0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Accounting (9706) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 16.25% too low 24.76% too low 24.76% too high 16.25% too high 2 / 30 The bank column of the cash book showed a credit balance of $2915. This did not agree with the balance shown on the bank statement. It was then discovered that: a bank transfer, $150, from a customer was not recorded in the cash book a cheque, $450, received from a customer was not recorded on the bank statement a cheque, $530, issued to a supplier was incorrectly recorded in the cash book as $350 but was correctly recorded by the bank bank charge, $25, was not recorded in the cash book. When these items were adjusted, the cash book balance agreed with the bank statement balance. What was the balance shown on the bank statement before any adjustments were made? $2520 debit $3420 credit $3420 debit $2520 credit 3 / 30 Which item is revenue expenditure? legal fees on the purchase of premises redecorating office premises number plates on a new motor vehicle installation costs of machinery 4 / 30 What is not a reason for a business to maintain a purchases journal? to divide book-keeping duties between several people to assist in preparing the purchases ledger control account to reduce the number of entries in the purchases ledger to keep transactions of a similar nature in one place 5 / 30 3.42 2.45 8.17 1.03 6 / 30 The skill and efficiency of the workforce of a business has increased during the financial period. The owner of the business wants to record a value for this in the financial statements. His accountant advises against this idea. Which accounting concept is the accountant applying? matching prudence business entity money measurement 7 / 30 Which items would affect a sole trader’s gross profit? carriage inwards cash discounts allowed commission received trade discounts received 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 4 1 and 4 8 / 30 What does an increase in the marginal cost of a product cause ? decreased contribution increased contribution increased contribution to sales ratio decreased fixed costs 9 / 30 $110 000 $111 700 $110 200 $113 400 10 / 30 An employee works a 35-hour week and is paid an hourly rate of $24. In addition to basic pay she receives a bonus of 25% of her hourly rate. This is calculated using time saved against the target units produced. Each unit should take 15 minutes to produce. For a 35-hour week she produced 170 units. Of these, 2 units were rejected and her total pay was reduced by $2.50 per unit. What were her wages for the week? $880 $840 $885 $890 11 / 30 How might an under-absorption of overheads arise? Overheads have been over-budgeted. Overheads have been under-budgeted. Production was less than budgeted. Production was more than budgeted. 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 12 / 30 C A B D 13 / 30 Which are reasons for preparing a trial balance? to assist in the preparation of draft financial statements to detect all errors in the books of account to find out the balance of the suspense account 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only 1 only 14 / 30 6.42 times 1.20 times 4.86 times 1.58 times 15 / 30 C D A B 16 / 30 Which item is a direct cost? wages of the factory manager factory rent cleaning materials for the factory carriage inwards on production materials 17 / 30 $525 000 $225 000 $262 500 $112 500 18 / 30 Non-current assets at the end of Year 1 were recorded as cost, $500000, and carrying value, $360 000. During Year 2, certain assets were sold. They had originally cost $100 000 and had been depreciated by $40 000. The depreciation charge for the remaining non-current assets in Year 2 was $30 000. What was the carrying value of non-current assets at the end of Year 2? $330 000 $300 000 $370 000 $270 000 19 / 30 $73 680 $73 780 $78 680 $78 780 20 / 30 362 325 500 813 21 / 30 $12 000 overstated $8000 overstated $8000 understated $12 000 understated 22 / 30 A business pays its employees $2 for each unit of X they assemble and $3.20 for each unit of Y. Monthly output is 1800 units of X and 1000 units of Y. The factory supervisor is paid $1000 per month. What is the direct labour cost per month? $7760 $6800 $8760 $7800 23 / 30 D B C A 24 / 30 A company had sufficient balances in each of the share premium, general reserve and retained earnings accounts to issue bonus shares. During the year, bonus shares were issued. The directors decided to keep the reserves in their most flexible form. Which ledger account will be debited on the issue of the bonus shares? general reserve retained earnings share premium bank 25 / 30 A trial balance included a suspense account. The bank balance of $28 412 had mistakenly been entered as an overdraft and placed on the credit side as $28 142. There had also been an addition error and the debit side of the trial balance had been undercast by $450. Which entry in the suspense account will correct these errors? credit $57 004 debit $56 104 debit $57 004 credit $56 104 26 / 30 Which ratios are usually calculated to measure the efficiency of a business? current gross margin inventory turnover trade receivables turnover 1 and 2 1 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 3 27 / 30 A company makes and sells a single product type. The product is sold for $50 per unit and variable costs are $30 per unit. Total fixed costs are $500 000. How many units of the product does the company need to sell to make a profit of $300 000? 6400 40 000 25 000 15 000 28 / 30 $61 500 $64 500 $41 000 $43 000 29 / 30 A business had current liabilities of $4000 at its year end. The acid test ratio was 1.5 : 1. The current ratio was 2.25 : 1. What was the value of inventory held at the year end? $3000 $4000 $9000 $15 000 30 / 30 What are possible limitations of a budgetary control system? Budgets are based on estimates. Budgets may lead to staff demotivation. Budgets may prevent managers from being creative. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Accounting (9706) Question Count : 30
Duration :1 hours
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
A Levels | Accounting (9706)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
2 / 30
The bank column of the cash book showed a credit balance of $2915. This did not agree with the balance shown on the bank statement. It was then discovered that:
3 / 30
Which item is revenue expenditure?
