Cambridge international AS & A Level Past Papers Practice

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A Levels | Accounting (9706)
Question Count : 30

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Accounting (9706)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

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3 / 30

What is the purpose of providing for depreciation?

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Which factors should be considered when setting a budget?

  1. availability of skilled labour
  2. production capacity
  3. quality of goods to be produced

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A company wants to sell 50 000 units and achieve a profit of $600 000. It has variable costs of
$60 per unit and total fixed overheads of $400 000.
What is the selling price per unit it needs to charge to achieve the required profit?

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Charlie and Daphne are in partnership, sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2 :1. Their fixed
capital account balances at 31 December 2019 were $20 000 and $13 000 respectively.
They changed the terms of the partnership on 1 January 2020 to introduce interest on capital at
the rate of 10% per annum.
Which effect did this change have on Charlie’s total share of profit for the year ended
31 December 2020?

7 / 30

X Limited recorded the following information in its books of account.

  1. issue of 10 000 ordinary shares of $1 each at a price of $1.80
  2. payment of dividends, $6200
  3. transfer to general reserve, $7500
    What was the effect on total revenue reserves?

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Which statement contains the correct accounting treatment for accrued income?

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Which costs are part of the marginal cost of a product?

  1. direct material
  2. fixed production
  3. fixed selling and distribution
  4. variable production

10 / 30

Where is the dividend received by a company shown in its financial statements?

11 / 30

Gordon sells goods on credit to Sybil.
Which information from Sybil’s financial statements is of greatest interest to Gordon?

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What is recorded in both the appropriation account and the current accounts of a partnership?

  1. drawings
  2. interest on drawings
  3. interest on capital

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A trial balance did not agree and the book-keeper found the following errors.

  1. A bank overdraft of $100 had been shown as a debit in the trial balance.
  2. A cash purchase of $160 had been entered in the purchases account as $150; the
    purchase was entered correctly in the cash account.
  3. A telephone invoice for $400 had been debited to the insurance account.

The book-keeper opened a suspense account in order to correct the errors.
What was the opening entry in the suspense account?

14 / 30

Which statements concerning the use of a budgetary control system are correct?

  1. Managers should receive a copy of the budget.
  2. Managers should agree with the aims and objectives of the budget.
  3. Managers should be consulted when the budget is prepared.
  4. Managers should be committed to attaining budget outcomes.

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Which item is an error of principle?

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17 / 30

At 31 December 2021 a business had a non-current asset with a net book value of $18000. It
had been purchased during the year ended 31 December 2020.
Depreciation is charged at a rate of 25% per annum using the reducing balance method. A full
year’s depreciation is charged in the year of purchase.
What was the original cost of the non-current asset?

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The sales ledger control account of a business had a balance of $17 640. This did not agree with
the total of the individual customer accounts in the sales ledger.
The following errors have been discovered.

  1. An invoice in the sales journal for $460 has been entered wrongly in the sales ledger
    as $640.
  2. Credit balances on the sales ledger, $470, have been omitted from the sales ledger
    control account.
  3. Discounts allowed have been incorrectly totalled as $310 instead of $325.
  4. Goods sold to Harry for $690 have been entered in the account of Barry in error.
    What is the correct balance on the sales ledger control account?

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A business employs machine operators. Each machine operator works 36 hours a week.
One unit of output takes four hours of labour.
It also employs supervisors who can each supervise ten machine operators.
Production is currently 1140 units a week.
How many more units can be produced each week before the company needs to employ an
extra supervisor?

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What is a limitation of absorption costing?

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The bank balance of a limited company was $390 000 before the following transactions took
place.

  1. An issue of 500 000 new shares of $0.50 each was made at a premium of $0.25 per share.
  2. A debenture for $100 000 was repaid.
  3. A bonus issue of 100 000 shares of $0.50 each was made.
    What was the bank balance after these transactions?

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The motor vehicles at cost account had a balance of $90 000 at the beginning of the year on
1 January.
On 1 September in the same year, the following transactions took place.

  1. A motor vehicle was disposed of. The vehicle had been purchased in the previous
    year for $21 000.
  2. A new motor vehicle was purchased at a cost of $24 000.
    Depreciation is calculated at 20% using the straight-line method. Depreciation is charged on a
    month-by-month basis for each month the motor vehicle is owned.
    What was the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December?

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At 31 December 2021, a business had calculated the draft profit for the year of $57 500.
It was then discovered that the following adjustments were necessary.

  1. Inventory valued at $2400 was damaged and now had a resale value of $1660.
  2. Rent receivable included $400 prepaid for 2022.
  3. The provision for doubtful debts needed to be increased by $890.
    What is the correct profit for the year?

30 / 30

X and Y are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They have combined capital
account balances of $200 000.
Z was admitted as a partner. Non-current assets were revalued upwards by $30 000. Goodwill
was valued at $20 000 but was not to be retained in the books of account.
Following Z’s admission the total of the partners’ capital accounts was $270 000.
How much capital did Z contribute?

