0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 Which statement is correct? The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. 2 / 35 Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover? 1 increase the selling prices of all clothing 2 offer discounts on last year’s designs 3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible 1 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 only 3 / 35 Raj and Rohit are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Raj is entitled to an annual salary of $3000. The profit for the year ended 31 December 2020 was $14 100. On 1 January 2020, Raj’s current account had a debit balance of $1800. What was the credit balance on Raj’s current account on 1 January 2021? $12 200 $12 400 $10 400 $8600 4 / 35 Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club? bank charges, depreciation, wages depreciation, treasurer’s expenses, wages deficit, sales revenue, treasurer’s expenses bank charges, gross profit, sales revenue 5 / 35 C B A D 6 / 35 $26 000 $16 000 $6000 $1000 7 / 35 What is shown in the capital and liabilities section of a statement of financial position of a business? total amounts owed by and to the business the working capital of the business how the resources are being used by the business where the resources of the business have come from 8 / 35 Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years 1 and 3 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 9 / 35 B D C A 10 / 35 B A D C 11 / 35 C B A D 12 / 35 A B D C 13 / 35 Jamal’s bank statement at 1 May 2021 showed a bank overdraft of $1460. At that date there were unpresented cheques of $385 and uncredited deposits of $255. What was the cash book balance on 1 May 2021? $1590 debit $1330 credit $1590 credit $1330 debit 14 / 35 9.2 times 14.4 times 6 times 8 times 15 / 35 What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business? liquid (acid test) ratio working capital current ratio return on capital employed 16 / 35 A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin? Selling price is decreasing. Cost of sales is decreasing. Quantity of goods sold is decreasing. Expenses are decreasing. 17 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance 18 / 35 Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer? credit note debit note statement of account invoice 19 / 35 Which statement is not true about a trial balance? It is useful in preparing financial statements. It is a list of ledger account balances at a certain date. It can assist in finding arithmetical errors. It is part of the double entry system. 20 / 35 D B C A 21 / 35 What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business? cash trade receivables office equipment work in progress 22 / 35 The bank statement of a business had a credit balance of $2690 on 1 October 2021. At that date cheques totalling $850 had not yet been presented for payment. What was the bank balance in the cash book on 1 October 2021? $3540 debit $1840 debit $3540 credit $1840 credit 23 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? accumulated fund subscriptions retained earnings capital 24 / 35 Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year? fees received – expenses fees received – cost of sales fees received – cost of sales + expenses fees received + expenses 25 / 35 A manufacturer calculated the cost of production for the year at $57 000. It was found that lighting and heating, $2000, had been omitted from the financial statements. Lighting and heating is allocated 75% to the factory and 25% to the offices. What was the correct cost of production? $58 500 $57 500 $55 500 $56 500 26 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the purchase of a new computer for resale the annual depreciation on office premises the cost of repairing office equipment the cost of building an office extension 27 / 35 There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account? $7200 $6600 $6960 $7800 28 / 35 ‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer? money measurement going concern realisation matching 29 / 35 How should inventory be valued? lower of cost and net realisable value cost higher of cost and net realisable value net realisable value 30 / 35 The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year? $14 900 $15 860 $16 140 $17 100 31 / 35 AB Stores had the following transactions. 1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital. 2 $2000 was paid to trade payables. 3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid. By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions? $20 000 $13 000 $27 000 $15 000 32 / 35 Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct? It provides proof of the arithmetical accuracy of the purchases ledger It acts as a check on the balance of the purchases account. It is prepared using information from the books of prime entry. It includes transactions relating to all the credit suppliers. 33 / 35 A B C D 34 / 35 $650 debit $650 credit $1150 debit $1150 credit 35 / 35 C B A D NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
Which statement is correct?
2 / 35
Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover? 1 increase the selling prices of all clothing 2 offer discounts on last year’s designs 3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible
3 / 35
Raj and Rohit are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Raj is entitled to an annual salary of $3000. The profit for the year ended 31 December 2020 was $14 100. On 1 January 2020, Raj’s current account had a debit balance of $1800. What was the credit balance on Raj’s current account on 1 January 2021?
4 / 35
Which group contains only items which may be recorded in both the income statement of a trading business and the income and expenditure account of a club?
5 / 35
6 / 35
7 / 35
What is shown in the capital and liabilities section of a statement of financial position of a business?
8 / 35
Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years
9 / 35
10 / 35
11 / 35
12 / 35
13 / 35
Jamal’s bank statement at 1 May 2021 showed a bank overdraft of $1460. At that date there were unpresented cheques of $385 and uncredited deposits of $255. What was the cash book balance on 1 May 2021?
14 / 35
15 / 35
What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?
16 / 35
A business provided the following information about its gross margin. Year 1 40% Year 2 38% Year 3 35% What could explain the changes in the gross margin?
17 / 35
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
18 / 35
Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer?
19 / 35
Which statement is not true about a trial balance?
20 / 35
21 / 35
What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business?
22 / 35
The bank statement of a business had a credit balance of $2690 on 1 October 2021. At that date cheques totalling $850 had not yet been presented for payment. What was the bank balance in the cash book on 1 October 2021?
23 / 35
Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?
24 / 35
Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year?
25 / 35
A manufacturer calculated the cost of production for the year at $57 000. It was found that lighting and heating, $2000, had been omitted from the financial statements. Lighting and heating is allocated 75% to the factory and 25% to the offices. What was the correct cost of production?
26 / 35
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
27 / 35
There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account?
28 / 35
‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer?
29 / 35
How should inventory be valued?
30 / 35
The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year?
31 / 35
AB Stores had the following transactions. 1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital. 2 $2000 was paid to trade payables. 3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid. By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions?
32 / 35
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?
