0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Which statements about a semi-variable cost are correct? Part of the amount always changes for any level of output. Part of the amount changes for a given level of output. The amount always changes for a given level of output. 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 only 1 and 2 2 / 30 A company’s profit was $100 000 using marginal costing. Its opening inventory was 2000 units and closing inventory was 3000 units. The fixed production overhead absorption rate is $30 per unit. What was the profit using absorption costing? $130 000 $70 000 $40 000 $190 000 3 / 30 Which actions would, in general, improve the acid test ratio of a business in the short term? delaying trade payables selling inventory selling surplus non-current assets trade receivables paying their debts 3 only 4 only 2 and 3 1 and 4 4 / 30 Which assumptions about cost–volume–profit analysis are correct? Many different factors cause costs and revenues to change. Selling price and variable cost per unit are usually constant. Selling price and variable cost per unit change. The only factor causing costs and revenues to change is volume. 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 5 / 30 What are limitations of using accounting ratios for comparisons between firms in the same industry? Different businesses may have different accounting policies. Efficiencies of different businesses cannot be compared. Liquidity of the businesses cannot be assessed. 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 only 3 only 6 / 30 What best describes a fixed cost? the same total cost for any level of output the same total cost for output within a relevant range the same cost per unit for any level of output a part that stays the same and a part that changes as output increases 7 / 30 On 1 January 2019, a non-current asset was purchased at a cost of $290 000. Delivery and installation costs of $10 000 were also paid. The reducing balance method is used to depreciate the asset at a rate of 20% per annum. A full year’s depreciation is charged in the year of acquisition and none in the year of disposal. On 31 December 2021, the non-current asset was sold for $205 000. Disposal costs of $5000 were also paid. What was the profit on disposal? $13 000 $8000 $46 400 $14 400 8 / 30 Which items relating to new manufacturing equipment are capital expenditure? cost of the equipment delivery cost of the equipment staff training cost to operate the equipment 1 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 9 / 30 material Y only direct labour only material X only all three inputs 10 / 30 Which stakeholders use the financial statements to assess whether a company is a reasonable credit risk? suppliers customers employees government 11 / 30 $22 500 $32 500 $30 500 $27 500 12 / 30 $8400 $14 400 $15 600 $12 000 13 / 30 5.45% decrease 3.64% decrease 5.45% increase 3.64% increase 14 / 30 When preparing a sole trader’s financial statements, no adjustment was made for a prepayment at the end of the year. What is the effect of this omission? profit for the year understated and trade payables understated profit for the year overstated and trade payables understated current assets overstated and owner’s capital overstated current assets understated and owner’s capital understated 15 / 30 13.31% 12.60% 13.67% 12.27% 16 / 30 $540 000 $810 000 $486 000 $624 000 17 / 30 B C A D 18 / 30 A C D B 19 / 30 On which basis will non-current assets be valued if the business is not a going concern? the amount they could be sold for net book value original cost the value placed on them by the owner 20 / 30 A trader has been making a provision for irrecoverable debts for some years. He is now considering reducing the percentage rate of the provision. Which ratios would be affected by this reduction? current ratio gross margin profit margin 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 21 / 30 D B C A 22 / 30 $400 000 $250 000 $375 000 $600 000 23 / 30 John and Mary are in partnership. After the first year of operation, the current accounts of both partners had a debit balance. What might have caused the debit balances? drawings loss for the year salaries they are entitled to 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 only 24 / 30 A business has a bank overdraft of $4800. It pays for materials invoiced, $3000, less a trade discount of 20% and a settlement discount of 5%. A cheque for $500 is received from a credit customer. What is the bank balance after these transactions? $7150 overdraft $2020 overdraft $6580 overdraft $7580 overdraft 25 / 30 32.67% 53.33% 46.67% 48.67% 26 / 30 Annie and Bernie have been in partnership for some years, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 : 1. On 1 January 2020, they decided to introduce interest on drawings. The annual interest on drawings for the year ended 31 December 2020 was $1300 for Annie and $800 for Bernie. Which effect did this change have on the balance on Annie’s current account at 31 December 2020? decrease of $500 decrease of $100 increase of $100 increase of $500 27 / 30 Which of these items require entries to be made in the general journal? purchase of a non-current asset on credit sale of inventory to a customer on credit the owner taking drawings from their business in cash writing off an irrecoverable debt 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 28 / 30 Draft financial statements for a business showed a profit for the year of $62 000. The following errors were discovered. Accrued loan interest payable of $3900 had not been accounted for. Allowance for irrecoverable debts had been overstated by $4800. Depreciation was found to be understated by $7500. Prepaid rent expense of $2600 had not been accounted for. What was the corrected profit for the year? $58 000 $60 600 $43 200 $48 400 29 / 30 A sole trader had trade receivables of $21 650 at the start of the year. During the year there were irrecoverable debts of $450 written off. Cash received from customers was $42 670. At the year end, the statement of financial position showed trade receivables of $25 745 after deducting a provision for doubtful debts of 5%. What were the sales for the year? $46 765 $47 215 $47 670 $48 570 30 / 30 $6.25 $8.50 $7.10 $6.45 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
Which statements about a semi-variable cost are correct?