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A Levels | Biology (9700)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Biology (9700)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

What is a feature of competitive enzyme inhibition?

3 / 40

Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by bacteria.
Which events explain how bacteria become resistant to penicillin?

  1. The number of bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin increases.
  2. Resistance to penicillin is the result of a mutation in a bacterium.
  3. Bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin pass the allele to their daughter
    cells.
  4. The mutation for resistance to penicillin is always caused by the presence of
    penicillin.

4 / 40

Which structures are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

5 / 40

Which molecule is a disaccharide and a reducing sugar?

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7 / 40

Typical enzymes are large globular proteins with a specific tertiary shape.
Which molecular interactions are directly involved in maintaining the tertiary shape?

  1. hydrogen bonding
  2. disulfide bridges
  3. hydrophobic interactions

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10 / 40

Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a
human female during early pregnancy.
Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced?

  1. HCG is injected into a mouse, and plasma cells in the mouse produce antibodies
    specific to HCG.
  2. Antibodies are extracted from the mouse and then fused with cancer cells to
    produce hybridoma cells.
  3. Single hybridoma cells are cultured and they divide by mitosis to produce a clone of
    hybridoma cells.

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12 / 40

Some processes are listed.

  • cytokinesis
  • differentiation
  • DNA replication
  • mitosis

How many of the listed processes occur during tissue repair by stem cells?

13 / 40

A country introduced a measles vaccination during a measles epidemic.
Later, it was realised that vaccinated children were more likely to survive childhood than
unvaccinated children, even when there were no measles epidemics.
The vaccine had given the children some protection against other pathogenic infections.
Which statement could account for this extra protection?

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One characteristic of DNA is that it is a universal genetic code.
What is meant by a universal genetic code?

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Some cell structures are listed.

  1. endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi body
  3. mitochondrion
  4. chloroplast
    Which cell structures do not contain cristae?

18 / 40

One molecule of X is formed by a single condensation reaction releasing one molecule of water.
What is molecule X?

19 / 40

Which statement about telomeres is correct?

20 / 40

Which part of the structure of haemoglobin carries oxygen?

21 / 40

Immunity to certain pathogens develops when a person is given a vaccination.
Which effects of vaccination are correct?

  1. production of antibodies to protect against future infections
  2. results in artificial active immunity
  3. stimulation of appropriate lymphocytes

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23 / 40

The statements describe some of the properties of water.

  1. requires a lot of heat energy to evaporate
  2. retains a lot of heat energy
  3. is able to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules
  4. is able to form hydrogen bonds with other polar and non-polar molecules
    Which properties are also important for transport in xylem?

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Which statement correctly links muscular or elastic arteries to their function?

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Which general formula is correct for monosaccharides such as fructose?

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Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria?

  1. coronary artery
  2. vena cava
  3. pulmonary artery
  4. pulmonary vein

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What is a role of mitosis?

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There are two main classes of antibiotics, broad spectrum and narrow spectrum.
Broad spectrum antibiotics affect a wide range of bacteria, while narrow spectrum antibiotics
affect specific types of bacteria.
Which uses of antibiotics may result in antibiotic-resistant bacteria?

  1. a broad spectrum antibiotic given to reduce the effects of the influenza virus
  2. a broad spectrum antibiotic to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis in humans
  3. a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat diarrhoea and sickness in cattle

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Which statement about the transcription and translation of a gene is correct?

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A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Chemistry (9701)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

This question is about buckminsterfullerene, graphite, iodine and diamond.

How many of these substances have a simple molecular structure?

2 / 40

An aqueous solution contains 4.00 g of a carboxylic acid, Q. When this solution reacts with an
excess of magnesium, 380 cm3 of gas is produced, measured at s.t.p.
What is the relative formula mass of Q?

3 / 40

4 / 40

Which species is a free radical?

5 / 40

The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room
temperature.
With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl .
With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S.
What is the explanation for this difference in products?

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7 / 40

Which compound will react with LiAlH4 to form two optical isomers?

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Which statement about ammonia or the ammonium ion is correct?

17 / 40

Which statement about aluminium chloride is correct?

18 / 40

A student reacts 1 mol of copper with concentrated nitric acid to produce 1 mol of
copper(II) nitrate, 2 mol of water and substance X. No other product is formed.

Substance X does not contain copper or hydrogen.

What could be substance X?

19 / 40

The equation shows a reaction that occurs between carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide in a
catalytic converter.

2CO(g)+2NO(g)→2CO2(g)+N2(g)

Which statement is correct?

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21 / 40

Which statement concerning the hydrolysis of 1-bromopropane with water is correct?

22 / 40

Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question.
If a molecule contains two non-identical chiral carbon atoms, four optical isomers exist.
How many isomers are there with:

  • molecular formula C7H14O and
  • a five-membered ring and
  • a tertiary alcohol group?

23 / 40

Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium?

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Which compound produces butan-2-ol and ethanoic acid on hydrolysis?

