0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 20 times 15 times 30 times 21 times 2 / 35 Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct? It is a ledger account for bank transactions only. It is a book of prime entry. It records cash discounts. It is a ledger account for cash transactions only. 3 / 35 $650 debit $650 credit $1150 debit $1150 credit 4 / 35 Which statement describes the going concern principle? Accounting methods must be used consistently from one accounting period to the next. It is assumed that the business will continue to operate for the foreseeable future. Revenue is earned when legal title to goods passes from the seller to the buyer. The business is treated as being completely separate from the owner of the business. 5 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $600 $660 $670 $640 6 / 35 $55 700 $58 700 $62 700 $57 300 7 / 35 What is included in a purchases ledger control account? discount allowed cash purchases goods returned to credit suppliers debts written off as irrecoverable 8 / 35 A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60. During the year ended 31 August 2021: 12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year 10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year. On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from 8 members. What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021? $5160 $6600 $6840 $5640 9 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the annual depreciation on office premises the cost of building an office extension the cost of repairing office equipment the purchase of a new computer for resale 10 / 35 Anjum rents part of her premises to Ajay for $6120 per annum. At the beginning of the year Ajay had paid two months rent in advance. At the end of the year Ajay had paid three months rent in advance. How much rent was received from Ajay during the year? $6630 $8670 $5610 $3570 11 / 35 A B D C 12 / 35 What is not a limitation of inter-firm comparison? Businesses may have different sales prices. Accounting records do not include the skills of the workforce The available information may not relate to a typical year. Businesses may have different accounting policies. 13 / 35 A D B C 14 / 35 decrease by $6000 increase by $6000 increase by $2000 decrease by $2000 15 / 35 C B A D 16 / 35 What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business? return on capital employed current ratio working capital liquid (acid test) ratio 17 / 35 B D A C 18 / 35 A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin? Cost of sales is decreasing. Quantity of goods sold is decreasing. Expenses are decreasing. Selling price is decreasing. 19 / 35 Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded? $3774 on the debit side $3774 on the credit side $2606 on the credit side $2606 on the debit side 20 / 35 A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 21 / 35 $90 600 $89 400 $96 600 $95 400 22 / 35 $32 445 $31 545 $31 195 $32 095 23 / 35 D A B C 24 / 35 Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct? The balance of the account is debited to the income statement at the end of the year. The account is used when an amount, previously written off, is received from a customer. The account is used when doubtful debts are recovered. The balance of the account is shown in the statement of financial position. 25 / 35 D A B C 26 / 35 Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022? $43 370 $34 130 $43 730 $33 770 27 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? subscriptions accumulated fund capital retained earnings 28 / 35 The bank statement of a business had a credit balance of $2690 on 1 October 2021. At that date cheques totalling $850 had not yet been presented for payment. What was the bank balance in the cash book on 1 October 2021? $3540 debit $3540 credit $1840 credit $1840 debit 29 / 35 limit on annual drawings interest on drawings partnership salaries interest on capital 30 / 35 C B D A 31 / 35 C A D B 32 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to encourage payment in cash to encourage bulk buying to reward prompt payment to avoid irrecoverable debts 33 / 35 Subscriptions relating to the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $29 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 31 December 2020 amounted to $3000. Subscriptions prepaid on 1 January 2020 amounted to $2000. Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $24 000. 34 / 35 $32 800 $32 000 $31 200 $29 200 35 / 35 Which statement about a trial balance is correct? It assists in locating arithmetical errors in the book-keeping records. It reveals all book-keeping errors. It shows ledger account errors only. It is proof that the entries in the ledger accounts are free from error. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct?
3 / 35
4 / 35
Which statement describes the going concern principle?
5 / 35
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
6 / 35
7 / 35
What is included in a purchases ledger control account?
8 / 35
A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60. During the year ended 31 August 2021: 12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year 10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year. On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from 8 members. What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021?
9 / 35
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
10 / 35
Anjum rents part of her premises to Ajay for $6120 per annum. At the beginning of the year Ajay had paid two months rent in advance. At the end of the year Ajay had paid three months rent in advance. How much rent was received from Ajay during the year?
11 / 35
12 / 35
What is not a limitation of inter-firm comparison?
13 / 35
14 / 35
15 / 35
16 / 35
What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?
17 / 35
18 / 35
A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin?
19 / 35
Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded?
20 / 35
A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises
21 / 35
22 / 35
23 / 35
24 / 35
Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct?
25 / 35
26 / 35
Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?
27 / 35
Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?
28 / 35
The bank statement of a business had a credit balance of $2690 on 1 October 2021. At that date cheques totalling $850 had not yet been presented for payment. What was the bank balance in the cash book on 1 October 2021?
29 / 35
30 / 35
31 / 35
32 / 35
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
33 / 35
34 / 35
35 / 35
Which statement about a trial balance is correct?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 15% 25% 40% 10% 2 / 35 C A D B 3 / 35 Why should a trader match his costs for a financial year with the revenues for the same period? to account for all liabilities to show the correct profit figure to account for money that has been paid in advance to make sure outstanding income is included 4 / 35 Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger? to locate errors to deter fraud to speed production of financial statements to provide an instant total of trade receivables 5 / 35 Which accounting policy requires that the information in financial statements is free from significant errors and bias? comparability reliability consistency understandability 6 / 35 D B A C 7 / 35 Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month? credit sales returns account credit purchases returns account debit purchases returns account debit sales returns account 8 / 35 Raj and Seema are in partnership sharing profits and losses 2 : 1. Raj withdrew $5000 during the year and was charged interest at 3%. Seema did not make any withdrawals during the year. The profit for the year was $30 000. How much was credited to Raj’s current account at the end of the year? $19 900 $19 850 $20 100 $20 000 9 / 35 B C A D 10 / 35 Which accounting principle states that revenue should not be recorded before it is earned? matching money measurement realisation consistency 11 / 35 A company’s financial year ended on 31 December 2019. On 1 December 2019 it paid rent, $8000, for the four months ending 31 March 2020. What was the opening balance on the rent account on 1 January 2020? $2000 credit $2000 debit $6000 debit $6000 credit 12 / 35 D B A C 13 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper but not an accountant? comparing one year’s results with those of previous years recording transactions in the ledgers and cash book preparing financial statements interpreting the accounting records 14 / 35 A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account? $12 000 $14 000 $6000 $8000 15 / 35 Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club? deficit, sales revenue, treasurer’s expenses bank charges, depreciation, wages bank charges, gross profit, sales revenue depreciation, treasurer’s expenses, wages 16 / 35 $32 800 $29 200 $31 200 $32 000 17 / 35 20 days 22 days 24 days 17 days 18 / 35 What increases owner’s capital? bank loan extended from five to ten years transfer of vehicle to business from private use purchase of inventory on credit purchase of machinery by cheque 19 / 35 Which statement describes the going concern principle? Revenue is earned when legal title to goods passes from the seller to the buyer. The business is treated as being completely separate from the owner of the business. Accounting methods must be used consistently from one accounting period to the next. It is assumed that the business will continue to operate for the foreseeable future. 20 / 35 C B D A 21 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $2500 $1200 $2400 $1100 22 / 35 $17 000 $13 000 $6000 $32 000 23 / 35 B C A D 24 / 35 Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a trade discount Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a cash discount. Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a trade discount. Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a cash discount. 25 / 35 Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods? general ledger and purchases ledger purchases ledger only general ledger only cash book and sales ledger 26 / 35 $3400 credit $3800 debit $3800 credit $3400 debit 27 / 35 A D B C 28 / 35 B C D A 29 / 35 Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger? to speed production of financial statements to deter fraud to locate errors to provide an instant total of trade receivables 30 / 35 B D C A 31 / 35 B C A D 32 / 35 A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year? $15 090 $14 690 $14 510 $14 910 33 / 35 D B C A 34 / 35 C D A B 35 / 35 $8550 $8150 $9050 $9450 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Why should a trader match his costs for a financial year with the revenues for the same period?
Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger?
Which accounting policy requires that the information in financial statements is free from significant errors and bias?
Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month?
Raj and Seema are in partnership sharing profits and losses 2 : 1. Raj withdrew $5000 during the year and was charged interest at 3%. Seema did not make any withdrawals during the year. The profit for the year was $30 000. How much was credited to Raj’s current account at the end of the year?
Which accounting principle states that revenue should not be recorded before it is earned?
A company’s financial year ended on 31 December 2019. On 1 December 2019 it paid rent, $8000, for the four months ending 31 March 2020. What was the opening balance on the rent account on 1 January 2020?
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper but not an accountant?
A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account?
Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club?
What increases owner’s capital?
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods?
A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which endocrine gland produces insulin? ovary adrenal gland testes pancreas 2 / 40 A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to? kingdom and species genus and species variety and genus kingdom and genus 3 / 40 Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature? skin heart liver brain 4 / 40 Some of the structures found in cells are listed: • cytoplasm • cell membrane • cell wall • chloroplast. How many of these structures are found in the cells of all living organisms? 4 3 2 1 5 / 40 Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion? from higher to lower concentration down a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration down a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration against a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration against a concentration gradient 6 / 40 What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus? embryo → zygote → gametes embryo → gametes → zygote gametes → embryo → zygote gametes → zygote → embryo 7 / 40 A B D C 8 / 40 By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood? diffusion osmosis breathing active transport 9 / 40 Which level of organisation is shown by the heart of a mammal? an organ system a cell a tissue an organ 10 / 40 Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism? using bacteria to produce insulin using yeast to produce ethanol using enzymes in biological washing powders using pectinase in fruit juice production 11 / 40 Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment? thick waxy cuticle large leaves small roots many stomata 12 / 40 Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only? proteins, oils and glycogen fats, cellulose and proteins starch, fats and oils cellulose, glycogen and starch 13 / 40 What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells? hormones enzymes vitamins ions 14 / 40 2 and 3 3 only 1 only 1 and 2 15 / 40 What do biological washing powders contain? enzymes herbicides bacteria vitamins 16 / 40 A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct? The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and less blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and more blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and more blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and less blood flows to the skin surface. 17 / 40 protein starch glucose lipid 18 / 40 A B D C 19 / 40 Which cell contains a haploid nucleus? sperm cell skin cell neurone red blood cell 20 / 40 Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart? pulmonary artery vena cava coronary artery renal vein 21 / 40 Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? genus binomial organism species 22 / 40 What is the function of the optic nerve? to carry light from the retina to the brain to carry impulses from the brain to the retina to carry impulses from the retina to the brain to carry light from the brain to the retina 23 / 40 What is the correct order of arthropod groups, from those with the most legs to those with the fewest legs? arachnids → insects → myriapods → crustaceans arachnids → crustaceans → insects → myriapods myriapods → insects → arachnids → crustaceans myriapods → crustaceans → arachnids → insects 24 / 40 Which tissues are found in vascular bundles? palisade mesophyll and phloem phloem and xylem palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll spongy mesophyll and xylem 25 / 40 adrenal glands testes ovaries pancreas 26 / 40 D C B A 27 / 40 How does blood enter the heart? through veins into the ventricles through arteries into the ventricles through veins into the atria through arteries into the atria 28 / 40 What occurs as a result of artificial selection? presence of roots in cactus plants disease resistant crops sickle cell anaemia antibiotic resistance in bacteria 29 / 40 Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish? gills → heart → body → gills body → gills → heart → body heart → body → gills → body heart → gills → body → heart 30 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. 31 / 40 vein ureter urethra uterus 32 / 40 Why are bacteria useful in genetic engineering? Their genetic code is different to other organisms. They reproduce sexually. They have plasmids. They have cell walls. 33 / 40 Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? genus population kingdom species 34 / 40 D B C A 35 / 40 Carbon dioxide is produced by aerobic respiration. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the aerobic respiration of three molecules of glucose? 3 6 18 12 36 / 40 A student’s eyes blinked as a ball flew past their head. This is a reflex action. Which row describes the reaction shown by the student? a slow reaction involving the endocrine system a slow reaction involving the nervous system a fast reaction involving the nervous system a fast reaction involving the endocrine system 37 / 40 The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 38 / 40 The statements are about the use of antibiotics. 1 using an antibiotic to prevent infection 2 using an antibiotic known to kill the bacteria causing an infection 3 using an antibiotic only when essential 4 using an antibiotic to treat a viral infection Which practices will increase the chance of the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria? 1 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 39 / 40 Which process is carried out by all organisms sexual reproduction photosynthesis transpiration growth 40 / 40 Which substance found in a healthy diet helps to prevent constipation? vitamins fibre fat minerals NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Which endocrine gland produces insulin?
2 / 40
A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to?
3 / 40
Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature?
4 / 40
Some of the structures found in cells are listed: • cytoplasm • cell membrane • cell wall • chloroplast. How many of these structures are found in the cells of all living organisms?
5 / 40
Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?
6 / 40
What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?
7 / 40
8 / 40
By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood?
9 / 40
Which level of organisation is shown by the heart of a mammal?
10 / 40
Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism?
11 / 40
Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment?
12 / 40
Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only?
13 / 40
What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells?
14 / 40
15 / 40
What do biological washing powders contain?
16 / 40
A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct?
17 / 40
18 / 40
19 / 40
Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?
20 / 40
Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart?
