the indicator simple diffusion of alkali solution facilitated diffusion of the indicator 10 / 40 A B C D 11 / 40 Which statement about collagen is correct? It is an insoluble fibrous protein with a quaternary structure. One-third of the amino acids making up collagen are valine. A collagen fibre is made of three parallel helices with hydrogen bonds holding them in place. Collagen fibres are formed from several collagen molecules held together by ionic bonds. 12 / 40 What is the function of the nucleolus? the formation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope the formation of rough endoplasmic reticulum the synthesis of rRNA the synthesis of ribosomal proteins 13 / 40 Sucrose is loaded into phloem sieve tubes from companion cells. What is the correct order of statements that explains this mechanism? Hydrogen ions diffuse into companion cells through co-transporter proteins. Hydrogen ions are pumped out of companion cells by active transport. Sucrose diffuses into phloem sieve tubes via plasmodesmata. Sucrose is co-transported along with hydrogen ions. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 14 / 40 What will reduce the rate at which bacteria become resistant to antibiotics? prescribing two antibiotics with different modes of action prescribing different antibiotics for the same bacterium finishing a prescribed course of antibiotics 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 15 / 40 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can form between two single water molecules? 3 2 4 1 16 / 40 Which disease is spread by a vector? cholera measles AIDS/HIV malaria 17 / 40 C B D A 18 / 40 Which component of plants is used by the apoplast pathway as water is moved from the soil to the xylem? endodermis cellulose suberin Casparian strip 19 / 40 What has contributed to the increase in antibiotic resistance in bacteria? increased use of vaccines for animal diseases mutations in bacterial DNA patients not completing their antibiotic treatment 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 20 / 40 The following advice was given to a person travelling to a country where there had been an outbreak of an infectious disease. Cook food well and eat it hot. Peel fruit and vegetables. Drink only cool, boiled water Wash hands often with soap and cool, boiled water. Which infectious disease would this advice help to protect against? malaria cholera tuberculosis measles 21 / 40 Which description of collagen is correct? A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains, each in the shape of a helix. The three chains are wound together into a triple helix called a fibre. A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains, each of which is an -helix. The three chains are wound tightly together into a triple helix. Many of these triple helices bind together as a fibre. A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains in which every third amino acid is glycine. The three polypeptides are wound tightly together into a triple helix. Many of these helices form a fibre. A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains wound tightly into a triple helix called a fibre. 22 / 40 ×4000 ×400 ×250 ×1000 23 / 40 The statements refer to the disease tuberculosis (TB). The pathogen is not accessible to the immune system. The bacterial pathogen reproduces slowly. The pathogen is not very sensitive to antibiotics. Which statements explain why antibiotic treatment for TB takes a long time? 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 24 / 40 A hurricane destroys a large town on an island. People move away from the town and set up tents, where sanitation is poor. Which disease is most likely to spread within a week of the change in living conditions? malaria HIV TB cholera 25 / 40 D B A C 26 / 40 What happens to the surface area to volume ratio of a cube when the length of each side is doubled? The ratio decreases by four times. The ratio doubles. The ratio increases by four times. The ratio halves. 27 / 40 When a gene for protease is activated, which nucleic acid will be formed? mRNA DNA tRNA rRNA 28 / 40 Which mechanism accounts for the way most of the carbon dioxide is transported in blood? Carbon dioxide dissolves in plasma and is carried in solution Carbon dioxide is converted to carbaminohaemoglobin inside red blood cells. Carbon dioxide is converted to hydrogencarbonate ions inside red blood cells. Carbon dioxide is converted to carboxyhaemoglobin inside red blood cells. 29 / 40 In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood cell is 260 million. How many α-globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human? 5.2 × 108 2.6 × 108 1.04 × 109 1.3 × 108 30 / 40 How many times must a molecule of oxygen pass through a cell surface membrane as it diffuses from the airspace inside an alveolus, through a cell in the capillary wall, to bind to a molecule of haemoglobin? 10 4 5 3 31 / 40 The Cl atoms cannot cause an induced fit, so sucralose does not enter the active site of sucrase. The Cl atoms cause fewer temporary hydrogen bonds between sucralose and the active site of sucrase. The Cl atoms change the shape of the sucralose molecule so it is not the same shape as the active site of sucrase. The Cl atoms of the modified fructose cannot bind to the active site of sucrase. 32 / 40 A D C B 33 / 40 Which factors can be changed to affect the rate of facilitated diffusion across a cell surface membrane? the surface area of the membrane the concentration gradient the number of specific protein channels 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 34 / 40 C D B A 35 / 40 B C D A 36 / 40 B D C A 37 / 40 B C D A 38 / 40 5 × 10-2 mm2 4.909 × 104 µm2 0.04909 mm2 4.91 × 104 µm2 39 / 40 Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl–) in the chloride shift. What is the importance of the chloride shift? It maintains a balance of positive and negative charge between the cell and the plasma. It helps to maintain a neutral pH in the red blood cell by acting as a buffer. It prevents carbon dioxide combining with haemoglobin, allowing haemoglobin to combine with oxygen. It causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, releasing more oxygen. 40 / 40 measure the diameter of the cell in millimetres, multiply by 2000 and divide by the length of the scale bar measured in millimetres measure the length of the scale bar in millimetres, convert to micrometres and multiply by 2 measure the length of the scale bar in millimetres, convert to micrometres and divide by 2 divide the diameter of the cell by the length of the scale bar, with both measured in the same units of length NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
What is present in a typical prokaryotic cell and a typical eukaryotic cell?