4 / 30
What is not a reason for a business to maintain a purchases journal?
5 / 30
6 / 30
The skill and efficiency of the workforce of a business has increased during the financial period. The owner of the business wants to record a value for this in the financial statements. His accountant advises against this idea. Which accounting concept is the accountant applying?
7 / 30
Which items would affect a sole trader’s gross profit?
8 / 30
What does an increase in the marginal cost of a product cause ?
9 / 30
10 / 30
An employee works a 35-hour week and is paid an hourly rate of $24. In addition to basic pay she receives a bonus of 25% of her hourly rate. This is calculated using time saved against the target units produced. Each unit should take 15 minutes to produce. For a 35-hour week she produced 170 units. Of these, 2 units were rejected and her total pay was reduced by $2.50 per unit. What were her wages for the week?
11 / 30
How might an under-absorption of overheads arise?
12 / 30
13 / 30
Which are reasons for preparing a trial balance?
14 / 30
15 / 30
16 / 30
Which item is a direct cost?
17 / 30
18 / 30
Non-current assets at the end of Year 1 were recorded as cost, $500000, and carrying value, $360 000. During Year 2, certain assets were sold. They had originally cost $100 000 and had been depreciated by $40 000. The depreciation charge for the remaining non-current assets in Year 2 was $30 000. What was the carrying value of non-current assets at the end of Year 2?
19 / 30
20 / 30
21 / 30
22 / 30
A business pays its employees $2 for each unit of X they assemble and $3.20 for each unit of Y. Monthly output is 1800 units of X and 1000 units of Y. The factory supervisor is paid $1000 per month. What is the direct labour cost per month?
23 / 30
24 / 30
A company had sufficient balances in each of the share premium, general reserve and retained earnings accounts to issue bonus shares. During the year, bonus shares were issued. The directors decided to keep the reserves in their most flexible form. Which ledger account will be debited on the issue of the bonus shares?
25 / 30
A trial balance included a suspense account. The bank balance of $28 412 had mistakenly been entered as an overdraft and placed on the credit side as $28 142. There had also been an addition error and the debit side of the trial balance had been undercast by $450. Which entry in the suspense account will correct these errors?
26 / 30
Which ratios are usually calculated to measure the efficiency of a business?
27 / 30
A company makes and sells a single product type. The product is sold for $50 per unit and variable costs are $30 per unit. Total fixed costs are $500 000. How many units of the product does the company need to sell to make a profit of $300 000?
28 / 30
29 / 30
A business had current liabilities of $4000 at its year end. The acid test ratio was 1.5 : 1. The current ratio was 2.25 : 1. What was the value of inventory held at the year end?
30 / 30
What are possible limitations of a budgetary control system?
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0 votes, 0 avg 2 A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Biology (9700) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What defines infectious diseases? Symptoms are caused by a microorganism that is carried by a vector. Symptoms are caused by a pathogen that is transmitted from one host to another. Symptoms are caused by a virus that mutates to infect a new species. Symptoms are caused by a bacterium that passes from contaminated air, soil or water to a host. 2 / 40 Some cell structures are listed. endoplasmic reticulum Golgi body mitochondrion chloroplast Which cell structures do not contain cristae? 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only 3 / 40 Which statement describes the structure of ATP? It is an RNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates. It is a DNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates. It is an RNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates. It is a DNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates. 4 / 40 C B D A 5 / 40 Which cell type causes the secondary immune response to be much faster than the primary immune response? helper T-lymphocyte memory cell phagocyte plasma cell 6 / 40 Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria. Which processes are directly inhibited by this antibiotic? DNA replication enzyme synthesis ATP synthesis 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 7 / 40 B A D C 8 / 40 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 9 / 40 C A B D 10 / 40 A single skin cell was isolated and transferred to growth medium in a sterile Petri dish. The Petri dish was incubated for 16 days. During this time, the number of skin cells multiplied as a result of repeated mitotic divisions. One of the chromosomes in the nucleus of each skin cell has a telomere that contains many repeats of the base sequence TTAGGG. On each of days 4, 8, 12 and 16 of the incubation period, a single cell was removed from the Petri dish. The total number of bases in the telomere of this chromosome was determined for each cell. Each of the four cells had a different total number of telomere bases for this chromosome: 5548, 5580, 5645 and 5700. What was the total number of telomere bases in the chromosome from the cell that had undergone the most mitotic divisions? 5548 5580 5700 5645 11 / 40 cytosine thymine guanine adenine 12 / 40 Some foods contain hydrogenated vegetable fats. These are unsaturated fats that have been converted to saturated fats. Which property of the fats will have changed? Their hydrocarbon chains will fit together more closely. They will remain liquid at room temperature. Their solubility in water will increase. They will have more double bonds in their molecules. 