2 / 30
A company’s profit was $100 000 using marginal costing. Its opening inventory was 2000 units and closing inventory was 3000 units. The fixed production overhead absorption rate is $30 per unit. What was the profit using absorption costing?
3 / 30
Which actions would, in general, improve the acid test ratio of a business in the short term?
4 / 30
Which assumptions about cost–volume–profit analysis are correct?
5 / 30
What are limitations of using accounting ratios for comparisons between firms in the same industry?
6 / 30
What best describes a fixed cost?
7 / 30
On 1 January 2019, a non-current asset was purchased at a cost of $290 000. Delivery and installation costs of $10 000 were also paid. The reducing balance method is used to depreciate the asset at a rate of 20% per annum. A full year’s depreciation is charged in the year of acquisition and none in the year of disposal. On 31 December 2021, the non-current asset was sold for $205 000. Disposal costs of $5000 were also paid. What was the profit on disposal?
8 / 30
Which items relating to new manufacturing equipment are capital expenditure?
9 / 30
10 / 30
Which stakeholders use the financial statements to assess whether a company is a reasonable credit risk?
11 / 30
12 / 30
13 / 30
14 / 30
When preparing a sole trader’s financial statements, no adjustment was made for a prepayment at the end of the year. What is the effect of this omission?
15 / 30
16 / 30
17 / 30
18 / 30
19 / 30
On which basis will non-current assets be valued if the business is not a going concern?
20 / 30
A trader has been making a provision for irrecoverable debts for some years. He is now considering reducing the percentage rate of the provision. Which ratios would be affected by this reduction?
21 / 30
22 / 30
23 / 30
John and Mary are in partnership. After the first year of operation, the current accounts of both partners had a debit balance. What might have caused the debit balances?
24 / 30
A business has a bank overdraft of $4800. It pays for materials invoiced, $3000, less a trade discount of 20% and a settlement discount of 5%. A cheque for $500 is received from a credit customer. What is the bank balance after these transactions?
25 / 30
26 / 30
Annie and Bernie have been in partnership for some years, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 : 1. On 1 January 2020, they decided to introduce interest on drawings. The annual interest on drawings for the year ended 31 December 2020 was $1300 for Annie and $800 for Bernie. Which effect did this change have on the balance on Annie’s current account at 31 December 2020?
27 / 30
Which of these items require entries to be made in the general journal?
28 / 30
Draft financial statements for a business showed a profit for the year of $62 000. The following errors were discovered.
What was the corrected profit for the year?
29 / 30
A sole trader had trade receivables of $21 650 at the start of the year. During the year there were irrecoverable debts of $450 written off. Cash received from customers was $42 670. At the year end, the statement of financial position showed trade receivables of $25 745 after deducting a provision for doubtful debts of 5%. What were the sales for the year?