2 / 40
3 / 40
4 / 40
Which structures are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
5 / 40
6 / 40
Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria?
7 / 40
Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?
8 / 40
Which factors contribute to outbreaks of measles after natural disasters?
9 / 40
An indicator is colourless in acid and pink in alkali. In an experiment a petri dish of agar was prepared using an acidic solution of this indicator. A disc of agar 1 cm in diameter was removed from the centre to create a well. A white card showing circular marker lines 1 cm apart was placed underneath the petri dish. 1 cm3 alkali solution was put into the well in the agar and a stop-watch was started. A circular disc of pink colour appeared and spread through the agar. It reached the first marker line in a short time but took longer to reach the second marker line and a very long time to reach the third marker line. What explains these observations?
10 / 40
11 / 40
Which statement about collagen is correct?
12 / 40
What is the function of the nucleolus?
13 / 40
Sucrose is loaded into phloem sieve tubes from companion cells. What is the correct order of statements that explains this mechanism?
14 / 40
What will reduce the rate at which bacteria become resistant to antibiotics?
15 / 40
What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can form between two single water molecules?
16 / 40
Which disease is spread by a vector?
17 / 40
18 / 40
Which component of plants is used by the apoplast pathway as water is moved from the soil to the xylem?
19 / 40
What has contributed to the increase in antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
20 / 40
The following advice was given to a person travelling to a country where there had been an outbreak of an infectious disease.
Which infectious disease would this advice help to protect against?
21 / 40
Which description of collagen is correct?
22 / 40
23 / 40
The statements refer to the disease tuberculosis (TB).
Which statements explain why antibiotic treatment for TB takes a long time?
24 / 40
A hurricane destroys a large town on an island. People move away from the town and set up tents, where sanitation is poor. Which disease is most likely to spread within a week of the change in living conditions?
25 / 40
26 / 40
What happens to the surface area to volume ratio of a cube when the length of each side is doubled?
27 / 40
When a gene for protease is activated, which nucleic acid will be formed?
28 / 40
Which mechanism accounts for the way most of the carbon dioxide is transported in blood?
29 / 40
In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood cell is 260 million. How many α-globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human?
30 / 40
How many times must a molecule of oxygen pass through a cell surface membrane as it diffuses from the airspace inside an alveolus, through a cell in the capillary wall, to bind to a molecule of haemoglobin?
31 / 40
32 / 40
33 / 40
Which factors can be changed to affect the rate of facilitated diffusion across a cell surface membrane?
34 / 40
35 / 40
36 / 40
37 / 40
38 / 40
39 / 40
Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl–) in the chloride shift. What is the importance of the chloride shift?