13 / 40 Which cell structures contain nucleic acid? cytoplasm lysosomes mitochondria 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 14 / 40 Where are cisternae found in a cell? endoplasmic reticulum Golgi body mitochondria 1 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 15 / 40 synthesis of protein digestion of old organelles production of ATP production of mRNA 16 / 40 DNA polymerase catalyses condensation reactions between molecules during semi-conservative replication of DNA. What is joined by DNA polymerase? base and base nucleotide and nucleotide phosphate and ribose base and nucleotide 17 / 40 Which description of movement of substances during tissue fluid formation is correct? Low hydrostatic pressure forces substances out of the capillary at the arterial end allowing small substances to enter the fluid that bathes the cells. Tissue fluid moves back into the venule due to a net hydrostatic pressure change in the capillary. Movement of water in tissue fluid into the capillary by osmosis is due to the low water potential and low hydrostatic pressure inside the capillary. A high water potential of the surrounding tissue fluid causes substances to leave the capillaries at the arterial end. 18 / 40 An indicator mixed with agar forms a pink colour. The pink-coloured agar becomes colourless when put in acid. Blocks of pink-coloured agar are cut to different sizes and put in acid. All other variables are kept constant. Which block becomes colourless most quickly? 6 mm × 6 mm × 6 mm 3 mm × 30 mm × 30 mm 12 mm × 12 mm × 12 mm 6 mm × 12 mm × 12 mm 19 / 40 Which features are correct for triglycerides and phospholipids? They have ester bonds between glycerol and fatty acids. Fatty acid chains may have single or double bonds between carbon atoms in the chains. The fatty acid chains are non-polar and hydrophobic. Saturated fatty acid chains allow closer packing of the molecules than unsaturated fatty acid chains. 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 only 20 / 40 Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable temperature? It has a low latent heat of vaporisation. It has a high latent heat of vaporisation. It has a low specific heat capacity. It has a high specific heat capacity. 21 / 40 The general formula for a saturated fatty acid is CnH2nO2. Which of these fatty acids are unsaturated? C10H19COOH C15H31COOH C17H31COOH C18H32COOH 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 22 / 40 Which events occur during ventricular systole? Atrioventricular valves close. Muscle in ventricle walls relaxes. Semilunar valves open. 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 23 / 40 A C D B 24 / 40 Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a human female during early pregnancy. Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced? HCG is injected into a mouse, and plasma cells in the mouse produce antibodies specific to HCG. Antibodies are extracted from the mouse and then fused with cancer cells to produce hybridoma cells. Single hybridoma cells are cultured and they divide by mitosis to produce a clone of hybridoma cells. 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 25 / 40 D A B C 26 / 40 Which pair of molecules only includes macromolecules that can be found in animal cells? sucrose and haemoglobin deoxyribose and starch collagen and glycogen amylase and amylopectin 27 / 40 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 3 only 28 / 40 fatty acid at the hydrophilic end of the molecule hydrophobic end of the glycerol molecule hydrophobic end of the triglyceride molecule phosphate group at the hydrophilic end of the molecule 29 / 40 D A B C 30 / 40 Which statement about the role of co-transporter proteins in the movement of sucrose is correct? Hydrogen ions diffuse through co-transporter proteins with sucrose into companion cells. Sucrose is moved through co-transporter proteins by active transport. Co-transporter proteins pump hydrogen ions into phloem sieve tubes along with sucrose. Plasmodesmata move sucrose into phloem sieve tubes via co-transporter proteins. 31 / 40 glycogen cellulose amylopectin amylose 32 / 40 B A D C 33 / 40 B A C D 34 / 40 Which reactions take place in the capillaries surrounding an alveolus? carbon dioxide + water carbonic acid carbon dioxide + haemoglobin carbaminohaemoglobin haemoglobinic acid haemoglobin + hydrogen ions hydrogencarbonate ions + hydrogen ions carbonic acid carbon dioxide + water 1 and 2 3 and 4 4 only 3 only 35 / 40 The following are all processes that allow movement into cells. phagocytosis active transport facilitated diffusion Which processes require ATP? 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 2 only 36 / 40 Typical enzymes are large globular proteins with a specific tertiary shape. Which molecular interactions are directly involved in maintaining the tertiary shape? hydrogen bonding disulfide bridges hydrophobic interactions 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 37 / 40 Human chromosomes have different parts. Some parts are more numerous than others. Which parts are listed in order from most numerous to least numerous in a human white blood cell? centromere → nucleotide → histone protein DNA molecule → telomere → centromere histone protein → telomere → DNA molecule telomere → centromere → nucleotide 38 / 40 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 only 39 / 40 Which relationships could be investigated using a colorimeter? the effect of light intensity on the rate at which a solution of a light-sensitive dye changes from green to colourless the effect of temperature on the rate of breakdown of cell membranes in tissues with pigmented cells, such as beetroot (red beet) the effect of pH on the rate of release of oxygen from the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide by catalase the effect of light intensity on the rate of change of skin colour of lizards that become paler in bright light 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 40 / 40 D A B C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Biology (9700) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Biology (9700)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
What defines infectious diseases?
2 / 40
Some cell structures are listed.
3 / 40
Which statement describes the structure of ATP?
4 / 40
5 / 40
Which cell type causes the secondary immune response to be much faster than the primary immune response?
6 / 40
Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria. Which processes are directly inhibited by this antibiotic?
7 / 40
8 / 40
9 / 40
10 / 40
A single skin cell was isolated and transferred to growth medium in a sterile Petri dish. The Petri dish was incubated for 16 days. During this time, the number of skin cells multiplied as a result of repeated mitotic divisions.
One of the chromosomes in the nucleus of each skin cell has a telomere that contains many repeats of the base sequence TTAGGG. On each of days 4, 8, 12 and 16 of the incubation period, a single cell was removed from the Petri dish. The total number of bases in the telomere of this chromosome was determined for each cell. Each of the four cells had a different total number of telomere bases for this chromosome: 5548, 5580, 5645 and 5700.