21 / 40
Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
22 / 40
What is the function of the optic nerve?
23 / 40
What is the correct order of arthropod groups, from those with the most legs to those with the fewest legs?
24 / 40
Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?
25 / 40
26 / 40
27 / 40
How does blood enter the heart?
28 / 40
What occurs as a result of artificial selection?
29 / 40
Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish?
30 / 40
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
31 / 40
32 / 40
Why are bacteria useful in genetic engineering?
33 / 40
Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
34 / 40
35 / 40
Carbon dioxide is produced by aerobic respiration. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the aerobic respiration of three molecules of glucose?
36 / 40
A student’s eyes blinked as a ball flew past their head. This is a reflex action. Which row describes the reaction shown by the student?
37 / 40
The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct?
38 / 40
The statements are about the use of antibiotics. 1 using an antibiotic to prevent infection 2 using an antibiotic known to kill the bacteria causing an infection 3 using an antibiotic only when essential 4 using an antibiotic to treat a viral infection Which practices will increase the chance of the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
39 / 40
Which process is carried out by all organisms
40 / 40
Which substance found in a healthy diet helps to prevent constipation?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What is the site of gas exchange in humans? trachea bronchus nose alveoli 2 / 40 Some statements about mitosis are listed. 1) Cells divide and produce new cells to repair damaged tissues. 2) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form gametes. 3) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form genetically identical cells. 4) Mitosis is used in asexual reproduction. Which statements are correct? 2 and 4 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 3 / 40 Adaptive features are inherited features that increase fitness. What is the definition of fitness? the probability of an organism surviving and reproducing in the environment in which it is found the probability of variation in a population the change in adaptive features of a population over time artificial selection to improve organisms 4 / 40 What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein? DNA molecules mRNA molecules ribosomes alleles 5 / 40 B C A D 6 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → lactic acid glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol 7 / 40 Which is an example of a population? all the mahogany trees growing in a forest all the different herbivores in a forest all the animals and plants living in a lake all the species of animals in Africa 8 / 40 Which endocrine gland produces insulin? ovary adrenal gland pancreas testes 9 / 40 What is not affected by the environment? skin colour blood group height weight 10 / 40 Heroin is an illegal drug which has many effects on the body. Which statement about the effects of heroin abuse is correct? Heroin decreases reaction times. Heroin is a stimulant. Heroin is not addictive. Heroin increases negative social behaviour. 11 / 40 In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules? glucose urea water salts 12 / 40 D B A C 13 / 40 A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to? genus and species kingdom and genus variety and genus kingdom and species 14 / 40 What causes the development of female secondary sexual characteristics? menstrual cycle starting oestrogen production adrenaline production ovulation occurring 15 / 40 Which process is carried out by all organisms sexual reproduction transpiration photosynthesis growth 16 / 40 Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism? using enzymes in biological washing powders using yeast to produce ethanol using pectinase in fruit juice production using bacteria to produce insulin 17 / 40 Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems? decomposition respiration ingestion photosynthesis 18 / 40 Why are bacteria useful in genetic engineering? They have plasmids. They have cell walls. They reproduce sexually. Their genetic code is different to other organisms. 19 / 40 Transpiration is faster than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become turgid. Transpiration is faster than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become flaccid. Transpiration is slower than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become turgid. Transpiration is slower than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become flaccid. 20 / 40 consumer heat producer the Sun 21 / 40 What is the principal source of energy input into food chains? glucose heat soil sunlight 22 / 40 What is a correct description of a gene mutation? an increase in the number of chromosomes a phenotypic variation a duplicate copy of DNA a change in the base sequence of DNA 23 / 40 After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes? xylem epidermis mesophyll cortex 24 / 40 Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container? glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid 25 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 26 / 40 The diagram shows a simple food chain. grass → gazelle → lion The arrows show the energy flow through the food chain. Where does the grass obtain its energy? water oxygen from air minerals in soil the Sun 27 / 40 Alcohol is a drug. Which statement is correct? It can cause COPD. It is not addictive. It is a depressant. It reduces reaction times. 28 / 40 What happens during meiosis? A haploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically identical. A diploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically different A haploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically different. A diploid cell produces haploid cells that are genetically identical. 29 / 40 Which list contains only arthropods? insects, myriapods, reptiles crustaceans, insects, fish amphibians, insects, myriapods arachnids, crustaceans, myriapods 30 / 40 Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called? selective breeding evolution mutation genetic engineering 31 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Arius felis 2 Felis concolor 3 Felis rufus 4 Macropus rufus Which animals are in the same genus? 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 32 / 40 A D C B 33 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen? Water left the plant tissue by osmosis. Water entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt left the plant tissue by osmosis. 34 / 40 Which statement about respiration is correct? Deep breathing after exercise reduces an oxygen debt. Lactic acid produced by aerobic respiration causes an oxygen debt The energy in ethanol molecules is released by muscle cells. The energy in lactic acid is released by anaerobic respiration 35 / 40 B A D C 36 / 40 What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation? cell → tissue → organ → organ system tissue → cell → organ → organ system organ → tissue → cell → organ system cell → organ → tissue → organ system 37 / 40 3 0 2 1 38 / 40 Benedict’s biuret DCPIP limewater 39 / 40 Which is an example of a transmissible disease? cholera after drinking contaminated water liver damage due to drinking alcohol lung cancer due to inhaling tobacco smoke coronary heart disease due to eating high fat food 40 / 40 Carbon dioxide is produced by aerobic respiration. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the aerobic respiration of three molecules of glucose? 18 12 6 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
What is the site of gas exchange in humans?
Some statements about mitosis are listed. 1) Cells divide and produce new cells to repair damaged tissues. 2) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form gametes. 3) Chromosomes are duplicated and the cell separates to form genetically identical cells. 4) Mitosis is used in asexual reproduction. Which statements are correct?
Adaptive features are inherited features that increase fitness. What is the definition of fitness?
What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein?
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Which is an example of a population?
What is not affected by the environment?
Heroin is an illegal drug which has many effects on the body. Which statement about the effects of heroin abuse is correct?
In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules?
What causes the development of female secondary sexual characteristics?
Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems?
What is the principal source of energy input into food chains?
What is a correct description of a gene mutation?
After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes?
Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?
The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus?
The diagram shows a simple food chain. grass → gazelle → lion The arrows show the energy flow through the food chain. Where does the grass obtain its energy?
Alcohol is a drug. Which statement is correct?
What happens during meiosis?
Which list contains only arthropods?
Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called?
The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Arius felis 2 Felis concolor 3 Felis rufus 4 Macropus rufus Which animals are in the same genus?
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen?
Which statement about respiration is correct?
What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation?