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. Y is a gaseous hydrocarbon which decolourises aqueous bromine. 10.0 g of Y occupies a volume of 3.43 dm3 under room conditions. How many isomeric structures are possible for Y? 4 7 5 6 2 / 40 How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O? 3 2 4 1 3 / 40 Both forward and backward rates increase. The backward rate only increases. The forward rate only increases. There is no effect on the backward or forward rates. 4 / 40 For a particular reversible reaction the backward reaction is endothermic. The activation energy of the backward reaction is 160 kJ mol−1. It can be assumed that the backward reaction proceeds by a mechanism that is the exact reverse of the mechanism for the forward reaction. Which statement about the activation energy of the forward reaction is correct? The activation energy of the forward reaction is equal to −160 kJ mol<sup>−1</sup> The activation energy of the forward reaction is 0 kJ mol<sup>−1</sup> but less than +160 kJ mol<sup>−1</sup> The activation energy of the forward reaction is greater than +160 kJ mol<sup>−1</sup> The activation energy of the forward reaction is equal to +160 kJ mol<sup>−1</sup> 5 / 40 This question refers to isolated gaseous atoms in the ground state. In which atom are all electrons paired? S Br Ba Si 6 / 40 In the mass spectrum of a compound, Z, the relative abundances of the M and M+1 peaks are in the ratio 13 :1. What is compound Z? 3,3-dimethylpentan-1-ol butyl butanoate 2,2,3-trimethylhexane hexan-3-one 7 / 40 NH3(aq) is added to separate samples of NaCl(aq), MgCl2(aq), BaCl2(aq) and SiCl4(l). Under the conditions of this experiment, only two samples will produce a white precipitate when NH3(aq) is added. What are these two samples? MgCl2(aq) and BaCl2(aq) NaCl(aq) and SiCl4(l) MgCl2(aq) and SiCl4(l) NaCl(aq) and BaCl2(aq) 8 / 40 Compound Q can be hydrolysed by HCl(aq). The two products of this hydrolysis have the same empirical formula. What could Q be? CH3CH2CO2CH2CH2CH3 CH3CO2CH2CH2OH CH3CO2CH2CH2CO2H CH3CH2CH(OH)CH(OH)CH2CH3 9 / 40 C A D B 10 / 40 Structural isomerism only should be considered when answering this question. Several compounds with molecular formula C4H8O2 have one carbonyl group and one OH group. How many of these compounds produce yellow crystals with alkaline I2(aq) at room temperature? 3 2 4 5 11 / 40 Why is the ionic radius of a sulfide ion larger than the ionic radius of a potassium ion? The sulfide ion is doubly charged; the potassium ion is singly charged. Positive ions always have smaller radii than negative ions. Ionic radius always decreases with increasing atomic number. The potassium ion has more protons in its nucleus than the sulfide ion. 12 / 40 How many bonds are present in one H–C≡C–C(CH3)=CH(CH3) molecule? 11 5 16 13 13 / 40 The Contact process takes place at a pressure between 100 000 Pa and 200 000 Pa. A catalyst is used. Which statement is correct? V2O5 A catalyst is added to increase the equilibrium yield of the reaction. An iron catalyst is added to increase the rate of reaction Changes in pressure have no effect on the position of equilibrium. The equilibrium yield of the reaction is very high under the conditions used. 14 / 40 C A D B 15 / 40 C B D A 16 / 40 2.1 g 4.2 g 2.8 g 1.4 g 17 / 40 A student mixes 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide solution with 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid. The temperature increases by 2.5 °C. No heat is lost to the surroundings. The final mixture has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J cm–3K–1. What is the molar enthalpy change for the reaction? –150 kJ mol–1 –0.15 kJ mol–1 –60 kJ mol–1 –30 kJ mol–1 18 / 40 A sample containing 0.010 mol of anhydrous calcium nitrate is heated strongly until it fully decomposes. All the gas produced is collected and its volume measured at room conditions. What is the volume of gas produced? 840 cm3 720 cm3 600 cm3 120 cm3 19 / 40 In which species are the numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons all different? 3919 K+ 3216 S2- 2713Al 3517 Cl– 20 / 40 A D B C 21 / 40 Which emission from an internal combustion engine contributes to the erosion of marble statues? unburnt hydrocarbons carbon monoxide nitrogen nitrogen dioxide 22 / 40 Element X has the second largest atomic radius in its period. An atom of X has three occupied electron shells only. The oxide of X is shaken with water. What could be the pH of the resulting solution? 14 5 9 7 23 / 40 The compound was sodium chloride, NaCl. At least one of the recorded observations is incorrect. The compound was magnesium chloride, MgCl2. The compound was phosphorus pentachloride, PCl5. 