What was the total number of telomere bases in the chromosome from the cell that had undergone the most mitotic divisions?
11 / 40
12 / 40
Some foods contain hydrogenated vegetable fats. These are unsaturated fats that have been converted to saturated fats. Which property of the fats will have changed?
13 / 40
Which cell structures contain nucleic acid?
14 / 40
Where are cisternae found in a cell?
15 / 40
16 / 40
DNA polymerase catalyses condensation reactions between molecules during semi-conservative replication of DNA. What is joined by DNA polymerase?
17 / 40
Which description of movement of substances during tissue fluid formation is correct?
18 / 40
An indicator mixed with agar forms a pink colour. The pink-coloured agar becomes colourless when put in acid. Blocks of pink-coloured agar are cut to different sizes and put in acid. All other variables are kept constant. Which block becomes colourless most quickly?
19 / 40
Which features are correct for triglycerides and phospholipids?
20 / 40
Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable temperature?
21 / 40
The general formula for a saturated fatty acid is CnH2nO2. Which of these fatty acids are unsaturated?
22 / 40
Which events occur during ventricular systole?
23 / 40
24 / 40
Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a human female during early pregnancy. Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced?
25 / 40
26 / 40
Which pair of molecules only includes macromolecules that can be found in animal cells?
27 / 40
28 / 40
29 / 40
30 / 40
Which statement about the role of co-transporter proteins in the movement of sucrose is correct?
31 / 40
32 / 40
33 / 40
34 / 40
Which reactions take place in the capillaries surrounding an alveolus?
35 / 40
The following are all processes that allow movement into cells.
36 / 40
Typical enzymes are large globular proteins with a specific tertiary shape. Which molecular interactions are directly involved in maintaining the tertiary shape?
37 / 40
Human chromosomes have different parts. Some parts are more numerous than others. Which parts are listed in order from most numerous to least numerous in a human white blood cell?
38 / 40
39 / 40
Which relationships could be investigated using a colorimeter?
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 1 A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Chemistry (9701) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 B D A C 2 / 40 NH4NO3 decomposes into N2O and H2O on heating. Which statements are correct? The ammonium ion is behaving as a reducing agent. The nitrate(V) ion is behaving as an oxidising agent. It is a redox reaction. It is a disproportionation reaction. 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 3 / 40 Separate samples, each of mass 1.0 g, of the compounds listed are treated with an excess of dilute acid. Which compound releases the largest amount of CO2? 1.0 g Li2CO3 1.0 g MgCO3 1.0 g CaCO3 1.0 g Na2CO3 4 / 40 +61 kJ mol–1 +753 kJ mol–1 –753 kJ mol–1 –61 kJ mol–1 5 / 40 Which statement about butanone is correct? Butanone reacts with NaBH4 to give a chiral product. Butanone gives a positive result with Tollens’ reagent Butanone can be dehydrated by concentrated sulfuric acid to give CH2=CHCH=CH2 Butanone reacts with HCN by an electrophilic addition mechanism. 6 / 40 The mass spectrum of compound X has M, M+1 and M+2 peaks. Other peaks are also present. Peak M is the molecular ion peak, M+. Peak M has a relative abundance fifteen times that of peak M+1. Peaks M and M+2 are of equal height. What could be compound X? 1-chloro-2,2-dimethylpentane 2-bromo-2-methylhexane 2-chloro-3-methylpentane 3-bromo-2,2-dimethylbutane 7 / 40 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 8 / 40 A mixture of ethane and an excess of chlorine is exposed to UV light. How many different products, each containing only two carbon atoms and at least one chlorine atom per molecule, can be formed? 12 9 8 10 9 / 40 The intermolecular hydrogen bonds become stronger from HCl to HI. The bond energies of the hydrogen halides increase from HCl to HI. There is an increase in the bond polarity from HCl to HI. There is an increase in the strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction from HCl to HI. 10 / 40 B A D C 11 / 40 Which element has the second smallest atomic radius in its group and the second highest electrical conductivity in its period? sodium calcium magnesium boron 12 / 40 Equal masses of CaCO3, Ca(NO3)2, BaCO3 and Ba(NO3)2 are thermally decomposed. The volume of gas produced in each experiment is measured under the same conditions. Which compound will produce the greatest volume of gas? Ba(NO3)2 BaCO3 CaCO3 Ca(NO3)2 13 / 40 For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them? fifth and sixth ionisation energies third and fourth ionisation energies sixth and seventh ionisation energies fourth and fifth ionisation energies 14 / 40 Which statement about the electrons in a ground state carbon atom is correct? There are more electrons in p orbitals than there are in s orbitals. The occupied orbital of highest energy is spherical. The occupied orbital of lowest energy is spherical. Electrons are present in four different energy levels. 15 / 40 D C A B 16 / 40 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question. How many isomeric compounds with molecular formula C5H6O4 contain two –CO2H groups and one C=C double bond? 5 6 7 8 17 / 40 Three organic compounds are listed. ethanal propan-1-ol propan-2-ol Which compounds will have a mass spectrum that contains a fragment peak at m/ e = 43? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 18 / 40 B A C D 19 / 40 How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O? 4 2 3 1 20 / 40 Na at room temperature PCl5 at room temperature heat under reflux with Cr2O7 2- /H+ heat under reflux with CH3OH/H+ 21 / 40 D C A B 22 / 40 D B C A 23 / 40 Compound Y is heated with a mild oxidising agent. One of the products of the reaction reacts with hydrogen cyanide forming 2-hydroxybutanenitrile. What is compound Y? butan-1-ol butan-2-ol propan-2-ol propan-1-ol 24 / 40 Which compound gives a positive test with alkaline aqueous iodine and does not show optical isomerism? (CH3)2C(OH)CHO CH3COCH2CH2OH CH3COCH(OH)CH3 CH3CH2CH(OH)CHO 25 / 40 Bromine reacts with alkenes by an electrophilic addition mechanism in which a cation is formed as an intermediate. Which mixture will produce the most stable intermediate cation? ethene + bromine propene + bromine methylpropene + bromine 3,3-dimethylpent-1-ene + bromine 26 / 40 Which ester may be hydrolysed to produce two products, one of which may be reduced to the other? CH3CH2CO2CH(CH3)2 CH3CH2CO2CH3 (CH3)2CHCO2CH(CH3)2 CH3CH(CH3)CO2CH2CH(CH3)2 27 / 40 A D B C 28 / 40 Which statement about Group 17 elements and compounds is correct? Sodium chloride produces chlorine when reacted with concentrated sulfuric acid. Sodium bromide produces bromine when reacted with iodine in aqueous potassium iodide. Sodium chloride produces chlorine when reacted with bromine. Sodium bromide produces bromine when reacted with concentrated sulfuric acid. 29 / 40 One mole of pentaerythritol gives two moles of hydrogen gas on reaction with an excess of sodium. Pentaerythritol does not react with acidified potassium manganate(VII). The empirical formula and molecular formula of pentaerythritol are different. Pentaerythritol can be dehydrated by concentrated sulfuric acid to form an alkene. 30 / 40 For which compound is there the greatest percentage loss of mass on strong heating? anhydrous magnesium nitrate anhydrous calcium carbonate anhydrous calcium nitrate anhydrous magnesium carbonate 31 / 40 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 32 / 40 The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature. With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl . With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S. What is the explanation for this difference in products? Chloride ions will displace iodine from the solution. Hydrogen chloride is more volatile than hydrogen iodide. Sulfuric acid is able to act as a dehydrating agent with NaI. Iodide ions are better reducing agents than chloride ions 33 / 40 D C B A 34 / 40 Which pair of reagents react together in a redox reaction? HCO2C2H5 + dilute H2SO4 CH3COCH3 + HCN CH3CH2CH2OH + concentrated H3PO4 CH3CHCH2 + Br2 35 / 40 How many esters have the molecular formula C4H8O2? 5 2 3 4 36 / 40 A student reacts 1 mol of copper with concentrated nitric acid to produce 1 mol of copper(II) nitrate, 2 mol of water and substance X. No other product is formed. Substance X does not contain copper or hydrogen. What could be substance X? NO2 N2 NO N2O 37 / 40 C4H9Cl reacts with warm dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide solution. Which isomer of C4H9Cl will form the most stable cation intermediate? 2-chloro-2-methylpropane 1-chlorobutane 1-chloro-2-methylpropane 2-chlorobutane 38 / 40 The enthalpy change for neutralisation of HNO3(aq) with NaOH(aq) is –57.0 kJ mol–1. In an experiment, 20.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 HNO3 is mixed with 30.0 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm–3 NaOH in an insulated container. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0 °C. It can be assumed that the heat capacity of the product mixture is 4.2 J cm–3°C–1 and that there are no heat losses. What is the maximum final temperature of the mixture? 44.0°C 46.7°C 41.3°C 52.1°C 39 / 40 Which compound reacts most rapidly with aqueous silver nitrate by an SN1 mechanism? 1-iodomethylpropan 2-chloromethylpropane 2-iodomethylpropane 1-chloromethylpropane 40 / 40 B A D C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Chemistry (9701) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Chemistry (9701)
NH4NO3 decomposes into N2O and H2O on heating.
Which statements are correct?
Separate samples, each of mass 1.0 g, of the compounds listed are treated with an excess of dilute acid. Which compound releases the largest amount of CO2?
Which statement about butanone is correct?
The mass spectrum of compound X has M, M+1 and M+2 peaks. Other peaks are also present. Peak M is the molecular ion peak, M+. Peak M has a relative abundance fifteen times that of peak M+1.
Peaks M and M+2 are of equal height. What could be compound X?
A mixture of ethane and an excess of chlorine is exposed to UV light. How many different products, each containing only two carbon atoms and at least one chlorine atom per molecule, can be formed?
Which element has the second smallest atomic radius in its group and the second highest electrical conductivity in its period?
Equal masses of CaCO3, Ca(NO3)2, BaCO3 and Ba(NO3)2 are thermally decomposed. The volume of gas produced in each experiment is measured under the same conditions. Which compound will produce the greatest volume of gas?
For the element sulfur, which pair of ionisation energies has the largest difference between them?
Which statement about the electrons in a ground state carbon atom is correct?
Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question.
How many isomeric compounds with molecular formula C5H6O4 contain two –CO2H groups and one C=C double bond?
Three organic compounds are listed.
Which compounds will have a mass spectrum that contains a fragment peak at m/ e = 43?
How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O?
Compound Y is heated with a mild oxidising agent. One of the products of the reaction reacts with hydrogen cyanide forming 2-hydroxybutanenitrile. What is compound Y?
Which compound gives a positive test with alkaline aqueous iodine and does not show optical isomerism?