33 / 35
34 / 35
35 / 35
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 $31 545 $31 195 $32 445 $32 095 2 / 35 At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply? prudence money measurement materiality matching 3 / 35 Which is a feature of debentures? on liquidation are paid back after shareholders carry a fixed rate of dividend carry voting rights are a long-term liability of a company 4 / 35 The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show? X has more liquidity than Y. Y has more inventory than X. X has fewer liabilities than Y Y has fewer current assets than X. 5 / 35 B A C D 6 / 35 25% 15% 40% 10% 7 / 35 On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December? $336 overstated $420 overstated $504 understated $84 understated 8 / 35 Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir. Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two accounts was agreed. Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account? credit $100 debit $200 credit $200 debit $100 9 / 35 C A D B 10 / 35 What is shown in the capital and liabilities section of a statement of financial position of a business? total amounts owed by and to the business how the resources are being used by the business where the resources of the business have come from the working capital of the business 11 / 35 What is an advantage of forming a partnership? Responsibilities can be shared between the partners. Profits have to be shared among the partners. Each partner is responsible for actions of other partners. Decisions have to be recognised by all partners. 12 / 35 The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year? $15 860 $17 100 $16 140 $14 900 13 / 35 $7500 $2200 $1000 $6000 14 / 35 Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct? The balance of the account is shown in the statement of financial position. The account is used when doubtful debts are recovered. The account is used when an amount, previously written off, is received from a customer. The balance of the account is debited to the income statement at the end of the year. 15 / 35 Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account? to reduce the expense of irrecoverable debts in the future to have an accurate forecast of debts which will be uncollectible to apply the accounting principle of prudence to avoid profit for the year being understated 16 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $670 $660 $600 $640 17 / 35 B C D A 18 / 35 $2070 debit $870 credit $2070 credit $870 debit 19 / 35 What is prepared by a book-keeper? appropriation account cash book income statement statement of financial position 20 / 35 $14 890 $17 270 $15 270 $13 920 21 / 35 Why would a bakery business not include a value for inventory of stationery in the statement of financial position? It was purchased regularly and paid for in cash. It was expected it would be used in the next few months. It was not for resale. It was of very low value. 22 / 35 Which statement is correct? The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. 23 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? capital accumulated fund retained earnings subscriptions 24 / 35 A B C D 25 / 35 $24 460 $27 740 $29 460 $23 740 26 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $83 000 $3000 $68 000 $5000 27 / 35 $175 000 $145 000 $137 000 $155 000 28 / 35 B A C D 29 / 35 Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 30 / 35 D B C A 31 / 35 A farmer sold a piece of land at market value. How should the proceeds of this sale be treated? as a capital receipt as a revenue receipt as capital expenditure as revenue expenditure 32 / 35 $16 000 $6000 $26 000 $1000 33 / 35 A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this? Rent received, $420, was credited twice in the rent receivable account. Discounts allowed, $420, was debited twice in the discounts allowed account. Goods costing $420, taken by the owner of the business for own use, were credited to his drawings account. A cheque for $420 received from a customer was debited to his account. 34 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper? provision of information for decision-making preparation of financial statements recording financial transactions comparison of financial statements between years 35 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $1100 $2500 $1200 $2400 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply?
Which is a feature of debentures?
The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show?
On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December?
Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir. Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two accounts was agreed. Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account?
What is an advantage of forming a partnership?
Which statement about a debts recovered account is correct?
Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account?
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
What is prepared by a book-keeper?
Why would a bakery business not include a value for inventory of stationery in the statement of financial position?
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased
A farmer sold a piece of land at market value. How should the proceeds of this sale be treated?
A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this?
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper?
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about the regulation of human body temperature is correct? Vasoconstriction of skin capillaries occurs when the body temperature is too high Vasodilation of skin arterioles occurs when the body temperature is too low. Vasodilation of skin capillaries occurs when the body temperature is too low. Vasoconstriction of skin arterioles occurs when the body temperature is too low. 2 / 40 Which factors are believed to have contributed to the rise in sea levels? pollution of the air by carbon dioxide only pollution of the air by carbon dioxide and methane pollution of the sea by plastics only pollution of the sea by insecticides and nuclear fall-out 3 / 40 An advisor was presented with a list of statements for a discussion group with potential parents who were considering using in vitro fertilisation (IVF) to start a family. Which statements about IVF are correct? 1 IVF is available to everyone. 2 IVF is 100% successful and therefore always leads to pregnancy. 3 IVF provides an opportunity for single parents to have a family. 4 IVF is not expensive and everyone can afford it. 5 Sperm or egg donation may be involved which means the couple are not always the biological parents. 3 and 5 2 and 5 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 4 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. 5 / 40 The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are? compare evolutionary relationships of other species compare their anatomy compare the base sequences of their DNA compare their morphology 6 / 40 Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only? fats, cellulose and proteins proteins, oils and glycogen starch, fats and oils cellulose, glycogen and starch 7 / 40 What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant body temperature? They are controlled by hormones They require carbon dioxide. They are examples of homeostasis. They require energy. 8 / 40 days 19–28 days 0–5 days 13–18 days 6–12 9 / 40 Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called? selective breeding genetic engineering evolution mutation 10 / 40 Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism? using yeast to produce ethanol using bacteria to produce insulin using enzymes in biological washing powders using pectinase in fruit juice production 11 / 40 A C D B 12 / 40 What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans? for growth and repair of cells to maintain strong bones and teeth to provide energy to help food move through the alimentary canal 13 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells one banana plant being divided into two banana plants 14 / 40 What is an adaptive feature of sperm? jelly coating that changes after fertilisation diploid nucleus enzymes in the acrosome large stores of energy 15 / 40 The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier? skin hairs in the nose mucus white blood cells 16 / 40 B A C D 17 / 40 Which description of cross-pollination is correct? the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma to the anther on the same plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one plant to the anther on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma on the same plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma on a different plant 18 / 40 Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology? Bacteria are found inside the human body Bacteria can make complex molecules. Bacteria reproduce slowly. Bacteria do not become resistant to antibiotics. 19 / 40 What is a function of phloem? transports sugar to the roots transports minerals to the roots transports starch to the roots transports water to the roots 20 / 40 Which statement describes a catalyst? a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction and is changed by the reaction a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction and is not changed by the reaction a substance that decreases the rate of a chemical reaction and is not changed by the reaction a substance that decreases the rate of a chemical reaction and is changed by the reaction 21 / 40 Q and R only Q only P and Q only P, Q and R 22 / 40 D B A C 23 / 40 B D C A 24 / 40 What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans? fetus embryo placenta ovum 25 / 40 In which process is oxygen a waste product? anaerobic respiration photosynthesis aerobic respiration active transport 26 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1 and 3 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 27 / 40 insects myriapods arachnids crustaceans 28 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes a nucleus with one double helix of DNA a nucleus with two genes a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes 29 / 40 Which glands are endocrine glands? adrenal, ovaries, salivary pancreas, salivary, sweat adrenal, pancreas, testes ovaries, sweat, testes 30 / 40 What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation? organ → tissue → cell → organ system cell → organ → tissue → organ system tissue → cell → organ → organ system cell → tissue → organ → organ system 31 / 40 What is an example of a population? all the zebras that lived from 1990–2010 all the crocodiles in a river all the arthropods in a pond all the plants in a wood 32 / 40 The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably? 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 33 / 40 B D A C 34 / 40 What ensures that blood flows in one direction in the human circulatory system? diffusion of oxygen thick walled arteries valves diffusion of carbon dioxide 35 / 40 vein uterus urethra ureter 36 / 40 C A D B 37 / 40 The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 38 / 40 two cell walls two cell membranes one cell membrane one cell wall 39 / 40 What is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles? water carbon dioxide ethanol lactic acid 40 / 40 ×30 ×0.3 ×3 ×300 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Which statement about the regulation of human body temperature is correct?