24 / 40 2 5 4 6 25 / 40 The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature. With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl . With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S. What is the explanation for this difference in products? Chloride ions will displace iodine from the solution. Iodide ions are better reducing agents than chloride ions Hydrogen chloride is more volatile than hydrogen iodide. Sulfuric acid is able to act as a dehydrating agent with NaI. 26 / 40 D C B A 27 / 40 A C D B 28 / 40 The diagram shows a section of a polymer molecule. –CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH=CH–CH2– Which monomer will produce this polymer? CH<sub>3</sub>CH=CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub>=CH–CH=CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>3</sub>CH=CHCH<sub>3</sub> CH<sub>2</sub>=CH<sub>2</sub> 29 / 40 B C A D 30 / 40 Three organic compounds are listed. ethanal propan-1-ol propan-2-ol Which compounds will have a mass spectrum that contains a fragment peak at m/ e = 43? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 31 / 40 A mixture contains magnesium carbonate and barium carbonate only. A sample of the mixture is dissolved in nitric acid to produce a solution. How could this solution be processed into a magnesium compound and a separate barium compound? Add HCl(aq), filter off the solid magnesium chloride. Add H2SO4(aq), filter off the solid barium sulfate. Add HCl(aq), filter off the solid barium chloride. Add H2SO4(aq), filter off the solid magnesium sulfate. 32 / 40 Which reaction is a redox reaction? ethanoic acid reacted with sodium ethanenitrile heated under reflux with dilute hydrochloric acid ethyl ethanoate heated under reflux with dilute hydrochloric acid ethanoic acid reacted with aqueous sodium hydroxide 33 / 40 Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct? The reaction is slower with 1-chloropropane because the C–Cl bond is stronger than the C–Br bond. The hydrolysis reaction between water and 1-iodopropane is faster because the C–Br bond is less polar than the C–I bond. The mechanism of the reaction involves the formation of a stable carbocation. The hydrolysis reaction with water is very slow because water is a weak electrophile. 34 / 40 D A B C 35 / 40 What is the least number of carbon atoms in a non-cyclic alkane molecule that has a chiral centre? 10 8 7 9 36 / 40 The catalyst has no effect on the value of Kc. The catalyst provides a different reaction mechanism with a higher activation energy. The catalyst increases the value of Kc. The catalyst alters the Boltzmann distribution so that the reactant molecules have more energy. 37 / 40 A D C B 38 / 40 Three statements about potassium and chlorine and their ions are listed. The atomic radius of a potassium atom is greater than the atomic radius of a chlorine atom. The first ionisation energy of potassium is greater than the first ionisation energy of chlorine. The ionic radius of a potassium ion is greater than the ionic radius of a chloride ion. Which statements are correct? 1 and 3 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 39 / 40 B C D A 40 / 40 D B C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. Y is a gaseous hydrocarbon which decolourises aqueous bromine. 10.0 g of Y occupies a volume of 3.43 dm3 under room conditions. How many isomeric structures are possible for Y?
How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O?
For a particular reversible reaction the backward reaction is endothermic. The activation energy of the backward reaction is 160 kJ mol−1. It can be assumed that the backward reaction proceeds by a mechanism that is the exact reverse of the mechanism for the forward reaction. Which statement about the activation energy of the forward reaction is correct?
This question refers to isolated gaseous atoms in the ground state. In which atom are all electrons paired?
In the mass spectrum of a compound, Z, the relative abundances of the M and M+1 peaks are in the ratio 13 :1. What is compound Z?
NH3(aq) is added to separate samples of NaCl(aq), MgCl2(aq), BaCl2(aq) and SiCl4(l). Under the conditions of this experiment, only two samples will produce a white precipitate when NH3(aq) is added.
What are these two samples?
Compound Q can be hydrolysed by HCl(aq). The two products of this hydrolysis have the same empirical formula. What could Q be?
Structural isomerism only should be considered when answering this question.
Several compounds with molecular formula C4H8O2 have one carbonyl group and one OH group.
How many of these compounds produce yellow crystals with alkaline I2(aq) at room temperature?
Why is the ionic radius of a sulfide ion larger than the ionic radius of a potassium ion?
How many bonds are present in one H–C≡C–C(CH3)=CH(CH3) molecule?