30 / 30
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C D A B 2 / 40 Which reactions take place in the capillaries surrounding an alveolus? carbon dioxide + water carbonic acid carbon dioxide + haemoglobin carbaminohaemoglobin haemoglobinic acid haemoglobin + hydrogen ions hydrogencarbonate ions + hydrogen ions carbonic acid carbon dioxide + water 3 only 1 and 2 4 only 3 and 4 3 / 40 A C B D 4 / 40 What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue? providing the nucleus for cell division in the phloem providing cytoplasmic contact with the sieve tube element for loading providing the source of assimilates for storage providing structural support for the sieve tube element 5 / 40 Which feature is visible with a light microscope using a natural light source? phospholipid bilayer of width 8 nm ribosome of diameter 20 nm DNA molecule of diameter 2 nm Paramecium cell of diameter 200 µm 6 / 40 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct? Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine. Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes. Adenine forms the same number of hydrogen bonds with thymine as it does with uracil. The base pairs in a molecule of DNA are of equal length and equal width. 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 7 / 40 What can increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane? single bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid chains cholesterol longer-chained fatty acids 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 8 / 40 A prokaryotic cell is 5.0m in length. A virus particle is 300 nm in length. How many times larger is the prokaryotic cell compared to the virus particle? 167 60 2 17 9 / 40 A D C B 10 / 40 Which features of companion cells are essential to their function? They are connected to the sieve tube elements by plasmodesmata. They have a thicker cell wall than a sieve tube element. They contain a nucleus and mitochondria. 1 and 2 1 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 11 / 40 Which terms describe the method by which water is transported within xylem vessel elements? cotransport cohesion-tension osmosis 1 and 3 3 only 1 and 2 2 only 12 / 40 A B C D 13 / 40 In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood cell is 260 million. How many α-globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human? 1.04 × 109 5.2 × 108 1.3 × 108 2.6 × 108 14 / 40 Which sequence of events could lead to mass flow in a phloem sieve tube? Sucrose moves into a sieve tube element. Protons (H+) and sucrose molecules move into a companion cell through a co-transporter protein. A very high hydrostatic pressure is produced. The water potential of the sieve tube element decreases. Protons (H+) are actively pumped out of a companion cell. Water moves down a water potential gradient by osmosis. 3 → 1 → 2 → 5 → 6 → 4 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 6 1 → 2 → 5 → 6 → 4 → 3 5 → 2 → 1 → 4 → 6 → 3 15 / 40 D B A C 16 / 40 Which features are correct for active transport and facilitated diffusion? The movement of molecules and ions depends on ATP. They are specific for one type of molecule or ion. They use membrane proteins. 1 and 2 3 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 17 / 40 A D C B 18 / 40 C A D B 19 / 40 Which statement about mRNA is correct? Each nucleotide subunit contains the sugar ribose It always has an equal proportion of adenine and uracil. It is a polymer made of nucleotides all joined with hydrogen bonds. The mRNA sequence is identical to the template strand of DNA. 20 / 40 What explains how the maximum volume of oxygen is taken up as blood passes through the capillaries of the lungs? Oxyhaemoglobin formation increases the ability of red blood cells to transport oxygen. Each haemoglobin molecule can temporarily bind to four oxygen atoms. The dissociation of carbon dioxide from carboxyhaemoglobin allows more haemoglobin to be available for binding oxygen. The binding of the first oxygen molecule to haemoglobin decreases the affinity of haemoglobin for binding other oxygen molecules. 21 / 40 Disease transmission can be reduced in different ways. antibiotic therapy for sufferers vaccination for non-sufferers more living space per person The transmission of which disease can be reduced by all of these methods? cholera TB measles malaria 22 / 40 B C D A 23 / 40 A B C D 24 / 40 Which molecules contain at least two double bonds? saturated fatty acid and haemoglobin only saturated fatty acid, collagen and haemoglobin haemoglobin and collagen only collagen and saturated fatty acid only 25 / 40 Which statements explain why a stem is cut under water and connected to a potometer under water? to prevent plasmolysis of xylem vessel elements to prevent the collapse of xylem vessel elements to prevent air entering xylem vessel elements 1 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 26 / 40 When living pancreatic cells were placed in a solution of a red stain called neutral red, the cytoplasm became red. The cells were then removed from the solution of neutral red. The red stain in the cytoplasm moved into vesicles, which were exported from the cell, eventually leaving the cell colourless. Which transport mechanisms could explain how the red stain entered and left the cells? active transport and facilitated diffusion osmosis and exocytosis diffusion and exocytosis facilitated diffusion and endocytosis 27 / 40 What is systolic blood pressure? the maximum blood pressure in the arteries the blood pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxing the maximum blood pressure in the right ventricle the blood pressure in the left ventricle at the start of a contraction 28 / 40 A student wrote three statements about antibodies. Their structure depends on peptide, hydrogen and disulfide bonds. They are protein molecules with both tertiary and quaternary structure. Four polypeptides provide four antigen binding sites. Which statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 29 / 40 What are short-term effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system? constriction of small arteries increase in heart rate increase in blood pressure 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 30 / 40 A D B C 31 / 40 C D A B 32 / 40 A D B C 33 / 40 D A C B 34 / 40 B C A D 35 / 40 H COOH CH2— CH2 —COOH NH2 36 / 40 Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria. Which processes are directly inhibited by this antibiotic? DNA replication enzyme synthesis ATP synthesis 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 only 37 / 40 C B D A 38 / 40 D C B A 39 / 40 Which statement about collagen is correct? One-third of the amino acids making up collagen are valine. A collagen fibre is made of three parallel helices with hydrogen bonds holding them in place. It is an insoluble fibrous protein with a quaternary structure. Collagen fibres are formed from several collagen molecules held together by ionic bonds. 40 / 40 Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle? interphase telophase cytokinesis 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
Which reactions take place in the capillaries surrounding an alveolus?