2 / 40
Which factors are believed to have contributed to the rise in sea levels?
3 / 40
An advisor was presented with a list of statements for a discussion group with potential parents who were considering using in vitro fertilisation (IVF) to start a family. Which statements about IVF are correct?
1 IVF is available to everyone. 2 IVF is 100% successful and therefore always leads to pregnancy. 3 IVF provides an opportunity for single parents to have a family. 4 IVF is not expensive and everyone can afford it. 5 Sperm or egg donation may be involved which means the couple are not always the biological parents.
4 / 40
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
5 / 40
The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are?
6 / 40
Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only?
7 / 40
What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant body temperature?
8 / 40
9 / 40
Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called?
10 / 40
Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism?
11 / 40
12 / 40
What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans?
13 / 40
What is an example of sexual reproduction?
14 / 40
What is an adaptive feature of sperm?
15 / 40
The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier?
16 / 40
17 / 40
Which description of cross-pollination is correct?
18 / 40
Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology?
19 / 40
What is a function of phloem?
20 / 40
Which statement describes a catalyst?
21 / 40
22 / 40
23 / 40
24 / 40
What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans?
25 / 40
In which process is oxygen a waste product?
26 / 40
The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?
27 / 40
28 / 40
What is a diploid nucleus?
29 / 40
Which glands are endocrine glands?
30 / 40
What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation?
31 / 40
What is an example of a population?
32 / 40
The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably?
33 / 40
34 / 40
What ensures that blood flows in one direction in the human circulatory system?
35 / 40
36 / 40
37 / 40
The following are statements about immunity. 1) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby in breast milk is an example of passive immunity. 2) Passive immunity results in long term immunity because of the production of memory cells. 3) Active immunity is gained after vaccination with antigens. Which statements are correct?
38 / 40
39 / 40
What is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles?
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which description of cross-pollination is correct? the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one plant to the anther on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma to the anther on the same plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma on the same plant 2 / 40 In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place? colon duodenum oesophagus mouth 3 / 40 It has a thin layer of cytoplasm. It has a large surface area. It has a large vacuole. It has a cellulose cell wall. 4 / 40 D C A B 5 / 40 A photograph shows a plant cell nucleus measuring 2 mm across. If the magnification of the cell is 500, what is the actual size of the nucleus? 0.04 mm 0.004 mm 0.00002 mm 250 mm 6 / 40 Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis? 6 48 24 12 7 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → lactic acid glucose → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide 8 / 40 Which disease is caused by a pathogen? cholera coronary heart disease lung cancer scurvy 9 / 40 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 10 / 40 Which list contains only arthropods? amphibians, insects, myriapods insects, myriapods, reptiles arachnids, crustaceans, myriapods crustaceans, insects, fish 11 / 40 Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules? transpiration osmosis translocation active transport 12 / 40 A D B C 13 / 40 C A B D 14 / 40 What ensures that blood flows in one direction in the human circulatory system? diffusion of oxygen valves thick walled arteries diffusion of carbon dioxide 15 / 40 A B C D 16 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 1 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 17 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 18 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? ovary → ovule → stigma → style stigma → style → ovary → ovule stigma → ovary → style → ovule ovary → stigma → ovule → style 19 / 40 Which food type, when eaten in excess, will cause a rise in the urea content of urine? mineral salts fat carbohydrate protein 20 / 40 B D C A 21 / 40 ×0.3 ×3 ×300 ×30 22 / 40 Which statement about selective breeding is correct? It does not involve humans. It always involves only one parent It involves parents that possess desirable features. It involves a struggle for survival. 23 / 40 D B A C 24 / 40 Q only P and Q only P, Q and R Q and R only 25 / 40 After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes? epidermis xylem cortex mesophyll 26 / 40 rabbit blackbird fox owl 27 / 40 What determines the sex of a baby? the father’s XX chromosomes the father’s XY chromosomes the mother’s XX chromosomes the mother’s XY chromosomes 28 / 40 After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes? epidermis mesophyll xylem cortex 29 / 40 D A B C 30 / 40 What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc? sensory → relay → motor sensory → motor → relay motor → sensory → relay motor → relay → sensory 31 / 40 Which statement applies to respiration? Oxygen is released. Energy is absorbed. It involves enzymes. It only takes place in animal cells 32 / 40 What is an example of passive immunity? vaccination against measles where a harmless version of the virus is given the formation of memory cells in response to a cholera infection immunity against influenza after an individual has been infected with the influenza virus giving chickenpox antibodies to people at risk of developing a severe infection 33 / 40 What will increase the rate of transpiration in a plant? a decrease in the temperature of the atmosphere surrounding the leaf an increase in the surface area of the cell surfaces inside the leaf a decrease in the number of stomata present on the surface of the leaf an increase in the humidity of the atmosphere surrounding the leaf 34 / 40 organ organ system. tissue cell 35 / 40 How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis? They increase the surface area for absorption of light energy. They let rainwater enter the leaf tissues. They act as a store of oxygen. They allow carbon dioxide gas to diffuse through the leaf more rapidly. 36 / 40 Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism? Plant shoots grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow away from light. Plant roots grow towards light. 37 / 40 D C A B 38 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 39 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells one banana plant being divided into two banana plants one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower 40 / 40 pollination meiosis mitosis fertilisation NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place?