The Contact process takes place at a pressure between 100 000 Pa and 200 000 Pa. A catalyst is used. Which statement is correct?
A student mixes 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide solution with 25.0 cm3 of 0.350 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid. The temperature increases by 2.5 °C. No heat is lost to the surroundings. The final mixture has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J cm–3K–1. What is the molar enthalpy change for the reaction?
A sample containing 0.010 mol of anhydrous calcium nitrate is heated strongly until it fully decomposes. All the gas produced is collected and its volume measured at room conditions. What is the volume of gas produced?
In which species are the numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons all different?
Which emission from an internal combustion engine contributes to the erosion of marble statues?
Element X has the second largest atomic radius in its period. An atom of X has three occupied electron shells only. The oxide of X is shaken with water. What could be the pH of the resulting solution?
The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature. With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl . With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S. What is the explanation for this difference in products?
The diagram shows a section of a polymer molecule. –CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH=CH–CH2– Which monomer will produce this polymer?
Three organic compounds are listed.
Which compounds will have a mass spectrum that contains a fragment peak at m/ e = 43?
A mixture contains magnesium carbonate and barium carbonate only. A sample of the mixture is dissolved in nitric acid to produce a solution.
How could this solution be processed into a magnesium compound and a separate barium compound?
Which reaction is a redox reaction?
Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct?
What is the least number of carbon atoms in a non-cyclic alkane molecule that has a chiral centre?
Three statements about potassium and chlorine and their ions are listed.
Which statements are correct?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 C A D B 2 / 30 A hospital management board decides to reallocate $800000 from its $1.2m new buildings budget to spend on cancer care. What is the opportunity cost of this decision? a cost of $800 000 a cost of $400 000 the loss of some new buildings the cost of healthcare for cancer patients 3 / 30 In a planned economy, what will determine the allocation of scarce resources? the revenue generated from direct and indirect taxes the forces of demand and supply a mixture of private and central decision making the decisions of central government 4 / 30 W, Y and Z W only Z only W and Z only 5 / 30 A D C B 6 / 30 D C B A 7 / 30 In Russia, there is no shortage of oil. In the United States, rationing is the only solution to oil shortage. In Japan, there is self-sufficiency in oil. In Britain, oil has zero opportunity cost. 8 / 30 D A C B 9 / 30 What does opportunity cost measure? the financial costs of consuming a good the benefits of a good compared with the next choice the benefits given up by not consuming the next best alternative the costs of any good not chosen 10 / 30 Government taxed food production and subsidised drink production. Productivity rose in food production and fell in drink production. There were more imports of food and more exports of drink. Consumers chose to consume more food and less drink. 11 / 30 Which function of money overcomes the double coincidence of wants problem that exists in a barter system? medium of exchange standard of deferred payment store of value unit of account 12 / 30 A D B C 13 / 30 A D B C 14 / 30 A rise in the price of a good is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded. What could explain this? Consumers spend a high proportion of disposable income on the good. The price of a complementary good has also increased. The price of the good is taken to be an indication of the level of quality. The substitute goods are all very much more expensive. 15 / 30 D A C B 16 / 30 D C B A 17 / 30 In a recent year, Japanese car manufacturers agreed to limit exports of cars to the USA. Which form of protectionism is this? an export subsidy an embargo voluntary export restraint a quota 18 / 30 When will the price mechanism not function as a system for allocating goods? when the government bans advertising when the government maintains an effective maximum price when there is a limited supply of the good when there is a powerful company able to set the market price 19 / 30 What is not a function of money? It is a store of value. It is a medium of exchange. It is a unit of account. It is a measure of satisfaction. 20 / 30 C D B A 21 / 30 Which action would not raise the quality of the particular factor of production? land – increasing the use of fertilisers capital – operating a machine continuously at full capacity labour – making apprenticeships and training compulsory enterprise – providing risk management advice 22 / 30 What will lead to an improvement in the terms of trade? Export prices rise by 5% and import prices rise by 10%. Export prices rise by 10% and import prices rise by 5%. Export prices fall by 10% and import prices rise by 5%. Export prices fall by 10% and import prices fall by 5%. 23 / 30 D B C A 24 / 30 B C A D 25 / 30 What could explain an improvement in the terms of trade for a country? an increase in the prices of exports an increase in tariffs on imports a decrease in the volume of exports sold a decrease in the volume of imports sold 26 / 30 What is an accurate statement about possible causes and/or consequences of a worsening in a country’s terms of trade? It will result from an increase in consumers’ incomes in its major trading partners. It will result from a fall in the demand for its exports. It will result in a decrease in interest rates by its major trading partners. It will result in an improvement in its balance of trade. 27 / 30 Z and Y only W, X, Y and Z W and X only W, X and Z only 28 / 30 A government decides that all non-essential businesses must close for three months due to a disease pandemic. What is an opportunity cost of this policy? lives that are saved due to reduced disease levels increased leisure time for employees the loss of goods from the closed businesses the production of goods by essential businesses 29 / 30 What would be likely to decrease inflation in an economy? an increase in labour productivity a decrease in unemployment an increase in taxes on imports a decrease in consumer saving 30 / 30 What will result from a government’s decision to allow health care to be provided entirely by market forces? The health care market will reach an equilibrium. Market failure will be eliminated in the health care market. All consumers will receive better health care. There will be a reduction in the provision of a public good. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
A hospital management board decides to reallocate $800000 from its $1.2m new buildings budget to spend on cancer care. What is the opportunity cost of this decision?