3 / 40
4 / 40
What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue?
5 / 40
Which feature is visible with a light microscope using a natural light source?
6 / 40
Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?
7 / 40
What can increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane?
8 / 40
A prokaryotic cell is 5.0m in length. A virus particle is 300 nm in length. How many times larger is the prokaryotic cell compared to the virus particle?
9 / 40
10 / 40
Which features of companion cells are essential to their function?
11 / 40
Which terms describe the method by which water is transported within xylem vessel elements?
12 / 40
13 / 40
In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood cell is 260 million. How many α-globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human?
14 / 40
Which sequence of events could lead to mass flow in a phloem sieve tube?
15 / 40
16 / 40
Which features are correct for active transport and facilitated diffusion?
17 / 40
18 / 40
19 / 40
Which statement about mRNA is correct?
20 / 40
What explains how the maximum volume of oxygen is taken up as blood passes through the capillaries of the lungs?
21 / 40
Disease transmission can be reduced in different ways.
The transmission of which disease can be reduced by all of these methods?
22 / 40
23 / 40
24 / 40
Which molecules contain at least two double bonds?
25 / 40
Which statements explain why a stem is cut under water and connected to a potometer under water?
26 / 40
When living pancreatic cells were placed in a solution of a red stain called neutral red, the cytoplasm became red. The cells were then removed from the solution of neutral red. The red stain in the cytoplasm moved into vesicles, which were exported from the cell, eventually leaving the cell colourless. Which transport mechanisms could explain how the red stain entered and left the cells?
27 / 40
What is systolic blood pressure?
28 / 40
A student wrote three statements about antibodies.
29 / 40
What are short-term effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system?
30 / 40
31 / 40
32 / 40
33 / 40
34 / 40
35 / 40
36 / 40
Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria. Which processes are directly inhibited by this antibiotic?
37 / 40
38 / 40
39 / 40
Which statement about collagen is correct?
40 / 40
Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle?
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which particle contains nitrogen in the same oxidation state as in the ion N2O22–? NH2F HNF2 N2O4 NO3– 2 / 40 A C D B 3 / 40 The oxides BaO, CaO, MgO and SrO all produce alkaline solutions when added to water. Which oxide produces the saturated solution with the highest pH? SrO MgO CaO BaO 4 / 40 Propanoic acid is treated with reagent X at room temperature. The organic product of the reaction is sodium propanoate. No gas is produced during the reaction. What could be reagent X? NaHCO3(aq) Na2CO3(aq) Na2SO4(aq) NaOH(aq) 5 / 40 Which statement about the oxides of nitrogen is correct? In a catalytic converter, nitrogen monoxide is removed by reaction with carbon dioxide. During lightning storms, atmospheric oxygen and nitrogen combine to form oxides of nitrogen. In the atmosphere, nitrogen monoxide reacts with sulfur dioxide to produce sulfur trioxide. In car engines, the restricted supply of oxygen eliminates the possibility of the formation of oxides of nitrogen. 6 / 40 In which species is there a lone pair of electrons? CH3 CH3+ CH3– CH3 7 / 40 Element X has six more protons than element Y. Which statement must be correct? Element X and element Y are in the same period. Element X and element Y are in the same group. Atoms of element Y are smaller than atoms of element X Element X has a full shell of electrons. 8 / 40 Solid sodium iodide reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid to form more than one product that contains sulfur. What is the lowest oxidation number of sulfur in these products? +4 -2 +6 0 9 / 40 How many chiral carbon atoms are there in one molecule of 2,2,4,5-tetramethylhexan-3-ol? 3 2 1 4 10 / 40 Which reaction mixture produces an acidic gas? potassium chloride and concentrated sulfuric acid aqueous ammonium nitrate and solid calcium oxide calcium and aqueous hydrochloric acid sodium oxide and water 11 / 40 For which reaction will the major organic product have the lowest relative molecular mass? Bromoethane is heated under reflux with a solution of sodium cyanide in ethanol. Bromoethane is heated under reflux with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide. 2-bromopropane is heated under reflux with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide. 2-bromopropane is heated under reflux with concentrated ethanolic sodium hydroxide. 