0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 $46 000 $42 856 $28 000 $23 536 2 / 30 1050 2100 3150 810 3 / 30 What is the purpose of providing for depreciation? to apply the matching principle to provide cash in the business for replacement of non-current assets to calculate the true value of non-current assets to ensure that money is available for repair of non-current assets 4 / 30 Which factors should be considered when setting a budget? availability of skilled labour production capacity quality of goods to be produced 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 5 / 30 A company wants to sell 50 000 units and achieve a profit of $600 000. It has variable costs of $60 per unit and total fixed overheads of $400 000. What is the selling price per unit it needs to charge to achieve the required profit? $80 $68 $72 $64 6 / 30 Charlie and Daphne are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :1. Their fixed capital account balances at 31 December 2019 were $20 000 and $13 000 respectively. They changed the terms of the partnership on 1 January 2020 to introduce interest on capital at the rate of 10% per annum. Which effect did this change have on Charlie’s total share of profit for the year ended 31 December 2020? decrease of $700 decrease of $200 increase of $700 increase of $200 7 / 30 X Limited recorded the following information in its books of account. issue of 10 000 ordinary shares of $1 each at a price of $1.80 payment of dividends, $6200 transfer to general reserve, $7500 What was the effect on total revenue reserves? $8000 increase $6200 decrease $6700 increase $13 700 decrease 8 / 30 Which statement contains the correct accounting treatment for accrued income? added to income and shown as a current liability deducted from income and shown as a current asset deducted from income and shown as a current liability added to income and shown as a current asset 9 / 30 Which costs are part of the marginal cost of a product? direct material fixed production fixed selling and distribution variable production 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 10 / 30 Where is the dividend received by a company shown in its financial statements? statement of financial position and income statement statement of changes in equity only income statement only income statement and statement of changes in equity 11 / 30 Gordon sells goods on credit to Sybil. Which information from Sybil’s financial statements is of greatest interest to Gordon? mark-up return on capital employed current ratio gross profit margin 12 / 30 What is recorded in both the appropriation account and the current accounts of a partnership? drawings interest on drawings interest on capital 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 3 only 13 / 30 A trial balance did not agree and the book-keeper found the following errors. A bank overdraft of $100 had been shown as a debit in the trial balance. A cash purchase of $160 had been entered in the purchases account as $150; the purchase was entered correctly in the cash account. A telephone invoice for $400 had been debited to the insurance account. The book-keeper opened a suspense account in order to correct the errors. What was the opening entry in the suspense account? debit $60 credit $190 debit $550 credit $210 14 / 30 Which statements concerning the use of a budgetary control system are correct? Managers should receive a copy of the budget. Managers should agree with the aims and objectives of the budget. Managers should be consulted when the budget is prepared. Managers should be committed to attaining budget outcomes. 1, 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 15 / 30 Which item is an error of principle? No record was made of inventory withdrawn by the owner for private use. The amount shown on a purchases invoice for goods for resale was incorrectly recorded in the purchases journal. The cost of machinery repairs was debited to the machinery at cost account. Sales returns were credited to the returns inwards account. 16 / 30 B A C D 17 / 30 At 31 December 2021 a business had a non-current asset with a net book value of $18000. It had been purchased during the year ended 31 December 2020. Depreciation is charged at a rate of 25% per annum using the reducing balance method. A full year’s depreciation is charged in the year of purchase. What was the original cost of the non-current asset? $32 000 $22 500 $27 000 $24 000 18 / 30 $68.91 $91.88 $99.53 $76.56 19 / 30 The sales ledger control account of a business had a balance of $17 640. This did not agree with the total of the individual customer accounts in the sales ledger. The following errors have been discovered. An invoice in the sales journal for $460 has been entered wrongly in the sales ledger as $640. Credit balances on the sales ledger, $470, have been omitted from the sales ledger control account. Discounts allowed have been incorrectly totalled as $310 instead of $325. Goods sold to Harry for $690 have been entered in the account of Barry in error. What is the correct balance on the sales ledger control account? $17 185 $16 975 $17 155 $18 125 20 / 30 A business employs machine operators. Each machine operator works 36 hours a week. One unit of output takes four hours of labour. It also employs supervisors who can each supervise ten machine operators. Production is currently 1140 units a week. How many more units can be produced each week before the company needs to employ an extra supervisor? 