27 / 40

In the treatment of domestic water supplies, chlorine is added to water to kill bacteria. Some ClO
ions are formed.

What is the change in oxidation number of chlorine when forming the ClOion from aqueous
chlorine?

28 / 40

Element X has six more protons than element Y.
Which statement must be correct?

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For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them?

33 / 40

Which compound can be used to make propanoic acid by treatment with a single reagent?

34 / 40

Sodium dichromate(VI),  Na2Cr2O7, reacts with hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, producing Cr3+ ions,
water and oxygen.

What is the correctly balanced ionic equation for this reaction?

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Tartaric acid, HOOCCH(OH)CH(OH)COOH, is found in many plants.
A sample of tartaric acid reacts with an excess of LiAlH4 to form the organic product J.
What happens when NaOH(aq) is added to separate samples of tartaric acid and J?

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39 / 40

Which type of reaction happens during the hydrolysis of 2-bromopropane?

40 / 40

If 1 mole of hexane combusts in an excess of oxygen, how many moles of products are formed?

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A Levels | Economics (9708)
Question Count : 30

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Economics (9708)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

Which statement correctly describes absolute advantage?

2 / 30

What is not likely to result from the use of division of labour?

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In which situation will a country’s terms of trade improve?

8 / 30

Which term assumes the existence of ‘qualities, knowledge and skills’ that allow an individual to
be more productive?

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10 / 30

Supply-side policies can be used to correct cost-push inflation.
Which policy would best achieve this aim in the long run?

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12 / 30

Which type of tax used in different countries is a direct tax?

13 / 30

When the price of good X is $2.00, the quantity supplied is 100 000. The price elasticity of supply
of good X is 0.8 in the short run and 1.4 in the long run. The price of good X increases to $2.20.
What is the increase in the quantity supplied of good X between the short run and the long run?

14 / 30

If an industry is currently state-owned and state-run, what does not represent a reason for it
being privatised?

15 / 30

Demand for medical face masks exceeds supply during a disease outbreak.
What is the most likely cause of this excess demand?

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A household’s income increased by 3%. Over the same period, the rate of inflation was also 3%.
Which statement is correct?

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Product X has a price elasticity of supply (PES) of +2, whilst product Y has a PES of +0.2.
Which statement about products X and Y is correct?

21 / 30

What, if decreased, will help to reduce the rate of inflation?

22 / 30

A government is faced with rising inflation. It wishes to reduce inflationary pressure while avoiding
a fall in output.
Which action is most likely to meet its needs?

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Which measure to correct a balance of payments current account deficit would be classified as
an expenditure-reducing policy?

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What is an example of a transfer payment?

30 / 30

A doctor has very long working hours and a high level of stress. She can become a teacher
instead of continuing as a doctor.
What is the opportunity cost of choosing to continue as a doctor?

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A Levels | Physics (9702)
Question Count : 40

Duration :1 hours

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A Levels | Physics (9702)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Which microorganisms have a length that is equal to the wavelength in free space of an
electromagnetic wave that is visible to the human eye?

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Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave?

4 / 40

What are the SI base units of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

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A transverse wave and a longitudinal wave both travel in the same direction down a long
stretched spring.
Which statement is not correct for these two forms of wave?

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Light of a single frequency passes through two narrow slits and produces an interference pattern
on a screen some distance away. The interference fringes are very close together.
Which change would increase the distance between the fringes?

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A stationary wave is formed by two progressive waves travelling in opposite directions along the
same line of travel.
Which statement about the two progressive waves is not correct?

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A train of mass 600 000kg moves with a speed of 100 km h–1.
What is the order of magnitude of the kinetic energy of the train?

20 / 40

What is the ohm expressed in SI base units?

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22 / 40

Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point.
Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the
waves meet?

23 / 40

Which two particles have opposite charges?

24 / 40

A steel wire has a length of 300 cm and a cross-sectional area of 0.50 mm2. The Young modulus
of steel is 2.0 × 1011Pa.
One end of the wire is attached to a fixed point. A load of 10 N is hung from the other end. The
wire obeys Hooke’s law.
What is the extension of the wire?

25 / 40

What is the symbol for the SI base unit of temperature?

26 / 40

Two forces form a couple.
Which statement describes the two forces?

27 / 40

A vehicle moves with constant velocity along a road directly towards an observer. The observed
frequency of the sound from the vehicle changes as the vehicle moves past the observer.
Which phenomenon explains the change in frequency?

28 / 40

A hollow cylinder, which is open at both ends, has a radius of (3.0 ± 0.1) cm and a length of
(15.0 ± 0.1) cm.
What is the value, with its absolute uncertainty, of the surface area of the cylinder?

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30 / 40

A wire carries a current of 0.10 µA. The potential difference across the wire is 10 mV.
How much energy is dissipated by the wire in a time of 10 s?

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The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the
well drops a heavy stone down the well.
Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1.
What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?

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Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier?

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