12 / 40 Which statement explains why buckminsterfullerene has a lower melting point than graphite? Graphite is partly ionic as its structure contains mobile electrons and it conducts electricity The carbon–carbon bonds in buckminsterfullerene are shorter and more strained. The mobile electrons in graphite mean it has a metallic structure. Buckminsterfullerene exists as discrete molecules with weak intermolecular bonding. 13 / 40 B A C D 14 / 40 A D B C 15 / 40 Which reaction is a redox reaction? ethanoic acid reacted with aqueous sodium hydroxide ethyl ethanoate heated under reflux with dilute hydrochloric acid ethanenitrile heated under reflux with dilute hydrochloric acid ethanoic acid reacted with sodium 16 / 40 Which reaction has a nucleophilic addition mechanism and gives a good yield of product under the stated conditions? 1-bromopropane reacting with hot ethanolic sodium hydroxide 2-iodopropane reacting with hot aqueous sodium hydroxide propanal reacting with hydrogen cyanide under alkaline conditions propanal reacting with hydrogen cyanide under acidic conditions 17 / 40 The compound potassium bismuthate(V), KBiO3, is a powerful oxidising agent. What is the significance of the (V) in potassium bismuthate(V)? It is the oxidation number of the bismuth atom. It is the charge of the bismuthate ion. It is the sum of the charges of the two ions present. It is the oxidation number of the bismuthate ion. 18 / 40 2 gained 2 lost 4 gained no change 19 / 40 When concentrated sulfuric acid is added to solid sodium bromide, bromine gas is produced, along with a number of other products. However, when concentrated sulfuric acid is added to solid sodium chloride, only hydrogen chloride and sodium hydrogensulfate are produced. What is the reason for this difference? The bromide ion is a stronger reducing agent than the chloride ion. Hydrochloric acid is a weak acid. Bromine is less volatile than chlorine. Sulfuric acid is not an oxidising agent 20 / 40 C D B A 21 / 40 The product of the Contact process is Z. Which reaction or process leads to the formation of a gas that can neutralise an aqueous solution of Z? atmospheric lightning combustion of fuel in an internal combustion engine thermal decomposition of Group 2 nitrates the Haber process 22 / 40 A B D C 23 / 40 C A D B 24 / 40 How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O? 3 4 2 1 25 / 40 C A D B 26 / 40 Ammonium chloride dissolves readily in water. Which statement about the colourless solution formed is correct? When sodium hydroxide is added, a gas is formed which turns damp blue litmus paper red. Ions in the solution can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules. The solution is slightly basic. The solution would smell of chlorine 27 / 40 C D A B 28 / 40 –1 kJ mol–1 –115 kJ mol–1 –172 kJ mol–1 +56 kJ mol–1 29 / 40 A mixture of ethane and an excess of chlorine is exposed to UV light. How many different products, each containing only two carbon atoms and at least one chlorine atom per molecule, can be formed? 12 9 8 10 30 / 40 B D A C 31 / 40 In a sample of pure water, what is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that one molecule of water can be involved in? 2 4 1 3 32 / 40 Which emission from an internal combustion engine contributes to the erosion of marble statues? nitrogen dioxide nitrogen unburnt hydrocarbons carbon monoxide 33 / 40 aluminium chloride aluminium bromide ammonium chloride ammonium bromide 34 / 40 How many chiral carbon atoms are there in one molecule of 2,2,4,5-tetramethylhexan-3-ol? 4 3 2 1 35 / 40 the increase in electronegativity from sodium to aluminium the change in first ionisation energy from sodium to aluminium the increase in the Ar of the elements from sodium to aluminium the increase in the number of outer electrons in each atom from sodium to aluminium 36 / 40 C5H12O3 C5H10O3 C5H10O4 C5H6O5 37 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction that proceeds through initiation, propagation and termination steps? C6H13CHO + HCN → C6H13CH(OH)CN C5H11Br + NaOH → C5H11OH + NaBr C4H10 + Cl2 → C4H9Cl + HCl C6H12 + H2O → C6H13OH 38 / 40 Which statement about the electrons in a ground state carbon atom is correct? Electrons are present in four different energy levels. The occupied orbital of highest energy is spherical. The occupied orbital of lowest energy is spherical. There are more electrons in p orbitals than there are in s orbitals. 39 / 40 C2H6O2 C2H4O C4H8O C4H8O2 40 / 40 Which reagents and conditions would result in the formation of butanenitrile, CH3CH2CH2CN? 1-bromobutane heated under pressure with ammonia in ethanol 1-bromopropane heated with potassium cyanide in ethanol propanone heated with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of potassium cyanide propanal heated with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of potassium cyanide NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
Which particle contains nitrogen in the same oxidation state as in the ion N2O22–?
The oxides BaO, CaO, MgO and SrO all produce alkaline solutions when added to water. Which oxide produces the saturated solution with the highest pH?