90 30 3 75 21 / 30 $130 000 $190 000 $160 000 $120 000 22 / 30 What is a limitation of absorption costing? It does not take into account all costs of production. It does not comply with accounting principles It is not accepted for preparing published financial statements. It is not useful for improving the organisation’s performance. 23 / 30 The bank balance of a limited company was $390 000 before the following transactions took place. An issue of 500 000 new shares of $0.50 each was made at a premium of $0.25 per share. A debenture for $100 000 was repaid. A bonus issue of 100 000 shares of $0.50 each was made. What was the bank balance after these transactions? $665 000 $540 000 $715 000 $865 000 24 / 30 The motor vehicles at cost account had a balance of $90 000 at the beginning of the year on 1 January. On 1 September in the same year, the following transactions took place. A motor vehicle was disposed of. The vehicle had been purchased in the previous year for $21 000. A new motor vehicle was purchased at a cost of $24 000. Depreciation is calculated at 20% using the straight-line method. Depreciation is charged on a month-by-month basis for each month the motor vehicle is owned. What was the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December? $15 400 $18 600 $18 200 $22 400 25 / 30 B D C A 26 / 30 $7900 $7400 $4500 $5500 27 / 30 A D B C 28 / 30 B A C D 29 / 30 At 31 December 2021, a business had calculated the draft profit for the year of $57 500. It was then discovered that the following adjustments were necessary. Inventory valued at $2400 was damaged and now had a resale value of $1660. Rent receivable included $400 prepaid for 2022. The provision for doubtful debts needed to be increased by $890. What is the correct profit for the year? $55 470 $56 270 $58 730 $58 050 30 / 30 X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital account balances of $200 000. Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account. Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000. How much capital did Z contribute? $70 000 $40 000 $20 000 $50 000 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
2 / 30
3 / 30
What is the purpose of providing for depreciation?
4 / 30
Which factors should be considered when setting a budget?
5 / 30
A company wants to sell 50 000 units and achieve a profit of $600 000. It has variable costs of $60 per unit and total fixed overheads of $400 000. What is the selling price per unit it needs to charge to achieve the required profit?
6 / 30
Charlie and Daphne are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :1. Their fixed capital account balances at 31 December 2019 were $20 000 and $13 000 respectively. They changed the terms of the partnership on 1 January 2020 to introduce interest on capital at the rate of 10% per annum. Which effect did this change have on Charlie’s total share of profit for the year ended 31 December 2020?
7 / 30
X Limited recorded the following information in its books of account.
8 / 30
Which statement contains the correct accounting treatment for accrued income?
9 / 30
Which costs are part of the marginal cost of a product?
10 / 30
Where is the dividend received by a company shown in its financial statements?
11 / 30
Gordon sells goods on credit to Sybil. Which information from Sybil’s financial statements is of greatest interest to Gordon?
12 / 30
What is recorded in both the appropriation account and the current accounts of a partnership?
13 / 30
A trial balance did not agree and the book-keeper found the following errors.
The book-keeper opened a suspense account in order to correct the errors. What was the opening entry in the suspense account?
14 / 30
Which statements concerning the use of a budgetary control system are correct?
15 / 30
Which item is an error of principle?
16 / 30
17 / 30
At 31 December 2021 a business had a non-current asset with a net book value of $18000. It had been purchased during the year ended 31 December 2020. Depreciation is charged at a rate of 25% per annum using the reducing balance method. A full year’s depreciation is charged in the year of purchase. What was the original cost of the non-current asset?
18 / 30
19 / 30
The sales ledger control account of a business had a balance of $17 640. This did not agree with the total of the individual customer accounts in the sales ledger. The following errors have been discovered.
20 / 30
A business employs machine operators. Each machine operator works 36 hours a week. One unit of output takes four hours of labour. It also employs supervisors who can each supervise ten machine operators. Production is currently 1140 units a week. How many more units can be produced each week before the company needs to employ an extra supervisor?
21 / 30
22 / 30
What is a limitation of absorption costing?
23 / 30
The bank balance of a limited company was $390 000 before the following transactions took place.
24 / 30
The motor vehicles at cost account had a balance of $90 000 at the beginning of the year on 1 January. On 1 September in the same year, the following transactions took place.
25 / 30
26 / 30
27 / 30
28 / 30
29 / 30
At 31 December 2021, a business had calculated the draft profit for the year of $57 500. It was then discovered that the following adjustments were necessary.
30 / 30
X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital account balances of $200 000. Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account. Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000. How much capital did Z contribute?