In a planned economy, what will determine the allocation of scarce resources?
What does opportunity cost measure?
Which function of money overcomes the double coincidence of wants problem that exists in a barter system?
A rise in the price of a good is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded. What could explain this?
In a recent year, Japanese car manufacturers agreed to limit exports of cars to the USA. Which form of protectionism is this?
When will the price mechanism not function as a system for allocating goods?
What is not a function of money?
Which action would not raise the quality of the particular factor of production?
What will lead to an improvement in the terms of trade?
What could explain an improvement in the terms of trade for a country?
What is an accurate statement about possible causes and/or consequences of a worsening in a country’s terms of trade?
A government decides that all non-essential businesses must close for three months due to a disease pandemic. What is an opportunity cost of this policy?
What would be likely to decrease inflation in an economy?
What will result from a government’s decision to allow health care to be provided entirely by market forces?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 There is an electric current in a copper wire. Which statement describing the average drift speed of the charge carriers in the wire is correct? It is proportional to the cross-sectional area of the wire. It is proportional to the length of the wire. It is nearly 3 × 108 m s–1. It is proportional to the magnitude of the current. 2 / 40 100 N 0.2 N 20 N 1 N 3 / 40 A spring has an unstretched length of 4.50 cm. The spring is fixed at one end and a force of 35.0N is applied to the other end so that the spring extends. The spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a spring constant of 420 N m–1. What is the strain of the extended spring? 0.083 2.67 1.85 0.019 4 / 40 An alpha-particle has 2.2 × 10–13 J of kinetic energy. What is the speed of the alpha-particle? 8.1 × 106 m s–1 5.8 × 106 m s–1 4.1 × 106 m s–1 1.2 × 107 m s–1 5 / 40 Which particle is a lepton? positron meson proton quark 6 / 40 B A C D 7 / 40 C A B D 8 / 40 B A C D 9 / 40 They have the same average velocity. They travel the same distance. They have the same displacement. They have the same average speed. 10 / 40 In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone? The nucleus is charged. The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons. Most of the atom is empty space. Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus. 11 / 40 resistor of fixed resistance semiconductor diode filament lamp metallic conductor at constant temperature 12 / 40 What is meant by the spring constant of a spring? extension per unit force force × extension ½ × force × extension force per unit extension 13 / 40 The wooden block must travel faster than the steel block. The steel block must travel faster than the wooden block. Both blocks must travel with the same speed. The masses of the blocks and the steel ball are needed to determine which block travels faster. 14 / 40 More diffraction is observed. Less diffraction is observed. There is no diffraction. The same amount of diffraction is observed. 15 / 40 1.4 m 3.1 m 6.2 m 2.7 m 16 / 40 A π+meson has a charge of +e, where e is the elementary charge. It consists of an up quark and one other quark. What could be the other quark in the π+meson? charm bottom anti-up anti-down 17 / 40 What is the ohm expressed in SI base units? J C–1A–1 kg m2 s–3A–2 kg–1 m–2 s3A2 WA–2 18 / 40 6.0V 3.0V 12.0V 9.0V 19 / 40 D A C B 20 / 40 B A D C 21 / 40 A neutron 10n is fired at a 23592U nucleus. The neutron is absorbed by the nucleus which then splits to form nuclei of 14156Ba and 9236Kr. What is the number of free neutrons emitted when the 23592U nucleus splits? 3 1 0 2 22 / 40 B A C D 23 / 40 Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units? Ns and kgm s–3 J C–1 and kgm2A–1 s–2 N m and kg m3 s–2 J s and kg m2 s–1 24 / 40 The spring loses both gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy. The spring gains gravitational potential energy and loses elastic potential energy. The spring loses gravitational potential energy and gains elastic potential energy. The spring gains both gravitational potential energy and elastic potential energy. 