Propanoic acid is treated with reagent X at room temperature. The organic product of the reaction is sodium propanoate. No gas is produced during the reaction. What could be reagent X?
Which statement about the oxides of nitrogen is correct?
In which species is there a lone pair of electrons?
Element X has six more protons than element Y. Which statement must be correct?
Solid sodium iodide reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid to form more than one product that contains sulfur. What is the lowest oxidation number of sulfur in these products?
How many chiral carbon atoms are there in one molecule of 2,2,4,5-tetramethylhexan-3-ol?
Which reaction mixture produces an acidic gas?
For which reaction will the major organic product have the lowest relative molecular mass?
Which statement explains why buckminsterfullerene has a lower melting point than graphite?
Which reaction is a redox reaction?
Which reaction has a nucleophilic addition mechanism and gives a good yield of product under the stated conditions?
The compound potassium bismuthate(V), KBiO3, is a powerful oxidising agent. What is the significance of the (V) in potassium bismuthate(V)?
When concentrated sulfuric acid is added to solid sodium bromide, bromine gas is produced, along with a number of other products. However, when concentrated sulfuric acid is added to solid sodium chloride, only hydrogen chloride and sodium hydrogensulfate are produced. What is the reason for this difference?
The product of the Contact process is Z. Which reaction or process leads to the formation of a gas that can neutralise an aqueous solution of Z?
How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O?
Ammonium chloride dissolves readily in water.
Which statement about the colourless solution formed is correct?
A mixture of ethane and an excess of chlorine is exposed to UV light. How many different products, each containing only two carbon atoms and at least one chlorine atom per molecule, can be formed?
In a sample of pure water, what is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that one molecule of water can be involved in?
Which emission from an internal combustion engine contributes to the erosion of marble statues?
Which equation represents a reaction that proceeds through initiation, propagation and termination steps?
Which statement about the electrons in a ground state carbon atom is correct?
Which reagents and conditions would result in the formation of butanenitrile, CH3CH2CH2CN?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 ‘Reducing the exchange rate helps to decrease a country’s balance of payments deficit because it makes imports more expensive and exports cheaper.’ What does this statement describe? an expenditure-reducing policy an expenditure-switching policy a policy of direct controls a deflationary policy 2 / 30 D A C B 3 / 30 What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation? direct taxes budget deficit interest rate exchange rate 4 / 30 A C B D 5 / 30 What is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP? interest rates changes in the price level exchange rates taxation 6 / 30 US$3000bn US$2700bn US$2800bn US$2900bn 7 / 30 D C B A 8 / 30 Demand curves are drawn ceteris paribus. Which ‘other things’ are not required to remain the same when an individual’s demand curve for ice cream is constructed? the price of ice cream the price of fresh fruit the consumer’s income the consumer’s tastes and preferences 9 / 30 237 000 126 000 142 000 234 000 10 / 30 A government decides that all non-essential businesses must close for three months due to a disease pandemic. What is an opportunity cost of this policy? increased leisure time for employees the production of goods by essential businesses lives that are saved due to reduced disease levels the loss of goods from the closed businesses 11 / 30 Following a 10% depreciation in the $ value of the £ sterling, a UK exporter leaves the $ price of the goods it sells in the US market unchanged. Other things being equal, what will be the effect on the revenue measured in sterling obtained by the manufacturer from its sales in the US? It will increase. It will depend on the elasticity of demand for the manufacturer’s good in the US. It will decrease. It will be unchanged. 12 / 30 The purchasing power of money increased between 2014 and 2015. The cost of living fell from 2016 onwards. The price of goods and services fell between 2013 and 2014. Disinflation took place between 2014 and 2015. 13 / 30 Which statement about market disequilibrium is correct? The government must intervene. Supply is equal to demand. Price is likely to change. There must be shortages. 14 / 30 C A B D 15 / 30 Which pair of products are substitutes both in consumption and production? spinach and cabbage gold and silver barley and cotton soap and toothpaste 16 / 30 $33 billion $31 billion $19 billion $25 billion 17 / 30 In year 1, a country’s real GDP was $500 billion. In year 2, nominal GDP rose to $577.5 billion and the prices increased by 5%. What is the real GDP in year 2? $476 billion $550 billion $4.76 billion $5 billion 18 / 30 JGM GMNH JNR JHN 19 / 30 What can be best understood from a knowledge of a country’s terms of trade? its balance of payments performance the purchasing power of its exports the value of its real exchange rate the standard of living within the country 20 / 30 The prices of a country’s exports rise by 5% while the prices of its imports fall by 5%. What will definitely improve in the country as a result of these changes? balance of trade current account balance exchange