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A C B D 2 / 40 What is a feature of competitive enzyme inhibition? Inhibition can be reversed by increasing the concentration of the substrate. The substrate and the inhibitor are the same shape. The inhibitor molecule changes the secondary structure of the enzyme. The inhibitor binds permanently to the active site. 3 / 40 Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by bacteria. Which events explain how bacteria become resistant to penicillin? The number of bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin increases. Resistance to penicillin is the result of a mutation in a bacterium. Bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin pass the allele to their daughter cells. The mutation for resistance to penicillin is always caused by the presence of penicillin. 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 only 4 / 40 Which structures are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? cell membrane and nucleus nucleus and mitochondria mitochondria and ribosomes cell membrane and ribosomes 5 / 40 Which molecule is a disaccharide and a reducing sugar? fructose sucrose glucose maltose 6 / 40 B D A C 7 / 40 Typical enzymes are large globular proteins with a specific tertiary shape. Which molecular interactions are directly involved in maintaining the tertiary shape? hydrogen bonding disulfide bridges hydrophobic interactions 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 8 / 40 ×10 000 ×100 ×1000 ×100 000 9 / 40 D C B A 10 / 40 Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a human female during early pregnancy. Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced? HCG is injected into a mouse, and plasma cells in the mouse produce antibodies specific to HCG. Antibodies are extracted from the mouse and then fused with cancer cells to produce hybridoma cells. Single hybridoma cells are cultured and they divide by mitosis to produce a clone of hybridoma cells. 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 11 / 40 A C B D 12 / 40 Some processes are listed. cytokinesis differentiation DNA replication mitosis How many of the listed processes occur during tissue repair by stem cells? 3 2 1 4 13 / 40 A country introduced a measles vaccination during a measles epidemic. Later, it was realised that vaccinated children were more likely to survive childhood than unvaccinated children, even when there were no measles epidemics. The vaccine had given the children some protection against other pathogenic infections. Which statement could account for this extra protection? Memory cells produced plasma cells which secreted anti-measles antibodies that bound to any antigen. Memory cells produced plasma cells which secreted anti-measles antibodies that bound to antigens that closely resembled measles antigens. B-lymphocytes produced memory cells which gave the children passive immunity to these infections. T-lymphocytes produced memory cells which gave the children natural immunity against these other infections. 14 / 40 One characteristic of DNA is that it is a universal genetic code. What is meant by a universal genetic code? Not all DNA triplets code for an amino acid All living organisms contain the same four nucleic acids. All DNA triplets code for a different amino acid. All living organisms use the same triplet code for amino acids. 15 / 40 A D B C 16 / 40 A D B C 17 / 40 Some cell structures are listed. endoplasmic reticulum Golgi body mitochondrion chloroplast Which cell structures do not contain cristae? 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 18 / 40 One molecule of X is formed by a single condensation reaction releasing one molecule of water. What is molecule X? a phospholipid a disaccharide a triglyceride a polysaccharide 19 / 40 Which statement about telomeres is correct? They prevent introns and exons being lost from genes during cell division. They are unpaired regions of DNA on the 3 end of every chromosome. They are genes which are present on the 5 end of every chromosome. They allow cells in culture from any age of donor to divide a fixed number of times. 20 / 40 Which part of the structure of haemoglobin carries oxygen? hydrophilic R groups hydrogen bonds four polypeptide chains haem groups 21 / 40 Immunity to certain pathogens develops when a person is given a vaccination. Which effects of vaccination are correct? production of antibodies to protect against future infections results in artificial active immunity stimulation of appropriate lymphocytes 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 22 / 40 A D B C 23 / 40 The statements describe some of the properties of water. requires a lot of heat energy to evaporate retains a lot of heat energy is able to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules is able to form hydrogen bonds with other polar and non-polar molecules Which properties are also important for transport in xylem? 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 24 / 40 Which statement correctly links muscular or elastic arteries to their function? The aorta is an example of a muscular artery as it transports blood from the left ventricle of the heart. Muscular arteries facilitate smoother blood flow than elastic arteries as their walls expand and recoil. Arteries further away from the heart are muscular arteries as they transport blood at high pressure. Elastic arteries expand when the heart contracts and then recoil as the heart relaxes to maintain pressure. 25 / 40 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 26 / 40 Which general formula is correct for monosaccharides such as fructose? (CHO2)n (CHO)n (CH2O)n (C2HO)n 27 / 40 D B C A 28 / 40 Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria? coronary artery vena cava pulmonary artery pulmonary vein 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 2 29 / 40 A D B C 30 / 40 C B A D 31 / 40 C B A D 32 / 40 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 33 / 40 Met Ala Gly Ala Gly Gly Val Met Gly Ala Ala Gly Gly Val Met Ala Gly Gly Val Gly Ala Met Gly Ala Ala Val Ala Gly 34 / 40 A B D C 35 / 40 What is a role of mitosis? replacement of cancerous tissue repair of cells growth of organisms production of genetically different cells 36 / 40 There are two main classes of antibiotics, broad spectrum and narrow spectrum. Broad spectrum antibiotics affect a wide range of bacteria, while narrow spectrum antibiotics affect specific types of bacteria. Which uses of antibiotics may result in antibiotic-resistant bacteria? a broad spectrum antibiotic given to reduce the effects of the influenza virus a broad spectrum antibiotic to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis in humans a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat diarrhoea and sickness in cattle 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 37 / 40 C A B D 38 / 40 Which statement about the transcription and translation of a gene is correct? The template strand of DNA has a base sequence that is complementary to the tRNA molecules required in translation. The non-transcribed strand of DNA has a base sequence that is complementary to the tRNA molecules required in translation. The template strand of DNA has a base sequence that is identical to the mRNA produced in transcription. The non-transcribed strand of DNA has a base sequence that is identical to the mRNA produced in transcription. 39 / 40 D C A B 40 / 40 1 3 4 2 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
What is a feature of competitive enzyme inhibition?