Bromine reacts with alkenes by an electrophilic addition mechanism in which a cation is formed as an intermediate. Which mixture will produce the most stable intermediate cation?
Which ester may be hydrolysed to produce two products, one of which may be reduced to the other?
Which statement about Group 17 elements and compounds is correct?
For which compound is there the greatest percentage loss of mass on strong heating?
The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room temperature. With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl . With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S. What is the explanation for this difference in products?
Which pair of reagents react together in a redox reaction?
How many esters have the molecular formula C4H8O2?
A student reacts 1 mol of copper with concentrated nitric acid to produce 1 mol of copper(II) nitrate, 2 mol of water and substance X. No other product is formed.
Substance X does not contain copper or hydrogen.
What could be substance X?
C4H9Cl reacts with warm dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide solution. Which isomer of C4H9Cl will form the most stable cation intermediate?
The enthalpy change for neutralisation of HNO3(aq) with NaOH(aq) is –57.0 kJ mol–1. In an experiment, 20.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 HNO3 is mixed with 30.0 cm3 of 2.00 mol dm–3 NaOH in an insulated container. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0 °C. It can be assumed that the heat capacity of the product mixture is 4.2 J cm–3°C–1 and that there are no heat losses. What is the maximum final temperature of the mixture?
Which compound reacts most rapidly with aqueous silver nitrate by an SN1 mechanism?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Economics (9708) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 The market price will continue to operate. Only the minimum price will be effective. Only the maximum price will be effective. Both the maximum and the minimum price will be effective. 2 / 30 Why will a contractionary monetary policy reduce inflation? Banks will lend more. Consumers will save more. Consumers will have higher disposable income. Consumers will pay more tax. 3 / 30 D A C B 4 / 30 What is the most likely cause of an outward shift of a country’s aggregate demand curve? a decrease in the general price level a decrease in the competitiveness of domestically produced products a depreciation of the country’s exchange rate a decrease in the money supply 5 / 30 A rise in the price of a good is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded. What could explain this? Consumers spend a high proportion of disposable income on the good. The price of the good is taken to be an indication of the level of quality. The price of a complementary good has also increased. The substitute goods are all very much more expensive. 6 / 30 Which function of money overcomes the double coincidence of wants problem that exists in a barter system? store of value unit of account standard of deferred payment medium of exchange 7 / 30 In which case is the price system not a possible method of allocating resources? in the provision of public goods by the government in the hiring of workers by employers in the distribution of foodstuff among the population in the ownership of land for agricultural use 8 / 30 What does a trade-weighted exchange rate attempt to take account of? the size of a country’s current account surplus or deficit the relative value of international trade done with a country’s trading partners international trade as a proportion of a country’s national income a country’s terms of trade 9 / 30 C A D B 10 / 30 When the price of a firm’s product falls by 5%, its total revenue also falls by 5%. What describes the product’s price elasticity of demand? elastic infinite zero unitary 11 / 30 Which statement explains why the aggregate demand curve is downward sloping? As prices fall, fewer goods are imported. As prices fall, real wealth rises and so spending increases. As prices fall, the demand for exports becomes more elastic. As prices fall, the rate of interest will rise. 12 / 30 What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an increase in factor productivity? downward shift of the aggregate supply curve downward shift of the aggregate demand curve an upward shift of the aggregate supply curve an upward shift of the aggregate demand curve 13 / 30 Which products are likely to have a positive cross-elasticity of demand with tea? cups and saucers coffee and hot chocolate biscuits and cakes sugar and milk 14 / 30 D C A B 15 / 30 Which item is not included in the current account on the balance of payments statement? the interest received from investment overseas the balancing item the export of services the import of goods 16 / 30 When the price of good X is $2.00, the quantity supplied is 100 000. The price elasticity of supply of good X is 0.8 in the short run and 1.4 in the long run. The price of good X increases to $2.20. What is the increase in the quantity supplied of good X between the short run and the long run? 6000 60 000 140 000 114 000 17 / 30 Which combination of tax changes is most likely to be regressive in a developed economy? introducing a tax on owning property based on its sales value and increasing the rate of income tax increasing the rate of wealth tax and raising the rate of sales tax (VAT) on luxury products removing the tax-free allowance for income tax and extending sales tax (VAT) to include all food reducing the basic rate of income tax and increasing the duty on fuel 18 / 30 What will increase the producer surplus of farmers that grow carrots? a decrease in the price of carrot seed a decrease in the demand for carrots a decrease in the price of cabbage a decrease in the subsidy on carrots 19 / 30 A supply curve is represented by the equation quantity supplied = 10 + 5P where P = the price of the product. Which price rise would cause the quantity supplied to double? $1 to $5 $1 to $4 $1 to $3 $1 to $2 20 / 30 It will fall by 30 units. It will rise by 30 units. It will rise by 5 units. It will fall by 5 units. 21 / 30 What is most likely to cause a rise in a country’s exchange rate? a fall in its direct taxes a rise in its interest rates a rise in its imports a fall in its export orders 22 / 30 What does not happen when price acts as a means to allocate resources? Price determines the supply of public goods. Price operates in the markets for both goods and factors of production. Price recognises consumers’ ability to pay rather than consumers’ needs. Price signals to producers which goods are most profitable. 23 / 30 In year 1, a country’s real GDP was $500 billion. In year 2, nominal GDP rose to $577.5 billion and the prices increased by 5%. What is the real GDP in year 2? $5 billion $550 billion $4.76 billion $476 billion 24 / 30 The opportunity cost of producing corn falls when moving from M to N As the price of corn falls, more of it is demanded. The opportunity cost of producing corn is constant when moving from M to N. Resources used in producing corn are more efficient than in producing wheat 25 / 30 D A B C 26 / 30 C A D B 27 / 30 B C D A 28 / 30 In a recent year, Japanese car manufacturers agreed to limit exports of cars to the USA. Which form of protectionism is this? an embargo voluntary export restraint an export subsidy a quota 29 / 30 B D A C 30 / 30 In mixed economies, what explains why the provision of certain goods and services will remain under government control? Management ideas are hampered by excessive bureaucracy. The market system fails to provide public goods. The profit motive tends to improve efficiency in organisations. Ownership of companies depends on the ease of buying shares. 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A Levels | Economics (9708) Question Count : 30
A Levels | Economics (9708)
Why will a contractionary monetary policy reduce inflation?