rate terms of trade 21 / 30 the tariff rate and the price elasticities of both domestic demand and supply the price elasticities of domestic supply and demand the tariff rate and the price elasticity of domestic supply the tariff rate and the price elasticity of domestic demand 22 / 30 D B A C 23 / 30 B C A D 24 / 30 What would be classified as a supply-side policy measure? a reduction in the government’s fiscal deficit a law to reduce the power of trade unions an open market sale of securities the imposition of a tariff on imported goods 25 / 30 A local council provides a tap for drinking water in a town. Would this make drinking water a free good? No, because it requires the use of scarce resources. Yes, because it is impossible to charge for it. No, because it is possible to exclude some people from using the tap. Yes, because it is available to all passers-by. 26 / 30 Z has elasticity of 0 that is constant as quantity rises. X has elasticity greater than 1 that will be constant as price rises Y has elasticity greater than 1 that will fall as price rises. W has elasticity of 0 that will rise as price rises. 27 / 30 What is not a characteristic of a mixed economy? The government provides services not provided by the private sector. The government manages taxation rights The government has no role in setting prices. The government prevents firms from earning excessive profits. 28 / 30 C B D A 29 / 30 Country X conducts 60% of its trade with country Y and 40% of its trade with country Z. The initial value of the trade-weighted exchange rate index of country X is 100. What will be its new trade-weighted exchange rate index value if its currency falls in value by 20% against the currency of country Y and rises by 10% against the currency of country Z? 116 90 92 84 30 / 30 the cost to the government of a subsidy to rice growers the loss in government revenue from the reduction in a lump sum tax on rice the increase in consumer surplus from the introduction of a maximum price for rice the extra saving to importers of the removal of a tariff on rice NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
‘Reducing the exchange rate helps to decrease a country’s balance of payments deficit because it makes imports more expensive and exports cheaper.’ What does this statement describe?
What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation?
What is used to convert nominal GDP to real GDP?
Demand curves are drawn ceteris paribus. Which ‘other things’ are not required to remain the same when an individual’s demand curve for ice cream is constructed?
A government decides that all non-essential businesses must close for three months due to a disease pandemic. What is an opportunity cost of this policy?
Following a 10% depreciation in the $ value of the £ sterling, a UK exporter leaves the $ price of the goods it sells in the US market unchanged. Other things being equal, what will be the effect on the revenue measured in sterling obtained by the manufacturer from its sales in the US?
Which statement about market disequilibrium is correct?
Which pair of products are substitutes both in consumption and production?
In year 1, a country’s real GDP was $500 billion. In year 2, nominal GDP rose to $577.5 billion and the prices increased by 5%. What is the real GDP in year 2?
What can be best understood from a knowledge of a country’s terms of trade?
The prices of a country’s exports rise by 5% while the prices of its imports fall by 5%. What will definitely improve in the country as a result of these changes?
What would be classified as a supply-side policy measure?
A local council provides a tap for drinking water in a town. Would this make drinking water a free good?
What is not a characteristic of a mixed economy?
Country X conducts 60% of its trade with country Y and 40% of its trade with country Z. The initial value of the trade-weighted exchange rate index of country X is 100. What will be its new trade-weighted exchange rate index value if its currency falls in value by 20% against the currency of country Y and rises by 10% against the currency of country Z?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 71 Hz 100 Hz 50 Hz 143 Hz 2 / 40 An electromagnetic wave has a wavelength of 2.1 cm in a vacuum. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum contains this wave? microwave infrared radio wave visible light 3 / 40 C B D A 4 / 40 6.93 × 10-4m3 1.98 × 10-4m3 2.97 × 10-4m3 4.95 × 10-4m3 5 / 40 An observer is standing on a railway platform. A train passes the observer at constant speed while emitting sound of constant frequency f from its whistle. What does the observer hear? sound of a higher frequency than f as the train approaches and of a lower frequency than f as the train moves away sound of a lower frequency than f as the train approaches and of a higher frequency than f as the train moves away sound of an increasing frequency as the train approaches and as it moves away sound of a decreasing frequency as the train approaches and of an increasing frequency as it moves away 6 / 40 C D B A 7 / 40 D C B A 8 / 40 P and S Q and R R and S P and Q 9 / 40 A C B D 10 / 40 An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm. The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J. What is the stretched length of the spring? 3.0 cm 8.0 cm 6.0 cm 5.0 cm 11 / 40 A uranium nucleus has 92 protons and 143 neutrons. The nucleus emits a total of 3 α-particles and 4 β–particles to form nucleus X. How can nucleus X be represented? 