Which is an example of a transmissible disease?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas? acid rain on limestone buildings combustion of wood digestion in cows zinc reacting with sulfuric acid 2 / 40 tungsten <iron< nickel < magnesium magnesium< nickel < iron < tungsten tungsten > nickel > iron > magnesium tungsten < nickel < iron < magnesium 3 / 40 Some properties of diamond are shown. 1 It is very hard. 2 Every atom forms four bonds. 3 It does not conduct electricity. Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide? 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 and 3 1 only 4 / 40 a reactant in respiration nitrogen Oxygen ethanol 5 / 40 B C D A 6 / 40 Which statement about nylon and Terylene is correct? Nylon is a polyester. Nylon and Terylene contain the same linkage. Terylene is made from two different monomers. Nylon and Terylene are made from monomers with C=C bonds. 7 / 40 Solutions 3 and 4 are alkaline. Solutions 3 and 4 are acidic. Solutions 1 and 2 are alkaline. Solutions 1 and 4 are acidic. 8 / 40 A C B D 9 / 40 why the chemical properties of 1224Mg and 1226Mg are the same. same number of Atoms same number of Protons same number of electrons 10 / 40 Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting? 1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal. 1 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 and 4 11 / 40 Which statements are correct? 1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers. 2) Proteins are natural polymers. 3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food. 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 12 / 40 The equations for two reactions of iodide ions are shown. reaction 1) 2I–(aq) + H2O2(aq) → I2(aq) + 2OH–(aq) reaction 2) I–(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgI(s) Which statement is correct? Neither reaction is a redox reaction. Both reactions are redox reactions. Only reaction 2 is a redox reaction. Only reaction 1 is a redox reaction. 13 / 40 A mixture of colourless compounds is separated using chromatography. Which type of reagent is used to detect these compounds after separation? a reducing agent an oxidising agent a dehydrating agent a locating agent 14 / 40 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime? sodium hydroxide sulfuric acid ammonia sodium chloride 15 / 40 A B C D 16 / 40 Ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Which statements are correct? 1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions. 2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid. 3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid. 4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor. 3 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 17 / 40 Iron is a metal. Give three physical properties that are characteristic of metals malleable conduct heat conduct electricity Brittleness 18 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: is produced by the addition of steam to ethene Check 19 / 40 State the empirical formula of the polymer. Check 20 / 40 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant. For safety reasons, an inert gas is used. Which gas is suitable? oxygen hydrogen methane argon 21 / 40 Which statement about elements in Group I and Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct? Bromine reacts with potassium chloride to produce chlorine Lithium has a higher melting point than potassium. Sodium is more reactive with water than potassium Iodine is a monoatomic non-metal. 22 / 40 Which process is not used in the preparation of an insoluble salt? washing crystallisation filtration drying 23 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 1 and 4 only 24 / 40 Which reaction involving sulfur dioxide is correct? It is produced during the extraction of zinc from zinc blende. It turns an acidified solution of potassium manganate(VII) purple. It reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid to form oleum. It reacts with sulfur to form sulfur trioxide. 25 / 40 Which polymers have the same linkage between monomer units? carbohydrate and polyamide protein and polyester protein and polyamide carbohydrate and polyester 26 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. The baseline should be drawn in pencil. The solvent should cover the baseline. 27 / 40 A D B C 28 / 40 A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X? copper, Cu gadolinium, Gd sulfur, S tellurium, Te 29 / 40 Ethane, C2H6, reacts with chlorine in a substitution reaction. What are the products of this reaction? chloroethene and hydrogen chloride chloroethene and hydrogen chloroethane and hydrogen chloride chloroethane and hydrogen 30 / 40 The gases Ar, CO2, N2 and O2 are in clean, dry air. CO, NO, NO2 and SO2 are gases commonly found in polluted air. What percentage of clean, dry air is N2? Give your answer to the nearest whole number. Check 31 / 40 Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol. What is X? hydrogen ethanoic acid steam glucose 32 / 40 Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene? CH2BrCH2Br CH3CH2OH CH3CH3 CH3CH2CH3 33 / 40 Which statement about Group I and Group VII elements is correct? Group VII elements are monoatomic non-metals. Lithium is more reactive with water than caesium. The melting points of Group I metals increase down the group. Potassium bromide reacts with chlorine to produce an orange solution. 34 / 40 Excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia to make a salt which can be used as a fertiliser. State the name of the salt formed when excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia. Check 35 / 40 B D C A 36 / 40 Which statements about hydrogen are correct? 1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product. 1 and 2 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 3 only 37 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: turns blue litmus red Check 38 / 40 subtraction addition No Change 39 / 40 Which statement about atomic structure is correct? Isotopes have a different nucleon number but the same proton number. Metal atoms gain electrons to achieve a noble gas electronic structure. The nucleon number is the total number of electrons and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom. Protons and neutrons are oppositely charged particles. 40 / 40 A C D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas?
Some properties of diamond are shown.
1 It is very hard. 2 Every atom forms four bonds. 3 It does not conduct electricity. Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide?
a reactant in respiration
Which statement about nylon and Terylene is correct?
why the chemical properties of 1224Mg and 1226Mg are the same.
Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting?
1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal.
Which statements are correct? 1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers. 2) Proteins are natural polymers. 3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food.
The equations for two reactions of iodide ions are shown. reaction 1) 2I–(aq) + H2O2(aq) → I2(aq) + 2OH–(aq) reaction 2) I–(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgI(s) Which statement is correct?
A mixture of colourless compounds is separated using chromatography. Which type of reagent is used to detect these compounds after separation?
Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory. Which substance is removed by the lime?
Ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Which statements are correct? 1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions. 2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid. 3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid. 4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor.
Iron is a metal. Give three physical properties that are characteristic of metals
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: is produced by the addition of steam to ethene
State the empirical formula of the polymer.
A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant. For safety reasons, an inert gas is used. Which gas is suitable?
Which statement about elements in Group I and Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct?
Which process is not used in the preparation of an insoluble salt?
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
Which reaction involving sulfur dioxide is correct?
Which polymers have the same linkage between monomer units?
Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?
A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X?
Ethane, C2H6, reacts with chlorine in a substitution reaction. What are the products of this reaction?
The gases Ar, CO2, N2 and O2 are in clean, dry air. CO, NO, NO2 and SO2 are gases commonly found in polluted air. What percentage of clean, dry air is N2? Give your answer to the nearest whole number.
Ethene reacts with substance X to form ethanol. What is X?
Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene?
Which statement about Group I and Group VII elements is correct?
Excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia to make a salt which can be used as a fertiliser. State the name of the salt formed when excess sulfuric acid reacts with ammonia.
Which statements about hydrogen are correct?