A photograph shows a plant cell nucleus measuring 2 mm across. If the magnification of the cell is 500, what is the actual size of the nucleus?
Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis?
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Which disease is caused by a pathogen?
Which list contains only arthropods?
Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules?
Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes?
Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?
Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?
Which food type, when eaten in excess, will cause a rise in the urea content of urine?
Which statement about selective breeding is correct?
After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes?
What determines the sex of a baby?
What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc?
Which statement applies to respiration?
What is an example of passive immunity?
What will increase the rate of transpiration in a plant?
How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis?
Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic bonds. How are the ionic bonds formed? Electrons are transferred from Group I atoms to Group VII atoms. Electrons are shared between Group I atoms and Group VII atoms. Electrons are transferred from Group VII atoms to Group I atoms. Electrons are lost by Group I atoms and Group VII atoms. 2 / 40 Which statement about polymerisation is correct? Small monomer molecules join to form large polymer molecules. Large polymer molecules join to form small monomer molecules. Large monomer molecules join to form small polymer molecules. Small polymer molecules join to form large monomer molecules. 3 / 40 Some properties of substance X are listed. ● It conducts electricity when molten. ● It has a high melting point. ● It burns in oxygen and the oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with pH 11. What is X? a macromolecule an ionic compound a metal a covalent compound 4 / 40 Which statement describes the properties of hydrochloric acid? Hydrogen is produced when sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid. Red litmus paper turns blue when dipped into hydrochloric acid. Carbon dioxide is produced when limestone reacts with hydrochloric acid. Methyl orange turns yellow in strong hydrochloric acid. 5 / 40 A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X? sulfur, S gadolinium, Gd copper, Cu tellurium, Te 6 / 40 Tube P (No Change) – Tube Q (Rises) Tube P (Rises) – Tube Q (No Change) Tube P (Rises) – Tube Q (Falls) Tube P (Falls) – Tube Q (Rises) 7 / 40 A student is asked to measure the time taken for 0.4 g of magnesium carbonate to react completely with 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. Which pieces of apparatus does the student need? balance, stop-clock, thermometer balance, pipette, thermometer stop-clock, pipette, thermometer balance, stop-clock, pipette 8 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 9 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance (ii) is used, when acidified, to test for sulfur dioxide Check 10 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 11 / 40 concentrated copper(II) chloride solution concentrated hydrochloric acid dilute sodium chloride solution dilute hydrochloric acid 12 / 40 Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed. Which equation represents the reaction at the cathode? Na+ + e– → Na 2O2- → O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e– 13 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: a compound produced by the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate Check 14 / 40 Which process is not used in the preparation of an insoluble salt? drying crystallisation washing filtration 15 / 40 X is harder and stronger than Y. X is a solid and Y is a liquid. X is a pure metal and Y is a compound. X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy. 16 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a blue precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide Check 17 / 40 Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct? Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X. Y has more electron shells than X. Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X. 18 / 40 The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive? They are all gases. They all have eight electrons in their outer shells. They are all monoatomic. They all have full outer shells. 19 / 40 +247 kJ / mol –247 kJ /mol +184 kJ / mol –184 kJ /mol 20 / 40 Which element has a relative atomic mass that shows it has at least two isotopes Check 21 / 40 The equation for the reaction when hydrogen is used as a fuel is shown. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O Which statement about this reaction is correct? The reaction is exothermic so the temperature of the surroundings increases. Energy is given out so the temperature of the surroundings decreases. The reaction is endothermic so the temperature of the surroundings decreases. Energy is taken in so the temperature of the surroundings increases. 22 / 40 Which reaction is reversible? magnesium burning in air to produce a white ash white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turning blue when water is added an iron nail rusting when left in moist air limestone reacting with an acid to form carbon dioxide gas 23 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an element which is used as a fuel Check 24 / 40 C B D A 25 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 26 / 40 Hydrogen peroxide solution decomposes very slowly at room temperature to produce oxygen gas. This gas forms a rising foam when liquid detergent is added. Five test-tubes are half filled with hydrogen peroxide solution. A drop of liquid detergent is added to each one. Different metal oxides are added to four of the test-tubes and the height of the foam formed after 1 minute is measured. The results are shown. metal oxide height of foam/cm no metal oxide added 0.1 aluminium oxide 0.1 manganese (IV) oxide 5.4 calcium oxide 0.2 copper (II) oxide 2.3 Which conclusion can be drawn from these results? Manganese(IV) oxide is the best catalyst of the four metal oxides tested. Only transition element oxides increase the rate of this reaction. All metal oxides increase the rate of this reaction and act as catalysts Metal oxides do not affect the rate of this reaction. 27 / 40 Which statement about pure water is not correct? It condenses at 100 °C. It freezes at 0 °C. It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue. It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue. 28 / 40 Water is purified using several processes. Four of the processes are listed. 1) Chlorine is added to water to kill any bacteria. 2) Water is passed through coarse gravel to remove large pieces of dirt. 3) Water is passed through wire screens to remove large twigs. 4) Water is passed through fine sand to remove small particles. In which order are the processes carried out?→ 4 → 3 → 2 → 1 3 → 2 → 4 → 1 1 → 2 →3 → 4 2→ 1 → 4 → 3 29 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is extracted from an ore called bauxite Check 30 / 40 They are all saturated molecules. They are all carbon-based molecules. They all contain bromine, carbon and hydrogen. They all contain the same functional group. 31 / 40 Which statement about alcohols is correct? Alcohols and carboxylic acids have the same functional group Water is produced from the combustion of alcohols. Ethanoic acid is produced from the reduction of ethanol. Ethanol is produced in an addition reaction between ethene and hydrogen. 32 / 40 Phosphine, PH3, has a similar chemical structure to ammonia, NH3. Ammonia acts as a base when it reacts with sulfuric acid. What is meant by the term base? H+ proton Above All hydrogen ion acceptor 33 / 40 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly? calcium oxide and carbon dioxide calcium oxide and carbon monoxide calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide 34 / 40 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion? CO2 CH4 H2 NH3 35 / 40 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction? The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter. The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter. The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder. The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder 36 / 40 In industry, calcium oxide is made from calcium carbonate by thermal decomposition. heat CaCO3 →CaO + CO2 Why is this described as thermal decomposition? Check 37 / 40 Which statements are correct? 1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers. 2) Proteins are natural polymers. 3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food. 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 38 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms an amphoteric oxide Check 39 / 40 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments? A halogen would be formed at the anode. A metal would be formed at the cathode. Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode. Hydrogen would be formed at the anode. 40 / 40 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis? The colour changes from green to red. The colour changes from green to blue. The colour changes from blue to red. The colour changes from blue to green. 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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Chemical compounds formed from a Group I element and a Group VII element contain ionic bonds. How are the ionic bonds formed?