22390 X 22382 X 21987 X 13190 X 12 / 40 How can the acceleration of an object be determined? from the area under a displacement–time graph from the gradient of a displacement–time graph from the gradient of a velocity–time graph from the area under a velocity–time graph 13 / 40 38mJ 3.8mJ 19mJ 34mJ 14 / 40 D A B C 15 / 40 Which pair of quantities are physical quantities? pascal and strain period and potential difference charge and ampere efficiency and kilogram 16 / 40 Which quantity is a vector? speed momentum temperature Young modulus 17 / 40 C A B D 18 / 40 D B A C 19 / 40 Which statement about collisions is correct? Momentum is only conserved in perfectly elastic collisions. Kinetic energy is conserved in all collisions. The relative speed of approach is equal to the relative speed of separation for perfectly elastic collisions. When two objects of different masses collide, they exert forces of different magnitudes on each other. 20 / 40 What is meant by the efficiency of a system? the difference between the useful energy output from the system and the total energy input the ratio of the useful energy output from the system to the wasted energy output the ratio of the useful energy output from the system to the total energy input the difference between the useful energy output from the system and the wasted energy output 21 / 40 B A D C 22 / 40 A D C B 23 / 40 C B D A 24 / 40 Which product of two quantities is equal to power? force × distance work done × velocity force × velocity work done × time 25 / 40 An object is stretched until it reaches the elastic limit. Which statement must describe the stress on the object when it is at the elastic limit? It is the maximum stress the object can withstand before it breaks. It is the maximum stress for which the object obeys Hooke’s law. It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has elastic deformation. It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has plastic deformation. 26 / 40 17 8 9 16 27 / 40 D C B A 28 / 40 A copper wire of length 3.6 m and diameter 1.22 mm is stretched by a force of 37 N. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. The Young modulus of copper is 1.17 × 1011Pa. Which extension is caused by this force? 0.76 mm 3.1 mm 0.24 mm 0.97 mm 29 / 40 The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water? 4.19 s 3.75 s 3.99 s 4.19 s 30 / 40 B A C D 31 / 40 B A D C 32 / 40 C A B D 33 / 40 16 mV 5 mV 15 mV 4 mV 34 / 40 Add a resistor of resistance 10Ω in series with the new source. Add a resistor of resistance 800Ω in series with the new source. Add a resistor of resistance 1000Ω in series with cell E. Add a resistor of resistance 0.1Ω in series with cell E. 35 / 40 72 cm 48 cm 32 cm 16 cm 36 / 40 the area of the triangle PQS the gradient of the tangent at Q the gradient of the straight line PQ the area below the curve PQ 37 / 40 Which statement about longitudinal waves and transverse waves is not correct? Both waves can form stationary waves. Both waves obey the equation v = fλ. Both waves can be polarised. Both waves can transfer energy as progressive waves. 38 / 40 A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer. Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency? interference diffraction the Doppler effect polarisation 39 / 40 In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone? The nucleus is charged. Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus. The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons. Most of the atom is empty space. 40 / 40 What are the SI base units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)? kg m2 s–1A kg m2 s–1A–1 kg m s–3A–1 kg m2 s–3A–1 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
An electromagnetic wave has a wavelength of 2.1 cm in a vacuum. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum contains this wave?
An observer is standing on a railway platform. A train passes the observer at constant speed while emitting sound of constant frequency f from its whistle. What does the observer hear?
An unstretched spring has a length of 2.0 cm. The spring is then stretched within its limit of proportionality by a tensile force of 1.5 N so that the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is 0.045 J. What is the stretched length of the spring?
A uranium nucleus has 92 protons and 143 neutrons. The nucleus emits a total of 3 α-particles and 4 β–particles to form nucleus X. How can nucleus X be represented?
How can the acceleration of an object be determined?
Which pair of quantities are physical quantities?
Which quantity is a vector?
Which statement about collisions is correct?
What is meant by the efficiency of a system?
Which product of two quantities is equal to power?
An object is stretched until it reaches the elastic limit. Which statement must describe the stress on the object when it is at the elastic limit?
A copper wire of length 3.6 m and diameter 1.22 mm is stretched by a force of 37 N. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. The Young modulus of copper is 1.17 × 1011Pa. Which extension is caused by this force?
The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?
Which statement about longitudinal waves and transverse waves is not correct?
A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer. Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency?
In the α-particle scattering experiment, a beam of α-particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are deflected by more than 90°, effectively rebounding towards the source of the α-particles. Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone?
What are the SI base units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