3 / 40
Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by bacteria. Which events explain how bacteria become resistant to penicillin?
4 / 40
Which structures are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
5 / 40
Which molecule is a disaccharide and a reducing sugar?
6 / 40
7 / 40
Typical enzymes are large globular proteins with a specific tertiary shape. Which molecular interactions are directly involved in maintaining the tertiary shape?
8 / 40
9 / 40
10 / 40
Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a human female during early pregnancy. Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced?
11 / 40
12 / 40
Some processes are listed.
How many of the listed processes occur during tissue repair by stem cells?
13 / 40
A country introduced a measles vaccination during a measles epidemic. Later, it was realised that vaccinated children were more likely to survive childhood than unvaccinated children, even when there were no measles epidemics. The vaccine had given the children some protection against other pathogenic infections. Which statement could account for this extra protection?
14 / 40
One characteristic of DNA is that it is a universal genetic code. What is meant by a universal genetic code?
15 / 40
16 / 40
17 / 40
Some cell structures are listed.
18 / 40
One molecule of X is formed by a single condensation reaction releasing one molecule of water. What is molecule X?
19 / 40
Which statement about telomeres is correct?
20 / 40
Which part of the structure of haemoglobin carries oxygen?
21 / 40
Immunity to certain pathogens develops when a person is given a vaccination. Which effects of vaccination are correct?
22 / 40
23 / 40
The statements describe some of the properties of water.
24 / 40
Which statement correctly links muscular or elastic arteries to their function?
25 / 40
26 / 40
Which general formula is correct for monosaccharides such as fructose?
27 / 40
28 / 40
Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria?
29 / 40
30 / 40
31 / 40
32 / 40
33 / 40
34 / 40
35 / 40
What is a role of mitosis?
36 / 40
There are two main classes of antibiotics, broad spectrum and narrow spectrum. Broad spectrum antibiotics affect a wide range of bacteria, while narrow spectrum antibiotics affect specific types of bacteria. Which uses of antibiotics may result in antibiotic-resistant bacteria?
37 / 40
38 / 40
Which statement about the transcription and translation of a gene is correct?
39 / 40
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 This question is about buckminsterfullerene, graphite, iodine and diamond. How many of these substances have a simple molecular structure? 3 0 2 1 2 / 40 An aqueous solution contains 4.00 g of a carboxylic acid, Q. When this solution reacts with an excess of magnesium, 380 cm3 of gas is produced, measured at s.t.p. What is the relative formula mass of Q? 118 126 59 236 3 / 40 D B C A 4 / 40 Which species is a free radical? O2- Be– Zn He 5 / 40 The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature. With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl . With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S. What is the explanation for this difference in products? Iodide ions are better reducing agents than chloride ions Sulfuric acid is able to act as a dehydrating agent with NaI. Chloride ions will displace iodine from the solution. Hydrogen chloride is more volatile than hydrogen iodide. 6 / 40 B D A C 7 / 40 Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers? CH3CH2CH2CHO CH3CH2COCH2CH3 CH3CH2COCH3 CH3CH(CH3)CH2CO2H 8 / 40 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 9 / 40 C D A B 10 / 40 D B A C 11 / 40 B A D C 12 / 40 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 13 / 40 Z has a greater electronegativity than V. Ions of V and Z have the same number of full electron shells. V has more outer electrons than Z. Ions of Z are positively charged. 14 / 40 a decrease in temperature an increase in temperature a decrease in pressure an increase in pressure 15 / 40 D B A C 16 / 40 Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct? The ammonium ion has the same number of electrons as a methane molecule. Ammonia gas is produced when an aqueous solution containing the ammonium ion is reacted with a strong acid. Silver iodide is soluble in a concentrated aqueous solution of ammonia. The square planar ammonium ion contains a dative covalent bond. 17 / 40 Which statement about aluminium chloride is correct? Aluminium chloride has a much higher melting point than magnesium chloride due to the small size of the aluminium ion. Anhydrous aluminium chloride reacts vigorously with water to form a solution with a pH greater than 7. Each Al2Cl6 molecule found in aluminium chloride vapour contains two coordinate bonds. The bonding between aluminium and chlorine is strongly ionic due to the large difference in electronegativity. 