1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance: turns blue litmus red
Which statement about atomic structure is correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statements about acids and bases are correct? 1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen. 2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia. 3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide. 4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange. 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 / 40 What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate? manufacture of cement cracking of hydrocarbons manufacture of aluminium purification of water 3 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 4 / 40 Which statement describes how oxides of nitrogen are formed in a car engine? Nitrogen from the air reacts with oxygen from the air. Nitrogen from the air reacts with oxygen from petrol. Nitrogen from petrol reacts with oxygen from the air. Nitrogen from petrol reacts with oxygen from petrol. 5 / 40 Element X has a high density, a high melting point and a high electrical conductivity. It forms many coloured compounds. Element X and many of its compounds act as catalysts. What could be the atomic number of X? 19 33 35 26 6 / 40 Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group. 1 and 2 3 only 1 and 3 2 only 7 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 8 / 40 The formula of an aluminium ion is Al3+. What is the formula of aluminium sulfate? Al3(SO4)2 Al(SO4)2 Al2SO4 Al2(SO4)3 9 / 40 Effervescence is observed at the negative electrode (cathode) during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. Which element is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)? sodium chlorine oxygen hydrogen 10 / 40 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes. What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction at the cathode? Cu → Cu2+ + 2e– 2O2- → O2 + 4e– Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu 2H+ + 2e– → H2 11 / 40 Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane 1 and 3 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 12 / 40 P, Q, R and S are organic compounds. P is formed by reacting ethene with steam. Q decolourises bromine water. R is a hydrocarbon; all of its bonds are single covalent bonds. S is a waste product from digestion in animals. Which compounds are alkanes? P and S P and Q Q and R R and S 13 / 40 Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile. 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4 14 / 40 X and Y are two different elements. X and Y have the same number of nucleons. Which statement about X and Y is correct? They have different relative masses. They are in different groups of the Periodic Table. They have the same physical properties. They have the same physical properties. 15 / 40 The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct? Iron(III) oxide is oxidised. Iron is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is reduced. Carbon monoxide is oxidised. 16 / 40 Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 17 / 40 Ethanol is made industrially by the fermentation of glucose or by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene. Which statement describes an advantage of fermentation compared to catalytic addition? Fermentation uses a renewable resource. Fermentation uses a batch process but catalytic addition is continuous. Ethanol is the only product of fermentation. Fermentation uses a higher temperature than catalytic addition. 18 / 40 Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons. 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 19 / 40 Calcium carbonate, CaCO3, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide. The equation for the reaction is shown. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate is 100. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced? 4.4 g 44 g 2.2 g 2.8 g 20 / 40 Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid? ethanoic acid + copper → copper ethanoate + hydrogen ethanoic acid + sodium oxide → sodium ethanoate + hydrogen ethanoic acid + calcium oxide → calcium ethanoate + water ethanoic acid + magnesium → magnesium ethanoate + water 21 / 40 Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown. carbon silicon germanium tin lead What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended? The elements have more electron shells. The proton number of the elements increases. The elements have more electrons in their outer shell. The elements become more metallic. 22 / 40 Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct? It is produced during the decomposition of vegetation. It damages stone buildings. It is formed during the incomplete combustion of natural gas. It is a pollutant which causes acid rain. 23 / 40 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 24 / 40 Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium from bauxite? it reduces aluminium ions in aluminium oxide it stops the carbon anodes burning away as a solvent for aluminium oxide as a catalyst for the process 25 / 40 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion? Aluminium does not react with water or air. Aluminium does not form ions easily. Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series. Aluminium has a protective oxide layer 26 / 40 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction? The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter. The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder. The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter. 27 / 40 Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food? poly(ethene) Terylene carbohydrate nylon 28 / 40 Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X? hydrated copper(II) sulfate lead(II) bromide calcium carbonate anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride 29 / 40 Copper(II) oxide reacts with iron. The equation for the reaction is shown. 3CuO + 2Fe → 3Cu + Fe2O3 Why can this reaction be described as the reduction of copper(II) oxide? Iron gains oxygen. The copper(II) oxide loses oxygen. The copper(II) oxide weighs less after the reaction than before. There are fewer substances on the right of the equation. 30 / 40 Which statement about the Periodic Table is not correct? Elements in the same period have similar properties. Non-metals are found on the right side of the table. There are more metals than non-metals. It can be used to predict the properties of elements. 31 / 40 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules? They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together. They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules. They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together. They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice. 32 / 40 Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide. 1 and 3 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 33 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 1 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 34 / 40 Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide? poly(ethene) nylon protein Terylene 35 / 40 Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide. 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 36 / 40 A compound has the formula XF2 and has a relative mass of 70. What is element X? sulfur ytterbium germanium gallium 37 / 40 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis? Al3+ + 3e– → Al Al3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2- → O2 + 4e– 2O2- + 2e– → O2 38 / 40 Which substance is described as a macromolecule? graphite ammonia iron sodium chloride 39 / 40 Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile. 1 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 40 / 40 The rate of the reaction between lumps of zinc and dilute sulfuric acid is determined. The experiment is repeated four times, making only one change each time. The changes are listed. 1 The lumps of zinc are replaced with powdered zinc. 2 Water is added to the dilute sulfuric acid. 3 The temperature of the dilute sulfuric acid is increased. 4 A catalyst is added to the reaction mixture. Which changes produce an increase in the rate of reaction? 2 only 1 and 2 1, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which statements about acids and bases are correct? 1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen. 2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia. 3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide. 4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange.
What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
Which statement describes how oxides of nitrogen are formed in a car engine?
Element X has a high density, a high melting point and a high electrical conductivity. It forms many coloured compounds. Element X and many of its compounds act as catalysts. What could be the atomic number of X?
Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group.
Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation
The formula of an aluminium ion is Al3+. What is the formula of aluminium sulfate?
Effervescence is observed at the negative electrode (cathode) during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. Which element is produced at the negative electrode (cathode)?
Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes. What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction at the cathode?
Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane
P, Q, R and S are organic compounds. P is formed by reacting ethene with steam. Q decolourises bromine water. R is a hydrocarbon; all of its bonds are single covalent bonds. S is a waste product from digestion in animals. Which compounds are alkanes?
Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile.
X and Y are two different elements. X and Y have the same number of nucleons. Which statement about X and Y is correct?
The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct?
Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct?
Ethanol is made industrially by the fermentation of glucose or by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene. Which statement describes an advantage of fermentation compared to catalytic addition?
Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons.
Calcium carbonate, CaCO3, reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide. The equation for the reaction is shown. The relative formula mass of calcium carbonate is 100. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which mass of carbon dioxide is produced?
Which word equation represents a reaction of aqueous ethanoic acid?
Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown. carbon silicon germanium tin lead What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?
Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct?
Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct?
Why is cryolite used in the extraction of aluminium from bauxite?
Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?
Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction?
Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food?
Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X?
Copper(II) oxide reacts with iron. The equation for the reaction is shown. 3CuO + 2Fe → 3Cu + Fe2O3 Why can this reaction be described as the reduction of copper(II) oxide?
Which statement about the Periodic Table is not correct?
Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?
Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide.
Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide?
Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide.
A compound has the formula XF2 and has a relative mass of 70. What is element X?
Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis?
Which substance is described as a macromolecule?
The rate of the reaction between lumps of zinc and dilute sulfuric acid is determined. The experiment is repeated four times, making only one change each time. The changes are listed. 1 The lumps of zinc are replaced with powdered zinc. 2 Water is added to the dilute sulfuric acid. 3 The temperature of the dilute sulfuric acid is increased. 4 A catalyst is added to the reaction mixture. Which changes produce an increase in the rate of reaction?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 In farming, what is an example of what economists call capital? the money the farmer set aside to pay taxes the tractor owned by the farmer shares in a farming company savings the farmer has in the bank 2 / 30 A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country? It has the world’s fastest economic growth rate. It has the world’s biggest economy It has the world’s greatest size of population. It has the world’s highest standard of living. 3 / 30 What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker? Earnings are related to the level of skill. Career opportunities are abundant. Labour supply is elastic and plentiful. It may be difficult to find work locally. 4 / 30 What suggests that there is market failure? high producer profits high retail prices low levels of investment lack of competition 5 / 30 B A C D 6 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? sales of golf equipment wages of golf course staff cost of water loss of farmland 7 / 30 To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem? The exploration involves demand and supply. There are external costs involved in production. Oil is expensive. Oil is a limited resource. 8 / 30 What must result from an increase in output? an increase in the fixed costs an increase in the variable costs a decrease in the total costs a decrease in the average cost 9 / 30 A B C D 10 / 30 Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers? High-income purchasers pay a higher percentage of their income in tax High-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax. Low-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax Low-income purchasers and high-income purchasers pay the same percentage of their income in tax. 11 / 30 Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement? opportunity cost, private monopoly excess demand, resource allocation demand and supply, government subsidy public sector, factors of production 12 / 30 Why would standards of living fall when there is a recession? There would be a rise in the level of immigration. The value of the domestic currency would increase. The purchasing power of households would fall. The government would increase taxes to combat the recession 13 / 30 Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a better measure of comparative living standards when it is adjusted for the effects of population change and exports. population change and inflation. imports and exports. exports and inflation. 14 / 30 In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation? Girls have fewer opportunities to complete higher education. Girls are only interested in low-wage jobs Girls do not favour heavy manual work. It costs more for girls to be trained as design engineers. 15 / 30 What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation? The level of imports increases. Governments raise interest rates. Consumers delay spending. The real value of money falls. 16 / 30 Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm? greater mechanisation higher labour productivity higher skill levels longer training times 17 / 30 A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer? the cost of installing wind turbines the loss of revenue from crops that grow on the land the reduced cost of producing renewable energy the profit made from selling the land 18 / 30 B A C D 19 / 30 B A D C 20 / 30 The product is one with many substitutes Producers are unable to respond to a price rise. There are 20 people able to buy the product. Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue. 21 / 30 The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform? distributing dividends from profits of state-owned enterprises employing workers to collect taxes investing in transport infrastructure projects producing goods in public corporations 22 / 30 What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? a rise in the number of years of schooling an increase in life expectancy at birth a rise in the GDP per head an increase in the level of car ownership 23 / 30 What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force? a fall in the average size of families an increase in net immigration a reduction in the age of retirement a fall in the birth rate 24 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? barriers to entry elastic demand for the product diseconomies of scale high number of substitutes for the product 25 / 30 $2390 million $5050 million $7440 million $33 940 million 26 / 30 U + V + X + Y U + V U + V + W U + X 27 / 30 What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation? cash shares property gold 28 / 30 X only X and Z Y only Y and Z 29 / 30 The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this? The supply of capital will decrease. The price of capital will fall. The costs of production will increase. The demand for capital will increase. 30 / 30 Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation. Why might this policy be effective? The exchange rate may fall. Investment may be encouraged. Consumers may save more Government spending may increase NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
In farming, what is an example of what economists call capital?
2 / 30
A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country?
3 / 30
What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker?
4 / 30
What suggests that there is market failure?
5 / 30
6 / 30
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
7 / 30
To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem?
8 / 30
What must result from an increase in output?
9 / 30
10 / 30
Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers?
11 / 30
Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement?
12 / 30
Why would standards of living fall when there is a recession?
13 / 30
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a better measure of comparative living standards when it is adjusted for the effects of
14 / 30
In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation?
15 / 30
What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation?
16 / 30
Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm?
17 / 30
A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?
18 / 30
19 / 30
20 / 30
21 / 30
The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform?
22 / 30
What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?
23 / 30
What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force?
24 / 30
What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market?
25 / 30
26 / 30
27 / 30
What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation?
28 / 30
29 / 30
The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this?