Which statement about polymerisation is correct?
Some properties of substance X are listed. ● It conducts electricity when molten. ● It has a high melting point. ● It burns in oxygen and the oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with pH 11. What is X?
Which statement describes the properties of hydrochloric acid?
A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X?
A student is asked to measure the time taken for 0.4 g of magnesium carbonate to react completely with 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid.
Which pieces of apparatus does the student need?
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance
(ii) is used, when acidified, to test for sulfur dioxide
A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct?
Concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed. Which equation represents the reaction at the cathode?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: a compound produced by the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
Which process is not used in the preparation of an insoluble salt?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a blue precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide
Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct?
The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?
Which element has a relative atomic mass that shows it has at least two isotopes
The equation for the reaction when hydrogen is used as a fuel is shown. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O Which statement about this reaction is correct?
Which reaction is reversible?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an element which is used as a fuel
Hydrogen peroxide solution decomposes very slowly at room temperature to produce oxygen gas. This gas forms a rising foam when liquid detergent is added. Five test-tubes are half filled with hydrogen peroxide solution. A drop of liquid detergent is added to each one. Different metal oxides are added to four of the test-tubes and the height of the foam formed after 1 minute is measured. The results are shown.
Which conclusion can be drawn from these results?
Which statement about pure water is not correct?
Water is purified using several processes. Four of the processes are listed. 1) Chlorine is added to water to kill any bacteria. 2) Water is passed through coarse gravel to remove large pieces of dirt. 3) Water is passed through wire screens to remove large twigs. 4) Water is passed through fine sand to remove small particles. In which order are the processes carried out?→
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is extracted from an ore called bauxite
Which statement about alcohols is correct?
Phosphine, PH3, has a similar chemical structure to ammonia, NH3. Ammonia acts as a base when it reacts with sulfuric acid. What is meant by the term base?
What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?
Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?
Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction?
In industry, calcium oxide is made from calcium carbonate by thermal decomposition. heat CaCO3 →CaO + CO2 Why is this described as thermal decomposition?
Which statements are correct? 1) Polymers are large molecules built up from monomers. 2) Proteins are natural polymers. 3) Proteins and carbohydrates are constituents of food.
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms an amphoteric oxide
In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments?
Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Selenium is an element in Group VI. Group VI elements follow similar trends to Group VII elements. Which statement about selenium is correct? It has a lower melting point than sulfur. It has six electron shells. It has a higher density than sulfur. It is a monoatomic element. 2 / 40 Which statement about ethene is correct? It reacts with oxygen to form ethanol. It reacts with Br2to produce an orange solution. It has the chemical formula C2H6. It burns in excess oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water. 3 / 40 Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 4 / 40 What is the main constituent of natural gas? methane nitrogen oxygen hydrogen 5 / 40 Which compounds belong to the same homologous series? methane and ethene propene and ethanoic acid ethanoic acid and ethanol ethane and propane 6 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 1 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 and 4 7 / 40 Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S. The results are shown. 1) Magnesium does not react with the solution. 2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution. 3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution. What is S? hydrochloric acid sodium chloride sulfur dioxide sodium hydroxide 8 / 40 Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron. Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting. Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting? Magnesium stops air and water getting to the iron. Magnesium oxidises instead of iron. The magnesium reacts with rust as soon as it is formed. The magnesium forms an alloy with iron which does not corrode. 9 / 40 Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct? Compounds in the same homologous series have the same molecular formula. Butane and butene are structural isomers. Compounds in the same homologous series have the same general formula. Structural isomers have different molecular formulae. 10 / 40 Basic oxides are neutralised by acidic oxides. Which element forms an oxide that neutralises calcium oxide? sulfur sodium hydrogen magnesium 11 / 40 The equation for a reaction occurring in the Contact process is shown. 2SO2 + O2 →2SO3 What is the catalyst used in this reaction? vanadium(V) oxide sulfuric acid iron phosphoric(V) acid 12 / 40 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium is correct? Aluminium is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide Hematite is mainly aluminium oxide. Oxygen gains electrons at the anode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide. Molten cryolite is used to raise the melting point of the aluminium oxide. 13 / 40 An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct? Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+. Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+. Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+. Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+. 14 / 40 What is the total number of single covalent bonds in a molecule of ethanol? 5 7 6 8 15 / 40 Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 16 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? decomposition combustion photosynthesis respiration 17 / 40 Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct? They have the same number of neutrons They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell. They are all radioactive. They have the same mass. 18 / 40 Some properties of copper are listed. 1 It conducts electricity. 2 It conducts heat. 3 It is ductile. 4 It has a high melting point. Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan? 3 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 19 / 40 Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes? gasoline fuel oil naphtha kerosene /paraffin 20 / 40 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? fermentation respiration photosynthesis combustion of fossil fuels 21 / 40 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out? 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 22 / 40 Element X has 7 protons. Element Y has 8 more protons than X. Which statement about element Y is correct? Y has more electron shells than X. Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X. Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X. 23 / 40 Chlorine gas will react with iron metal. Exactly 21.3 g of chlorine reacts with 11.2 g of iron. How many iron atoms react with 30 molecules of chlorine? 