25 / 40 A D B C 26 / 40 Which list of particles contains only fundamental particles? baryon, neutrino, positron electron, neutrino, alpha lepton, quark, positron antineutrino, beta, meson 27 / 40 A diffraction grating has 4.00 × 105 lines per metre. A beam of light of wavelength 589 × 10-9m is incident normally on the diffraction grating. What is the angle between the second-order maximum and the direction of the incident beam of` light? 56.2° 28.1° 27.3° 13.6° 28 / 40 4.7 m s–1 6.0 m s–1 4.2 m s–1 14 m s–1 29 / 40 Which statement is correct? Longitudinal sound waves cannot form stationary waves. Gases cannot transmit longitudinal waves. Transverse waves cannot pass through a vacuum. Solids can transmit both transverse and longitudinal waves 30 / 40 Some sources of electromagnetic waves in free space are listed. a radio wave transmitter a source of X-rays a 30 mm wavelength radar transmitter a light-emitting diode that emits red light Which list gives the sources in order of increasing wavelength, from left to right, of the waves emitted by the sources? 1 → 3 → 4 → 2 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 3 → 1 → 4 → 2 31 / 40 A D B C 32 / 40 Light of a single frequency passes through two narrow slits and produces an interference pattern on a screen some distance away. The interference fringes are very close together. Which change would increase the distance between the fringes? Increase the distance between the slits and the screen. Increase the distance between the two slits. Increase the brightness of the light source. Increase the frequency of the light used. 33 / 40 Which statement about longitudinal waves and transverse waves is not correct? Both waves can be polarised. Both waves can form stationary waves. Both waves can transfer energy as progressive waves. Both waves obey the equation v = fλ. 34 / 40 0.40 cm 0.20 cm 0.60 cm 0.27 cm 35 / 40 C A D B 36 / 40 What could not be a measurement of a physical quantity? 25T m 11 J N–1m–1 10K 17Pa m3N–1 37 / 40 D A C B 38 / 40 0.87 I30 0.75 I30 0.33 I30 0.25 I30 39 / 40 A D C B 40 / 40 17 9 16 8 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
There is an electric current in a copper wire. Which statement describing the average drift speed of the charge carriers in the wire is correct?
A spring has an unstretched length of 4.50 cm. The spring is fixed at one end and a force of 35.0N is applied to the other end so that the spring extends. The spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a spring constant of 420 N m–1. What is the strain of the extended spring?
An alpha-particle has 2.2 × 10–13 J of kinetic energy. What is the speed of the alpha-particle?
Which particle is a lepton?
In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone?
What is meant by the spring constant of a spring?
A π+meson has a charge of +e, where e is the elementary charge. It consists of an up quark and one other quark. What could be the other quark in the π+meson?
What is the ohm expressed in SI base units?
A neutron 10n is fired at a 23592U nucleus. The neutron is absorbed by the nucleus which then splits to form nuclei of 14156Ba and 9236Kr. What is the number of free neutrons emitted when the 23592U nucleus splits?
Which two units are identical when expressed in terms of SI base units?
Which list of particles contains only fundamental particles?
A diffraction grating has 4.00 × 105 lines per metre. A beam of light of wavelength 589 × 10-9m is incident normally on the diffraction grating. What is the angle between the second-order maximum and the direction of the incident beam of` light?
Which statement is correct?
Some sources of electromagnetic waves in free space are listed.
Light of a single frequency passes through two narrow slits and produces an interference pattern on a screen some distance away. The interference fringes are very close together. Which change would increase the distance between the fringes?
Which statement about longitudinal waves and transverse waves is not correct?
What could not be a measurement of a physical quantity?