What is the most likely cause of an outward shift of a country’s aggregate demand curve?
A rise in the price of a good is accompanied by an increase in the quantity demanded. What could explain this?
Which function of money overcomes the double coincidence of wants problem that exists in a barter system?
In which case is the price system not a possible method of allocating resources?
What does a trade-weighted exchange rate attempt to take account of?
When the price of a firm’s product falls by 5%, its total revenue also falls by 5%. What describes the product’s price elasticity of demand?
Which statement explains why the aggregate demand curve is downward sloping?
What is a certain outcome on an aggregate demand and aggregate supply diagram of an increase in factor productivity?
Which products are likely to have a positive cross-elasticity of demand with tea?
Which item is not included in the current account on the balance of payments statement?
When the price of good X is $2.00, the quantity supplied is 100 000. The price elasticity of supply of good X is 0.8 in the short run and 1.4 in the long run. The price of good X increases to $2.20. What is the increase in the quantity supplied of good X between the short run and the long run?
Which combination of tax changes is most likely to be regressive in a developed economy?
What will increase the producer surplus of farmers that grow carrots?
A supply curve is represented by the equation
quantity supplied = 10 + 5P
where P = the price of the product. Which price rise would cause the quantity supplied to double?
What is most likely to cause a rise in a country’s exchange rate?
What does not happen when price acts as a means to allocate resources?
In year 1, a country’s real GDP was $500 billion. In year 2, nominal GDP rose to $577.5 billion and the prices increased by 5%. What is the real GDP in year 2?
In a recent year, Japanese car manufacturers agreed to limit exports of cars to the USA. Which form of protectionism is this?
In mixed economies, what explains why the provision of certain goods and services will remain under government control?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40 Duration :1 hours Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again A Levels | Physics (9702) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 0 ¼I0 I0 ½I0 2 / 40 The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water? 3.99 s 4.19 s 4.19 s 3.75 s 3 / 40 8.0Ω 1.1Ω 2.1Ω 4.0Ω 4 / 40 N > P + W N = P + W N > W N = W 5 / 40 C A B D 6 / 40 A car is travelling at a constant velocity directly towards a man standing in the middle of the road. The driver sounds the car’s horn as a warning. The horn emits a sound wave of constant frequency. The frequency of the sound heard by the man is different from the frequency of the sound emitted by the horn. Which statement is correct? The frequency of the sound emitted by the horn is greater than the frequency of the sound heard by the man. The wavelength of the sound heard by the man is less than the wavelength of the sound emitted by the horn. The sound waves continually accelerate as they move from the horn to the man. The frequency of the sound heard by the man depends on the distance between the car and the man. 7 / 40 D A B C 8 / 40 1000 g 333 g 500 g 667 g 9 / 40 frequency amplitude wavelength speed 10 / 40 Which statement is not correct? There are six flavours (types) of quark. A proton is a baryon. A meson consists of three quarks. A quark is a fundamental particle. 11 / 40 D A C B 12 / 40 B D A C 13 / 40 1.6 × 10–7 Ωm 2.0 × 10–6 Ωm 4.9 × 10–7 Ωm 1.2 × 10–7 Ωm 14 / 40 A wire has a resistance of 30Ω. A second wire is made from the same material, has the same mass and is three times as long as the first wire. What is the resistance of the second wire? 30Ω 270Ω 10Ω 90Ω 15 / 40 What is meant by the spring constant of a spring? force × extension force per unit extension extension per unit force ½ × force × extension 16 / 40 A technical article about diesel engines expresses the energy available from diesel fuel both as 41.8 MJ kg–1 and as 34.9GJ m–3. What is the density of diesel fuel? 8.35 × 105 kg m–3 1.20 × 106 kg m–3 8.35 × 102 kg m–3 1.20 × 103 kg m–3 17 / 40 A man standing next to a stationary train hears sound of frequency 400 Hz emitted from the train’s horn. The train then moves directly away from the man and sounds its horn when it has a speed of 50 m s–1. The speed of sound in the air is 340 m s–1. What is the difference in frequency of the sound heard by the man on the two occasions? 51Hz 350Hz 470Hz 69Hz 18 / 40 A B C D 19 / 40 B C D A 20 / 40 0.020 kgm s–1 0.14 kgm s–1 0.10 kgm s–1 0.50 kgm s–1 21 / 40 What is not a necessary requirement of the forces in a couple? They act along different lines. They produce a resultant force. They act in opposite directions. They have the same magnitude. 