30 / 30
Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation. Why might this policy be effective?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform? employing workers to collect taxes distributing dividends from profits of state-owned enterprises investing in transport infrastructure projects producing goods in public corporations 2 / 30 Which policy is most likely to reduce relative poverty? reduce benefit payments make income tax rates less progressive reduce the minimum wage reduce the rate of sales tax 3 / 30 The US imposed tariffs on cars and motorcycles from Germany. What is the effect of these tariffs? decrease in inflation in the US increase in profits of car and motorcycle producers from Germany increase in standards of living in the US and in Germany decrease in trade between the US and Germany 4 / 30 When will a firm maximise its profits? when it produces where average cost and average revenue are equal when it sells as many products in as many different markets as it can when it excludes a rival supplier from the market when the difference between total cost and total revenue is greatest 5 / 30 What is an example of a fiscal policy measure? reducing the power of trade unions setting a lower interest rate reducing the rate of corporation tax increasing the exchange rate 6 / 30 C D A B 7 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? cost of water loss of farmland wages of golf course staff sales of golf equipment 8 / 30 C D B A 9 / 30 A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur? a reduction in imports a reduction in the number of doctors per capita an increase in absolute poverty an increase in incomes 10 / 30 Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985. Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015. All occupations were better off in 2015 than in 1985. Professionals received higher percentage increases in income than manual workers. 11 / 30 Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate? A rise in interest rates will raise the level of investment in a country. Interest rate changes have no impact on the level of production. A rise in interest rates may increase cost-push inflation A fall in interest rates will always increase inflation. 12 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? the budget deficit the money supply bank lending interest rates 13 / 30 Poverty in households may be defined in relative terms. What indicates relative poverty? lack of access to clean water falling below society’s expected standard of living income level required to meet basic needs living on less than $2 a day 14 / 30 In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this? no change in migration but the death rate rose a rise in net immigration but no change in the death rate a fall in infant mortality but no change in the death rate the death rate fell with no change in migration 15 / 30 What is the purpose of an economy’s production possibility curve (PPC)? It enables microeconomic decisions to be taken by firms It shows the productive capacity in an economy at a point in time. It measures the supply of goods and services available in an economy. It answers the question of what to produce in an economy. 16 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? social welfare growth efficiency profit maximisation 17 / 30 Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this? greater equality between the different groups in society a wider variety of goods and services produced less consumption of goods with external costs increased provision of public goods 18 / 30 What is a cause of demand-pull inflation? lower net exports higher tax rates higher government expenditure a surplus of skilled labour 19 / 30 Which government policy will increase productivity? promoting good industrial relations decreasing the number of training programmes encouraging labour-intensive production reducing private sector investment 20 / 30 What will cause the demand curve for a good to shift to the right? a decrease in the price of a complement good a decrease in the price of a substitute good a decrease in the disposable income of consumers a decrease in the price of the good 21 / 30 A farmer reduces the land used to grow wheat from 80 hectares to 60 hectares and increases the use of the land for growing potatoes from 80 to 100 hectares. What is the opportunity cost of this change? The output from 60 hectares used for growing wheat. The output from 20 hectares used for growing wheat. The output from 80 hectares used for growing potatoes. The output from 20 hectares used for growing potatoes. 22 / 30 What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment? Sunjit lost his job as a bank worker when the bank replaced his job with a new computer system. Aneesha lost her job as an engineer when her firm had to make redundancies in a recession. Jamie lost his job as an ice cream seller during the winter months when little ice cream was sold. Sunjeev decided to stop working and claim benefits when the government increased unemployment benefits. 23 / 30 U + V + W U + V + X + Y U + X U + V 24 / 30 What must result from an increase in output? a decrease in the total costs an increase in the variable costs a decrease in the average cost an increase in the fixed costs 25 / 30 A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do? lower income tax thresholds give subsidies to firms discourage bank lending lower interest rates 26 / 30 What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account? A Kenyan trade delegation promoting coffee sales visits India. A Zambian company increases its exports to Kenya. A Kenyan tea company increases its exports. A Kenyan company wins a contract to transport exports from Uganda. 27 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The good will become cheaper in the US. The US government’s revenue will decline. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 28 / 30 C D B A 29 / 30 What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods and services? more employment in declining industries more tax revenue from imports more exports by domestic firms more choice for domestic consumers 30 / 30 To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem? The exploration involves demand and supply. Oil is a limited resource. Oil is expensive. There are external costs involved in production. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
Which policy is most likely to reduce relative poverty?
The US imposed tariffs on cars and motorcycles from Germany. What is the effect of these tariffs?
When will a firm maximise its profits?
What is an example of a fiscal policy measure?
A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur?
Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate?
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
Poverty in households may be defined in relative terms. What indicates relative poverty?
In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this?
What is the purpose of an economy’s production possibility curve (PPC)?
A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?
Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this?
What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?
Which government policy will increase productivity?
What will cause the demand curve for a good to shift to the right?
A farmer reduces the land used to grow wheat from 80 hectares to 60 hectares and increases the use of the land for growing potatoes from 80 to 100 hectares.
What is the opportunity cost of this change?
What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?
A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do?
What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account?
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods and services?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C B D A 2 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number 3 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from chemical to therma from chemical to kinetic from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from kinetic to thermal 4 / 40 Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track? to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day 5 / 40 Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 6 / 40 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person? 20 000 m 7 000 000m 0.02 m 60 m 7 / 40 What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion? the area under a distance–time graph the gradient of a speed–time graph the area under a speed–time graph the gradient of a distance–time graph 8 / 40 0.60 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.67 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.7 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.5 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 9 / 40 Which statement about mass is correct? The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion Mass is a gravitational force. A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface. Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases 10 / 40 A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate? γ-rays only α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays β-particles only α-particles only 11 / 40 D C A B 12 / 40 A B C D 13 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The current in each lamp is different. 14 / 40 A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity? The skydiver’s speed is decreasing. The skydiver is moving with constant speed. The skydiver’s speed is zero. The skydiver’s speed is increasing. 15 / 40 A B D C 16 / 40 C B D A 17 / 40 variable resistor relay coil thermistor light-dependent resistor 18 / 40 A D C B 19 / 40 The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly. The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller. The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more frequently. The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly. 20 / 40 C D A B 21 / 40 D B A C 22 / 40 Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement? The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water. The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water. 23 / 40 A B D C 24 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 18 000 m 300 m 5.0 m 0.20 m 25 / 40 C A B D 26 / 40 switch, heater and fuse resistor, thermistor and bell lamp, voltmeter and switch switch, variable resistor and heater 27 / 40 17.6 s 0.92 s 18.4 s 0.88 s 28 / 40 D C A B 29 / 40 How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of the original nucleus? both larger than the original nucleus one larger and one smaller than the original nucleus both smaller than the original nucleus one smaller and one the same size as the original nucleus 30 / 40 It depends on the mass of the ball. It stays the same as the ball falls. It depends on the density of the ball. It increases as the ball falls. 31 / 40 When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this? The comb is uncharged and the foil is charged. The comb and the foil have charges of opposite sign. The comb is charged and the foil is uncharged. The comb and the foil have charges of the same sign. 32 / 40 D A C B 33 / 40 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays? Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. 34 / 40 B C D A 35 / 40 m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3. m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3 m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 36 / 40 B A C D 37 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. 38 / 40 Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo? reflection dispersion refraction diffraction 39 / 40 C A D B 40 / 40 It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case. It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on. It improves the efficiency of the cooker. The electric cooker will not switch on without it. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?
Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement?
What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person?
What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion?
Which statement about mass is correct?
A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity?
Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of the original nucleus?
When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this?
Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 only 1 only 2 / 40 D B C A 3 / 40 C A D B 4 / 40 3.0 N 1.6 N 2.6 N 1.4 N 5 / 40 Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling sea water. Put the bulb in a beaker of pure melting ice. Put the bulb in a beaker of ice and salt. 6 / 40 C A B D 7 / 40 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 8 / 40 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force? 10 J 30 J 20 J 40 J 9 / 40 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television? visible light microwaves radio waves infrared waves 10 / 40 An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct? There is no resultant force acting on the object because it is moving at constant speed. A resultant force acts on the object outwards from the centre of the circle. A resultant force acts on the object in the direction it is travelling. A resultant force acts on the object towards the centre of the circle. 11 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 1 and 3 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 12 / 40 Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element. What is this process called? radioactive decay electromagnetic induction the motor effect convection 13 / 40 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current? thermistor earth wire relay fuse 14 / 40 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens? P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air. P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q. 15 / 40 face Z face X The pressure is the same for all the faces. face Y 16 / 40 All three readings are the same. I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2. I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3. I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3 17 / 40 A C D B 18 / 40 the thickness of the roller the length of the pointer the length of the steel bar the length of the roller 19 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 40 000W 400W 40W 4000W 20 / 40 D C A B 21 / 40 D B C A 22 / 40 C B D A 23 / 40 D A C B 24 / 40 D C B A 25 / 40 A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m. What is the average braking force acting on the car? 6800 N 56 000N 0.15 N 6.8 N 26 / 40 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 27 / 40 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring? gravitational potential energy gravitational potential energy elastic potential energy chemical energy 28 / 40 When the particles hit the wall, their average kinetic energy increases. The particles collide with each other. When the particles hit the wall, their momentum changes, which causes a force. The particles expand when they hit the wall. 29 / 40 200 s 400 s 120 s 90 s 30 / 40 C A D B 31 / 40 Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure? thermal conduction thermal energy thermal capacity thermal expansion 32 / 40 12 min 14 min 10 min 40 min 33 / 40 Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement? The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water. The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles. The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles. 34 / 40 A B C D 35 / 40 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train? 5.0 m / s 60 m / s 50 m / s 3.0 m / s 36 / 40 B A C D 37 / 40 m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3. m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3 m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 38 / 40 Q, R and S only Q and S only R only P, Q, R and S 39 / 40 A D B C 40 / 40 Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)? J /C J / s W/C A/Ω NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force?
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television?
An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct?
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element. What is this process called?
Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current?
Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m. What is the average braking force acting on the car?
A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct?
In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?
Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?
A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train?
Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere? feeding respiration fossilisation photosynthesis 2 / 40 Which process produces alkenes? cracking reduction polymerisation fractional distillation 3 / 40 A B D C 4 / 40 Which groups of the Periodic Table form compounds containing covalent bonds? Group I and Group VII Group V and Group 0 Group I and Group 0 Group V and Group VII 5 / 40 B D A C 6 / 40 A B D C 7 / 40 Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood? calcium and iron carbohydrate and iron calcium and vitamin D carbohydrate and vitamin D 8 / 40 D A B C 9 / 40 A D B C 10 / 40 B D C A 11 / 40 What happens to water molecules when water freezes? They move faster. They become arranged more regularly. They become smaller. They move much closer together. 12 / 40 A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2. The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg? 20 000Pa 50 000Pa 200 000Pa 5000Pa 13 / 40 Which two substances form a white precipitate when they are mixed? silver nitrate and hydrochloric acid silver nitrate and nitric acid barium chloride and nitric acid barium chloride and hydrochloric acid 14 / 40 What is not needed for electrolysis? electrodes a power supply a bulb an electrolyte 15 / 40 What is a feature of asexual reproduction? fusion of the nuclei of two cells development and growth of a zygote only requires a single parent offspring are all genetically different 16 / 40 A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell? 0.4 mm 4.0 mm 1.6 mm 16.0 mm 17 / 40 Some examples of responses in the body are listed. decreased pupil diameter increased breathing rate increased pulse rate Which responses are caused by the secretion of adrenaline? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 18 / 40 0.33 Hz 3.0 Hz 20Hz 0.050 Hz 19 / 40 Which foods are rich in carbohydrate? 1 eggs 2 meat 3 potatoes 4 rice 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 20 / 40 B C A D 21 / 40 C D B A 22 / 40 What is the chemical formula of nitric acid? HCl H2SO4 NH3 HNO3 23 / 40 B D C A 24 / 40 A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule? 1.2 kg 1200N 1200 kg 1.2 N 25 / 40 A C B D 26 / 40 Which process produces pure copper sulfate from aqueous copper sulfate? crystallisation filtration chromatography distillation 27 / 40 D B C A 28 / 40 A D C B 29 / 40 Two food chains are shown. wheat → vole → fox → tick grass → rabbit → fox → flea What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains? primary consumers secondary consumers producers tertiary consumers 30 / 40 D A B C 31 / 40 Four separate samples of magnesium are reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid. In each reaction the concentration of the hydrochloric acid is the same. Which experiment gives the highest rate of reaction? 2 g of magnesium powder in 50 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 25 ºC 2 g of magnesium ribbon in 25 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 25 ºC 2 g of magnesium ribbon in 50 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 50 ºC 2 g of magnesium powder in 25 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 50 ºC 32 / 40 Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them? producers carnivores decomposers herbivores 33 / 40 Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue? along the surface of the glass in the opposite direction to its original direction into the glass in a new direction into the glass in its original direction 34 / 40 Which process takes carbon dioxide out of the air? decomposition photosynthesis combustion plant respiration 35 / 40 Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperatures. carbon + carbon dioxide →carbon monoxide Which statement about the reaction is correct? Both carbon and carbon dioxide are oxidised The carbon is oxidised and the carbon dioxide is reduced. The carbon is reduced and the carbon dioxide is oxidised. Both carbon and carbon dioxide are reduced. 36 / 40 C A D B 37 / 40 A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean. A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is received back at the boat. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. How deep is the ocean under the boat? 340 m 680 m 6600 m 3300 m 38 / 40 What is used to identify chlorine? damp litmus paper a lighted splint a glowing splint limewater 39 / 40 C B D A 40 / 40 A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed? clock ruler thermometer balance NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere?
Which process produces alkenes?
Which groups of the Periodic Table form compounds containing covalent bonds?
Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood?
What happens to water molecules when water freezes?
A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2. The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg?
Which two substances form a white precipitate when they are mixed?
What is not needed for electrolysis?
What is a feature of asexual reproduction?
A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell?
Some examples of responses in the body are listed.
Which foods are rich in carbohydrate? 1 eggs 2 meat 3 potatoes 4 rice
What is the chemical formula of nitric acid?
A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule?
Which process produces pure copper sulfate from aqueous copper sulfate?
Two food chains are shown. wheat → vole → fox → tick grass → rabbit → fox → flea What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains?
Four separate samples of magnesium are reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid. In each reaction the concentration of the hydrochloric acid is the same. Which experiment gives the highest rate of reaction?
Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them?
Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue?
Which process takes carbon dioxide out of the air?
Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperatures. carbon + carbon dioxide →carbon monoxide Which statement about the reaction is correct?
A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean. A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is received back at the boat. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. How deep is the ocean under the boat?
What is used to identify chlorine?
A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed?