18 / 40 A student reacts 1 mol of copper with concentrated nitric acid to produce 1 mol of copper(II) nitrate, 2 mol of water and substance X. No other product is formed. Substance X does not contain copper or hydrogen. What could be substance X? NO N2O NO2 N2 19 / 40 The equation shows a reaction that occurs between carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide in a catalytic converter. 2CO(g)+2NO(g)→2CO2(g)+N2(g) Which statement is correct? The reaction results in increased ozone depletion. The catalyst used is finely divided iron. The reaction prevents greenhouse gas emissions into the atmosphere. The reaction reduces the possibility of the formation of photochemical smog. 20 / 40 C D B A 21 / 40 Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct? The hydrolysis reaction between water and 1-iodopropane is faster because the C–Br bond is less polar than the C–I bond. The mechanism of the reaction involves the formation of a stable carbocation. The reaction is slower with 1-chloropropane because the C–Cl bond is stronger than the C–Br bond. The hydrolysis reaction with water is very slow because water is a weak electrophile. 22 / 40 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. If a molecule contains two non-identical chiral carbon atoms, four optical isomers exist. How many isomers are there with: molecular formula C7H14O and a five-membered ring and a tertiary alcohol group? 9 5 4 13 23 / 40 Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium? There are more delocalised electrons in calcium than in barium as it has a lower ionisation energy Calcium cations are smaller than barium cations and have a stronger attraction to the delocalised electrons. There is greater repulsion between barium atoms as they have more complete electron shells than calcium atoms The structure of calcium is partly giant molecular. 24 / 40 B C D A 25 / 40 A B D C 26 / 40 Which compound produces butan-2-ol and ethanoic acid on hydrolysis? CH3CH2CO2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 CH3CO2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 CH3CH(CH3)CO2CH2CH3 CH3CO2CH(CH3)2 27 / 40 In the treatment of domestic water supplies, chlorine is added to water to kill bacteria. Some ClO– ions are formed. What is the change in oxidation number of chlorine when forming the ClO–ion from aqueous chlorine? +1 +2 0 –1 28 / 40 Element X has six more protons than element Y. Which statement must be correct? Atoms of element Y are smaller than atoms of element X Element X and element Y are in the same period. Element X has a full shell of electrons. Element X and element Y are in the same group. 29 / 40 B A D C 30 / 40 A B D C 31 / 40 C D B A 32 / 40 For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them? third and fourth ionisation energies fifth and sixth ionisation energies fourth and fifth ionisation energies sixth and seventh ionisation energies 33 / 40 Which compound can be used to make propanoic acid by treatment with a single reagent? CH3CH(OH)CN CH3CH(OH)CH3 CH2=CHCH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2CN 34 / 40 Sodium dichromate(VI), Na2Cr2O7, reacts with hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, producing Cr3+ ions, water and oxygen. What is the correctly balanced ionic equation for this reaction? Cr2O72- + 2H+ + H2O2 → 2Cr3+ + 2H2O + 4O2 Cr2O72- + 8H+ + 3H2O2 → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3O2 Cr2O72- + 14H+ + 3H2O2 → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3O2 Cr2O72- + 8H+ + 6H2O2 → 2Cr3+ + 10H2O + 6O2 35 / 40 D A C B 36 / 40 B C A D 37 / 40 Tartaric acid, HOOCCH(OH)CH(OH)COOH, is found in many plants. A sample of tartaric acid reacts with an excess of LiAlH4 to form the organic product J. What happens when NaOH(aq) is added to separate samples of tartaric acid and J? Only J reacts. Neither tartaric acid nor J react Both tartaric acid and J react. Only tartaric acid reacts. 38 / 40 B A C D 39 / 40 Which type of reaction happens during the hydrolysis of 2-bromopropane? nucleophilic addition nucleophilic substitution electrophilic addition free radical substitution 40 / 40 If 1 mole of hexane combusts in an excess of oxygen, how many moles of products are formed? 12 13 14 11 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
This question is about buckminsterfullerene, graphite, iodine and diamond.
How many of these substances have a simple molecular structure?
An aqueous solution contains 4.00 g of a carboxylic acid, Q. When this solution reacts with an excess of magnesium, 380 cm3 of gas is produced, measured at s.t.p. What is the relative formula mass of Q?
Which species is a free radical?
The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature. With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl . With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S. What is the explanation for this difference in products?
Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers?
Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct?
Which statement about aluminium chloride is correct?
A student reacts 1 mol of copper with concentrated nitric acid to produce 1 mol of copper(II) nitrate, 2 mol of water and substance X. No other product is formed.
Substance X does not contain copper or hydrogen.
What could be substance X?
The equation shows a reaction that occurs between carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide in a catalytic converter.
2CO(g)+2NO(g)→2CO2(g)+N2(g)
Which statement is correct?
Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct?
Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. If a molecule contains two non-identical chiral carbon atoms, four optical isomers exist. How many isomers are there with:
Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium?
Which compound produces butan-2-ol and ethanoic acid on hydrolysis?
In the treatment of domestic water supplies, chlorine is added to water to kill bacteria. Some ClO– ions are formed.
What is the change in oxidation number of chlorine when forming the ClO–ion from aqueous chlorine?
Element X has six more protons than element Y. Which statement must be correct?
For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them?
Which compound can be used to make propanoic acid by treatment with a single reagent?
Sodium dichromate(VI), Na2Cr2O7, reacts with hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, producing Cr3+ ions, water and oxygen.
What is the correctly balanced ionic equation for this reaction?
Tartaric acid, HOOCCH(OH)CH(OH)COOH, is found in many plants. A sample of tartaric acid reacts with an excess of LiAlH4 to form the organic product J. What happens when NaOH(aq) is added to separate samples of tartaric acid and J?
Which type of reaction happens during the hydrolysis of 2-bromopropane?
If 1 mole of hexane combusts in an excess of oxygen, how many moles of products are formed?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Which statement correctly describes absolute advantage? It is when a country has a higher opportunity cost in producing a good than another country. It is when a country has a lower wage cost in producing a good than another country. It is when a country’s output of a good is greater per unit of resource than another country. It is when the relative prices of exports of a country are greater than the relative prices of its imports. 2 / 30 What is not likely to result from the use of division of labour? a decrease in average costs an increase in productivity an improvement in quality of the final product an increase in motivation 3 / 30 B D C A 4 / 30 The £ depreciated against the US$ and appreciated against the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and depreciated against the €. The £ depreciated against the US$ and the €. The £ appreciated against the US$ and the € 5 / 30 The price of goods and services fell between 2013 and 2014. The cost of living fell from 2016 onwards. Disinflation took place between 2014 and 2015. The purchasing power of money increased between 2014 and 2015. 6 / 30 A D C B 7 / 30 In which situation will a country’s terms of trade improve? The value of its external payments rises by less than the value of its external receipts. Its total value of imports rises less than its total value of exports. The prices of its imports rise by less than the prices of its exports. Its volume of imports rises less than its volume of exports. 8 / 30 Which term assumes the existence of ‘qualities, knowledge and skills’ that allow an individual to be more productive? enterprise investment mechanisation human capital specialisation 9 / 30 an ad valorem tariff an embargo a quota a specific tariff 10 / 30 Supply-side policies can be used to correct cost-push inflation. Which policy would best achieve this aim in the long run? allowing trade unions to maintain work practices irrespective of productivity supporting the replacement of labour-manned machines by the use of robots encouraging workers to work extra hours for extra pay increasing total labour supply by employing more unskilled workers 11 / 30 D C B A 12 / 30 Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax? corporation tax in India that is imposed on the profits of companies specific tax in South Africa imposed on the purchase of cigarettes stamp duty in Malaysia that is the tax on the purchase of a residential property import duties in Brazil that are imposed on imported goods 13 / 30 When the price of good X is $2.00, the quantity supplied is 100 000. The price elasticity of supply of good X is 0.8 in the short run and 1.4 in the long run. The price of good X increases to $2.20. What is the increase in the quantity supplied of good X between the short run and the long run? 140 000 114 000 60 000 6000 14 / 30 If an industry is currently state-owned and state-run, what does not represent a reason for it being privatised? Decisions will no longer be taken with political considerations in mind. Its owners would have more incentive to make it operate profitably. There will be greater incentives for managers to introduce modern technology. The benefits of merit goods will be taken into account in decision-making. 