22 / 40 Which statement describes the mass of an object? the weight of the object as measured by a balance the resistance of the object to changes in motion the force the object experiences due to gravity the momentum of the object before a collision 23 / 40 71 Hz 100 Hz 143 Hz 50 Hz 24 / 40 Which list of regions of the electromagnetic spectrum is in order of increasing wavelength from left to right? X-ray → ultraviolet → gamma-ray microwave → X-ray → infrared infrared → microwave → ultraviolet gamma-ray → ultraviolet → infrared 25 / 40 A resistor of resistance R is connected across a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance. Which single change to the circuit would lead to the largest increase in the power dissipated in the resistor? doubling the value of E doubling the value of R halving the value of E halving the value of R 26 / 40 A beam of light from a laser is incident normally on a double slit. Interference fringes are seen on a screen placed parallel to the double slit. The separation of the two slits is a. The distance between the slits and the screen is D. The distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes is x. D and a are both halved. What is the distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes after these changes? X/2 4x x 2x 27 / 40 What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component? the product of the current in the component and its resistance the electrical power supplied to the component the voltage across the component the energy transferred to the component per unit charge 28 / 40 Which quantity is a vector? momentum Young modulus temperature speed 29 / 40 D A C B 30 / 40 A B C D 31 / 40 The density of water is 1.0 gcm–3 and the density of glycerine is 1.3 g cm–3. Water is added to a measuring cylinder containing 40 cm3 of glycerine so that the density of the mixture is 1.1 gcm–3. Assume that the mixing process does not change the total volume of the liquid. What is the volume of water added? 52 cm3 80 cm3 40 cm3 44 cm3 32 / 40 Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier? 1.1 × 10–19C 4.0 × 10–19C 4.8 × 10–19C 9.1 × 10–19C 33 / 40 A C B D 34 / 40 It is both elastic and plastic It is plastic only. It is elastic only. It is neither elastic nor plastic. 35 / 40 Which statement about progressive waves is correct? They can exist in solids but not liquids. They transfer energy away from their source. They decrease in frequency as their speed increases. They are always transverse waves. 36 / 40 The piles are where the air molecules vibrate vertically. The piles are where the air molecules vibrate with maximum amplitude. The piles are where the air molecules vibrate with the highest frequency. The piles are where the air molecules vibrate with minimum amplitude. 37 / 40 5 mV 15 mV 16 mV 4 mV 38 / 40 The distance between P and Q is one wavelength. Two moving points on the string that are equal distances from point R vibrate in phase. A short time after t0, point R on the string will be displaced. A short time after t0, points S and T on the string move in opposite directions. 39 / 40 Water is pumped through a nozzle at the end of a hose. The nozzle has a circular cross-section of diameter 50 mm. A mass of 100 kg of water takes a time of 2.0 s to move through the nozzle. The density of water is 1000 kgm–3. What is the speed of the water in the nozzle? 25 m s–1 6.4 m s–1 51 m s–1 13 m s–1 40 / 40 A C D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
A Levels | Physics (9702) Question Count : 40
A Levels | Physics (9702)
The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the well drops a heavy stone down the well. Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1. What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?
A car is travelling at a constant velocity directly towards a man standing in the middle of the road. The driver sounds the car’s horn as a warning. The horn emits a sound wave of constant frequency. The frequency of the sound heard by the man is different from the frequency of the sound emitted by the horn. Which statement is correct?
Which statement is not correct?
A wire has a resistance of 30Ω. A second wire is made from the same material, has the same mass and is three times as long as the first wire. What is the resistance of the second wire?
What is meant by the spring constant of a spring?
A technical article about diesel engines expresses the energy available from diesel fuel both as 41.8 MJ kg–1 and as 34.9GJ m–3. What is the density of diesel fuel?
A man standing next to a stationary train hears sound of frequency 400 Hz emitted from the train’s horn. The train then moves directly away from the man and sounds its horn when it has a speed of 50 m s–1. The speed of sound in the air is 340 m s–1. What is the difference in frequency of the sound heard by the man on the two occasions?
What is not a necessary requirement of the forces in a couple?
Which statement describes the mass of an object?
Which list of regions of the electromagnetic spectrum is in order of increasing wavelength from left to right?
A resistor of resistance R is connected across a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and negligible internal resistance. Which single change to the circuit would lead to the largest increase in the power dissipated in the resistor?
A beam of light from a laser is incident normally on a double slit. Interference fringes are seen on a screen placed parallel to the double slit. The separation of the two slits is a. The distance between the slits and the screen is D. The distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes is x. D and a are both halved. What is the distance between the centres of two adjacent bright fringes after these changes?
What is the definition of the potential difference (p.d.) across a component?
Which quantity is a vector?
The density of water is 1.0 gcm–3 and the density of glycerine is 1.3 g cm–3. Water is added to a measuring cylinder containing 40 cm3 of glycerine so that the density of the mixture is 1.1 gcm–3. Assume that the mixing process does not change the total volume of the liquid. What is the volume of water added?
Which charge can be carried by a charge carrier?
Which statement about progressive waves is correct?
Water is pumped through a nozzle at the end of a hose. The nozzle has a circular cross-section of diameter 50 mm. A mass of 100 kg of water takes a time of 2.0 s to move through the nozzle. The density of water is 1000 kgm–3. What is the speed of the water in the nozzle?