15 / 30 Demand for medical face masks exceeds supply during a disease outbreak. What is the most likely cause of this excess demand? The price of medical face masks is fixed below the equilibrium price. The demand for medical face masks is price inelastic in the short run. Some consumers do not have effective demand. The supply of medical face masks is inelastic in the short run. 16 / 30 A B D C 17 / 30 The minimum wage reversed the trend in low pay of the previous 20 years. The minimum wage was responsible for the largest reduction of low pay in the period. The minimum wage helped the low paid more than the extremely low paid. The minimum wage reduced the numbers of both low paid and extremely low paid. 18 / 30 A household’s income increased by 3%. Over the same period, the rate of inflation was also 3%. Which statement is correct? The nominal income of the household increased by 3% while the real income of the household increased by 6%. The nominal income of the household remained unchanged while the real income of the household increased by 3%. The nominal income of the household increased by 3% while the real income of the household remained unchanged. Both the nominal income of the household and the real income of the household increased by 3%. 19 / 30 C B D A 20 / 30 Product X has a price elasticity of supply (PES) of +2, whilst product Y has a PES of +0.2. Which statement about products X and Y is correct? X has more substitutes than Y. After a price rise, it is more difficult to increase Y’s output than X’s. After a price fall of 10%, more people would buy X than would buy Y. A 20% price fall would lead to a greater decrease in production of Y than of X. 21 / 30 What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation? exchange rate budget deficit interest rate direct taxes 22 / 30 A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding a fall in output. Which action is most likely to meet its needs? an increase in taxation an increase in the exchange rate an increase in laws to promote competition an increase in the budget surplus 23 / 30 C D A B 24 / 30 Which measure to correct a balance of payments current account deficit would be classified as an expenditure-reducing policy? an increase in direct taxes a reduction in interest rates an introduction of foreign exchange controls a revaluation of the currency 25 / 30 The general level of prices has fallen. The volume of imports increasingly exceeds the volume of exports. The terms of trade have deteriorated. Export prices have increased each year. 26 / 30 A D C B 27 / 30 PES is elastic when the price is low and becomes more inelastic when the price rises. PES rises when the supply rises. PES is greater than unity at all points along the supply curve. PES is the same at all points along the supply curve. 28 / 30 A D B C 29 / 30 What is an example of a transfer payment? government spending on motorways government spending on hospitals minimum wage welfare benefits 30 / 30 A doctor has very long working hours and a high level of stress. She can become a teacher instead of continuing as a doctor. What is the opportunity cost of choosing to continue as a doctor? the risk of mistakes caused by tiredness the possible costs of illness caused by high stress levels the retraining costs of becoming a teacher the potential salary as a teacher NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
Which statement correctly describes absolute advantage?
What is not likely to result from the use of division of labour?
In which situation will a country’s terms of trade improve?
Which term assumes the existence of ‘qualities, knowledge and skills’ that allow an individual to be more productive?
Supply-side policies can be used to correct cost-push inflation. Which policy would best achieve this aim in the long run?
Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax?
When the price of good X is $2.00, the quantity supplied is 100 000. The price elasticity of supply of good X is 0.8 in the short run and 1.4 in the long run. The price of good X increases to $2.20. What is the increase in the quantity supplied of good X between the short run and the long run?
If an industry is currently state-owned and state-run, what does not represent a reason for it being privatised?
Demand for medical face masks exceeds supply during a disease outbreak. What is the most likely cause of this excess demand?
A household’s income increased by 3%. Over the same period, the rate of inflation was also 3%. Which statement is correct?
Product X has a price elasticity of supply (PES) of +2, whilst product Y has a PES of +0.2. Which statement about products X and Y is correct?
What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation?
A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding a fall in output. Which action is most likely to meet its needs?
Which measure to correct a balance of payments current account deficit would be classified as an expenditure-reducing policy?
What is an example of a transfer payment?
A doctor has very long working hours and a high level of stress. She can become a teacher instead of continuing as a doctor. What is the opportunity cost of choosing to continue as a doctor?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which microorganisms have a length that is equal to the wavelength in free space of an electromagnetic wave that is visible to the human eye? algae of length 0.5 μm bacteria of length 5.0 μm protozoa of length 100 μm fungi of length 50 μm 2 / 40 D C A B 3 / 40 Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave? They consist of vibrating atoms. They can be demonstrated in ripple tanks. The distance from a peak to the next trough is equal to a wavelength. They transfer energy from one position to another. 4 / 40 What are the SI base units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)? kg m2 s–1A–1 kg m s–3A–1 kg m2 s–3A–1 kg m2 s–1A 5 / 40 B A D C 6 / 40 2.00f 1.75f 1.25f 1.50f 7 / 40 A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long stretched spring. Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave? The wavelength measurements for the two waves are made at right angles to each other. The energy transferred by the two waves is in the same direction. The velocities of the two waves are in the same direction. The displacement measurements for the particles of the two waves are made at right angles to each other. 8 / 40 D B C A 9 / 40 Add a resistor of resistance 0.1Ω in series with cell E. Add a resistor of resistance 10Ω in series with the new source. Add a resistor of resistance 1000Ω in series with cell E. Add a resistor of resistance 800Ω in series with the new source. 10 / 40 D A B C 11 / 40 A D B C 12 / 40 Light of a single frequency passes through two narrow slits and produces an interference pattern on a screen some distance away. The interference fringes are very close together. Which change would increase the distance between the fringes? Increase the distance between the slits and the screen. Increase the brightness of the light source. Increase the frequency of the light used. Increase the distance between the two slits. 13 / 40 They have the same displacement. They travel the same distance. They have the same average speed. They have the same average velocity. 14 / 40 C D B A 15 / 40 D A B C 16 / 40 A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line of travel. Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct? They must travel at the same speed. They must have the same wavelength. They must have the same frequency. They must have a constant phase difference. 17 / 40 15 mV 5 mV 4 mV 16 mV 18 / 40 1.6d 2.7d 7.1d 0.41d 19 / 40 A train of mass 600 000kg moves with a speed of 100 km h–1. What is the order of magnitude of the kinetic energy of the train? 106 J 1010 J 1012 J 108 J 20 / 40 What is the ohm expressed in SI base units? J C–1A–1 kg–1 m–2 s3A2 WA–2 kg m2 s–3A–2 21 / 40 Point R is at a node. Points Q and S vibrate in phase. The distance between P and T is three wavelengths. The wave transfers energy from P to T. 22 / 40 Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point. Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the waves meet? The two waves must be emitted from their sources with the same intensity. The two waves must have the same amplitude at the point. The two waves must be in phase with each other at the point. The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions. 23 / 40 Which two particles have opposite charges? beta-minus particle and electron alpha-particle and helium nucleus positron and proton antiproton and beta-plus particle 24 / 40 A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011Pa. One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. What is the extension of the wire? 3.0 × 10–7 m 3.0 × 10–2 m 3.0 × 10–5 m 3.0 × 10–4 m 25 / 40 What is the symbol for the SI base unit of temperature? K °K °C C 26 / 40 Two forces form a couple. Which statement describes the two forces? They pass through the same point. They have the same magnitude. They are in the same direction. They are perpendicular to each other. 27 / 40 A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer. Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency? polarisation diffraction interference the Doppler effect 28 / 40 A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of (15.0 ± 0.1) cm. What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder? (282.7 ± 0.2) cm2 (280 ± 10) cm2 (420 ± 30) cm2 (424.1 ± 0.3) cm2 29 / 40 accurate and precise precise but not accurate not precise and not accurate accurate but not precise 30 / 40 A wire carries a current of 0.10 µA. The potential difference across the wire is 10 mV. How much energy is dissipated by the wire in a time of 10 s? 10 nJ 1.0 nJ 10 pJ 1.0 pJ 31 / 40 C B A D 32 / 40 B C D A 33 / 40 halve the frequency of the ripples double the amplitude of the ripples double the width of the gap halve the wavelength of the ripples 34 / 40 A D B C 35 / 40 at the bottom of the jump when he is stationary on the platform before the jump on the way down before the cord has started to extend on the way down as he decelerates 36 / 40 The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water? 4.19 s 3.75 s 3.99 s 4.19 s 37 / 40 B C D A 38 / 40 1.6 × 10–7 Ωm 2.0 × 10–6 Ωm 1.2 × 10–7 Ωm 4.9 × 10–7 Ωm 39 / 40 The radio waves are coherent but the microwaves are not. The radio waves travel at the speed of light but the microwaves do not. The radio waves are diffracted around the mountain but the microwaves are not. The radio waves are reflected by the mountain but the microwaves are not. 40 / 40 Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier? 9.1 × 10–19C 4.0 × 10–19C 1.1 × 10–19C 4.8 × 10–19C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
Which microorganisms have a length that is equal to the wavelength in free space of an electromagnetic wave that is visible to the human eye?
Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave?
What are the SI base units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long stretched spring. Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave?
Light of a single frequency passes through two narrow slits and produces an interference pattern on a screen some distance away. The interference fringes are very close together. Which change would increase the distance between the fringes?
A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the same line of travel. Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct?
A train of mass 600 000kg moves with a speed of 100 km h–1. What is the order of magnitude of the kinetic energy of the train?
What is the ohm expressed in SI base units?
Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point. Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the waves meet?
Which two particles have opposite charges?
A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011Pa. One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The wire obeys Hooke’s law. What is the extension of the wire?
What is the symbol for the SI base unit of temperature?
Two forces form a couple. Which statement describes the two forces?
A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer. Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency?
A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of (15.0 ± 0.1) cm. What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder?
A wire carries a current of 0.10 µA. The potential difference across the wire is 10 mV. How much energy is dissipated by the wire in a time of 10 s?
The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?
Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier?