20 30 15 10 24 / 40 How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH? 8 5 6 10 25 / 40 Some properties of element E are listed. It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E? bromine lithium iron aluminium 26 / 40 Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide They are brittle, with a low melting point, and are insoluble in water. They are soft, with a low melting point, and are electrical insulators. They are malleable, with a high melting point, and are electrical conductors. They are hard, with a high melting point, and are electrical insulators. 27 / 40 Which statement explains why lime is added to soil? to decrease the pH of alkaline soil to increase the pH of alkaline soil to increase the pH of acidic soil to decrease the pH of acidic soil 28 / 40 The properties of an element are listed. Its melting point is 3414 °C. Some of its compounds are catalysts. It has variable oxidation states. Where is the element found in the Periodic Table? alkali metals noble gases transition elements halogens 29 / 40 Magnesium is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. 25 cm3 of gas is given off in the first 30 s of the reaction. The experiment is repeated at a lower temperature. All other reaction conditions are the same. Which volume of gas is produced in the first 30 s of this reaction? 25 cm3 30 cm3 15 cm3 50 cm3 30 / 40 Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of the reaction? Particles have more energy so there are more frequent collisions. A greater proportion of the particles have the activation energy so there are more successful collisions. The particles move more quickly so there are more frequent collisions. There are more particles in the same volume so there are more frequent collisions. 31 / 40 Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide. 1 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 32 / 40 When the colourless gas N2O4 is heated, it forms the brown gas NO2. When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless. Which type of reaction is described by these observations? reversible displacement decomposition reduction 33 / 40 Which statements about acids and bases are correct? 1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen. 2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia. 3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide. 4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange. 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 34 / 40 What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1? It loses a proton. It gains an electron. It loses an electron. It gains a proton. 35 / 40 Which statements explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction? 1 It increases the collision rate of particles. 2 It lowers the activation energy. 3 A greater proportion of the colliding molecules have the required activation energy. 4 There are more particles per unit volume. 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 36 / 40 Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1 Ethanol is used as a solvent. 2 Ethanol can be made directly from ethane. 3 Ethanol is a covalent compound. 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 2 37 / 40 Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide? poly(ethene) Terylene protein nylon 38 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 4 39 / 40 Three statements about synthetic polymers are listed. 1 Man-made fibres are used for making clothing. 2 Plastics can cause pollution problems both on land and at sea. 3 Plastics which do not rot away are described as non-biodegradable. Which statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 40 / 40 Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L? hexene ethanoic acid ethanol hexane NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Selenium is an element in Group VI. Group VI elements follow similar trends to Group VII elements. Which statement about selenium is correct?
Which statement about ethene is correct?
Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide.
What is the main constituent of natural gas?
Which compounds belong to the same homologous series?
Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation
Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S. The results are shown. 1) Magnesium does not react with the solution. 2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution. 3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution. What is S?
Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron. Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting. Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting?
Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct?
Basic oxides are neutralised by acidic oxides. Which element forms an oxide that neutralises calcium oxide?
The equation for a reaction occurring in the Contact process is shown. 2SO2 + O2 →2SO3 What is the catalyst used in this reaction?
Which statement about the extraction of aluminium is correct?
An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct?
What is the total number of single covalent bonds in a molecule of ethanol?
Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct?
Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?
Some properties of copper are listed. 1 It conducts electricity. 2 It conducts heat. 3 It is ductile. 4 It has a high melting point. Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan?
Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes?
Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out?
Chlorine gas will react with iron metal. Exactly 21.3 g of chlorine reacts with 11.2 g of iron. How many iron atoms react with 30 molecules of chlorine?
How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?
Some properties of element E are listed.
It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E?
Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide
Which statement explains why lime is added to soil?
The properties of an element are listed. Its melting point is 3414 °C. Some of its compounds are catalysts. It has variable oxidation states. Where is the element found in the Periodic Table?
Magnesium is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. 25 cm3 of gas is given off in the first 30 s of the reaction. The experiment is repeated at a lower temperature. All other reaction conditions are the same. Which volume of gas is produced in the first 30 s of this reaction?
Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of the reaction?
Which statements about lime are correct? 1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone). 2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases. 3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil. 4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide.
When the colourless gas N2O4 is heated, it forms the brown gas NO2. When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless. Which type of reaction is described by these observations?
Which statements about acids and bases are correct? 1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen. 2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia. 3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide. 4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange.
What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1?
Which statements explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction? 1 It increases the collision rate of particles. 2 It lowers the activation energy. 3 A greater proportion of the colliding molecules have the required activation energy. 4 There are more particles per unit volume.
Which statements about ethanol are correct? 1 Ethanol is used as a solvent. 2 Ethanol can be made directly from ethane. 3 Ethanol is a covalent compound.
Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide?
Three statements about synthetic polymers are listed. 1 Man-made fibres are used for making clothing. 2 Plastics can cause pollution problems both on land and at sea. 3 Plastics which do not rot away are described as non-biodegradable. Which statements are correct?
Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job? Their wages are lower than those of adults The incentive to earn an income is lower for that age group. They lack both work experience and the necessary skills. They prefer leisure activities to long working hours. 2 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. Introduce a tax on all food. Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. 3 / 30 A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure? building more affordable homes to improve labour mobility raising pensions to help retired people pay their fuel bills controlling consumer spending to reduce inflation lowering interest rates to encourage purchase of expensive goods 4 / 30 What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40? an ageing population higher government tax revenue rising house prices a more mobile labour force 5 / 30 A D C B 6 / 30 A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do? discourage bank lending lower interest rates give subsidies to firms lower income tax thresholds 7 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting services developed, exporting manufactured goods developed, exporting services developing, exporting primary commodities 8 / 30 XZ XY WX WY 9 / 30 A B D C 10 / 30 Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue. There are 20 people able to buy the product. The product is one with many substitutes Producers are unable to respond to a price rise. 11 / 30 Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this? greater equality between the different groups in society less consumption of goods with external costs a wider variety of goods and services produced increased provision of public goods 12 / 30 There is unit elasticity. Price elasticity of supply is 0.4. Price elasticity of supply is 2.5 Supply is perfectly elastic. 13 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the income of the family the reliability of banks the level of taxation the rate of inflation 14 / 30 A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer? the reduced cost of producing renewable energy the profit made from selling the land the loss of revenue from crops that grow on the land the cost of installing wind turbines 15 / 30 The supply schedule will shift to the right. The market will move from surplus to shortage. The market will move from shortage to surplus. The demand schedule will shift to the left. 16 / 30 A government removed the quota on goods imported into the country. What is the most likely result of this? a decrease in exports a decrease in demand for domestic production a decrease in domestic unemployment a decrease in the balance of trade deficit 17 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 18 / 30 Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this? The production possibility of an economy expands. Incomes earned from trading decline. The average cost of production decreases. Incomes earned from trading decline. 19 / 30 Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero? quota subsidy embargo tariff 20 / 30 What is a likely cause of economic growth? decreased taxation decreased employment decreased investment decreased productivity 21 / 30 Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate? A rise in interest rates will raise the level of investment in a country. Interest rate changes have no impact on the level of production. A rise in interest rates may increase cost-push inflation A fall in interest rates will always increase inflation. 22 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? the budget deficit interest rates the money supply bank lending 23 / 30 Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm? greater mechanisation higher skill levels longer training times higher labour productivity 24 / 30 A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur? a reduction in the number of doctors per capita a reduction in imports an increase in incomes an increase in absolute poverty 25 / 30 What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy? a rise in the level of government spending a fall in wage rates a fall in import prices a rise in the level of unemployment 26 / 30 Why is the energy supply industry dominated by very large firms in many economies? High fixed capital costs exist. Non-price advertising increases competition. Labour-intensive production techniques are used. Government controls prevent the exploitation of consumers. 27 / 30 What is included in microeconomics? the effects of a change in exchange rates on the trade balance of an economy the effects of an increase in the price of a good or service the factors leading to demand-pull inflation the calculation of national income and expenditure 28 / 30 Poverty in households may be defined in relative terms. What indicates relative poverty? income level required to meet basic needs living on less than $2 a day lack of access to clean water falling below society’s expected standard of living 29 / 30 What is an advantage of a market economy? Equilibrium market price clears the market. The lowest price possible is always charged. The government has no need to intervene in markets. Producers and consumers have the same aims. 30 / 30 Opportunity cost changes International free trade exists. Resources are unlimited in supply. Some resources will be unemployed. 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Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group. Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job?
2 / 30
One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim?
3 / 30
A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure?
4 / 30
What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40?
5 / 30
6 / 30
A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do?
7 / 30
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
8 / 30
9 / 30
10 / 30
11 / 30
Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this?
12 / 30
13 / 30
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
14 / 30
A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?
15 / 30
16 / 30
A government removed the quota on goods imported into the country. What is the most likely result of this?
17 / 30
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
18 / 30
Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this?
19 / 30
Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero?
20 / 30
What is a likely cause of economic growth?
21 / 30
Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate?
22 / 30
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
23 / 30
Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm?
24 / 30
A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur?
25 / 30
What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy?
26 / 30
Why is the energy supply industry dominated by very large firms in many economies?
27 / 30
What is included in microeconomics?
28 / 30
Poverty in households may be defined in relative terms. What indicates relative poverty?
29 / 30
What is an advantage of a market economy?
30 / 30
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is a cause of demand-pull inflation? a surplus of skilled labour higher tax rates lower net exports higher government expenditure 2 / 30 Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases? average total cost total variable cost average fixed cost average variable cost 3 / 30 What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments? a fall in foreign direct investment into the country a fall in interest earned on overseas investment by the country a rise in the revenue earned from tourism in the country a fall in the value of imported manufactured goods into the country 4 / 30 D A B C 5 / 30 China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa. Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line. Who bears the external costs of this operation? Kenya who must repay the cost to China passengers who pay the higher fare farmers who have lost agricultural land China who built the new railway 6 / 30 What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday? the rubbish created during the holiday which affects the local community the potential interest earned if the holiday money had been saved the price paid for an air ticket to the holiday destination the satisfaction that the consumer gains from the holiday 7 / 30 Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy? hyperinflation income taxes investment interest rates 8 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? wages of golf course staff sales of golf equipment loss of farmland cost of water 9 / 30 A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement? Decreased transport costs led to a surplus of supply. Farmers matched demand by planting more coffee bushes. A sequence of poor harvests resulted in shortages. The price of coffee was fixed between producers. 10 / 30 A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur? a reduction in the number of doctors per capita a reduction in imports an increase in absolute poverty an increase in incomes 11 / 30 D A B C 12 / 30 A D B C 13 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? the budget deficit bank lending the money supply interest rates 14 / 30 A government uses different supply-side policy measures to improve economic performance. Which policy measure would not satisfy one of the government’s macroeconomic aims? changing the tax system which leads to more tax evasion privatising state industries which increases economic growth encouraging foreign investment which improves the balance of payments retraining redundant workers which lowers unemployment 15 / 30 Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero? tariff embargo subsidy quota 16 / 30 An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary? Consumers only used credit cards rather than paper money. Commercial banks restricted their lending. The central bank controlled the issue of money too tightly. Its own dollar no longer acted as a store of value. 17 / 30 C A D B 18 / 30 What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product? profit total cost average revenue total revenue 19 / 30 Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments? money paid by migrant workers in the US to their families overseas money paid by foreign firms for US cars money paid by chemical producers in the US for foreign oil money paid by US tourists visiting attractions in other countries 20 / 30 C D A B 21 / 30 Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics? the relationship between the wage rate of workers and demand for labour in an occupation the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate the relationship between the output of a firm and its costs of production the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity demanded by a consumer 22 / 30 In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government. Which argument for protectionism was the EU using? the infant industry argument the strategic industry argument the anti-dumping argument the sunset industry argument 23 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? barriers to entry elastic demand for the product high number of substitutes for the product diseconomies of scale 24 / 30 2012–2013 2015–2016 2013–2014 2014–2015 25 / 30 B A D C 26 / 30 What is an example of an external benefit from an individual cycling, rather than driving, to work? reduced congestion for other road users higher cost of building cycle lanes lower cost of cycling compared with driving to work improved physical fitness to the individual from cycling 27 / 30 To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem? There are external costs involved in production. Oil is expensive. Oil is a limited resource. The exploration involves demand and supply. 28 / 30 In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation? Girls have fewer opportunities to complete higher education. It costs more for girls to be trained as design engineers. Girls are only interested in low-wage jobs Girls do not favour heavy manual work. 29 / 30 The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called? depreciation devaluation revaluation appreciation 30 / 30 What may result from a balance of payments trade surplus? The exchange rate depreciates and causes export prices to fall The exchange rate appreciates and causes export prices to fall The exchange rate appreciates and causes export prices to rise. The exchange rate depreciates and causes export prices to rise NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?
Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases?
What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments?
China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa. Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line. Who bears the external costs of this operation?
What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday?
Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy?
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement?
A government uses different supply-side policy measures to improve economic performance. Which policy measure would not satisfy one of the government’s macroeconomic aims?
An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary?
What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product?
Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments?
Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics?
In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government. Which argument for protectionism was the EU using?
What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market?
What is an example of an external benefit from an individual cycling, rather than driving, to work?
To help reduce the price of oil, new supplies are needed. However, objectors oppose exploration of new sites because of the environmental damage it may cause. Why is this statement an example of the basic economic problem?
In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation?
The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called?
What may result from a balance of payments trade surplus?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 D C A B 2 / 40 D C A B 3 / 40 The mass of an empty flask is 34 g. The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3. The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g. What is the density of the liquid? 1.25 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 2.50 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.80 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 4.20 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 4 / 40 A D B C 5 / 40 When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this? The comb and the foil have charges of the same sign. The comb is charged and the foil is uncharged. The comb is uncharged and the foil is charged. The comb and the foil have charges of opposite sign. 6 / 40 B D A C 7 / 40 1.5 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.60 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.67 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.7 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 8 / 40 A B C D 9 / 40 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 10 / 40 C D B A 11 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of protons only. They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of electrons. 12 / 40 The acceleration is in the direction of arrow X. The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Z The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Y. The object is not accelerating. 13 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on The current in each lamp is different. 14 / 40 B D C A 15 / 40 It increases as the ball falls. It stays the same as the ball falls. It depends on the mass of the ball. It depends on the density of the ball. 16 / 40 C B D A 17 / 40 D B A C 18 / 40 Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)? W/C J /C A/Ω J / s 19 / 40 relay coil thermistor light-dependent resistor variable resistor 20 / 40 C B D A 21 / 40 B A D C 22 / 40 A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom? spread throughout the atom in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles in the nucleus on the orbiting particles 23 / 40 D A B C 24 / 40 C D A B 25 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 300 m 18 000 m 0.20 m 5.0 m 26 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. 27 / 40 The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly. The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly. The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller. The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more frequently. 28 / 40 Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z. Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z. 29 / 40 Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 30 / 40 B A C D 31 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? infrared waves radio waves ultraviolet waves visible light 32 / 40 A B D C 33 / 40 A D B C 34 / 40 α-radiation, β-radiation and γ-radiation γ-radiation only β-radiation only α-radiation only 35 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. 36 / 40 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force? 40 J 20 J 10 J 30 J 37 / 40 B A D C 38 / 40 A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described? a gas being heated a gas cooling a solid cooling a liquid being heated 39 / 40 It is larger and inverted. It is larger and the same way up. It is smaller and the same way up. It is smaller and inverted. 40 / 40 A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat? 1.0 m / s2 500 m / s2 5.0 m / s2 100 m / s2 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
The mass of an empty flask is 34 g. The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3. The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g. What is the density of the liquid?
When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this?
A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct?
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)?
A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement?
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force?
A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described?
A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 D C A B 2 / 40 Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 3 / 40 Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only 1 only 4 / 40 The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens The image is bigger than the object The image is closer to the lens than the object. The image is inverted. 5 / 40 It is smaller and inverted. It is larger and the same way up. It is larger and inverted. It is smaller and the same way up. 6 / 40 300 J 30 J 750 J 1200 J 7 / 40 One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod? Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end. Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end. Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end. 8 / 40 Both X and Y are repelled by the coil. X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled. Both X and Y are attracted to the coil. X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted. 9 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. The current in each lamp is different. 10 / 40 B D C A 11 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number 12 / 40 B A D C 13 / 40 D B C A 14 / 40 A D C B 15 / 40 A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor? 720 s 20 s 180 s 0.05 s 16 / 40 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours. A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second. Background radiation can be ignored. What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later? 2000 counts per second 3000 counts per second 1500 counts per second 750 counts per second 17 / 40 1 N to the left 7 N to the right 7 N to the left 1 N to the right 18 / 40 A B D C 19 / 40 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 20 / 40 A D B C 21 / 40 water molecules being hit by pollen grains water molecules being hit by other water molecules pollen grains being hit by water molecules pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains 22 / 40 Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank? 4000 N/ m2 400 N/ m2 2.5 × 10-4N/ m2 2.5 × 10-3N/ m2 23 / 40 In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer? air only water only air, water and wood air and water only 24 / 40 ZY XY XZ WY 25 / 40 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train? 5.0 m / s 60 m / s 3.0 m / s 50 m / s 26 / 40 m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3 m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3. m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 27 / 40 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays? Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. 28 / 40 B A D C 29 / 40 B D A C 30 / 40 A B C D 31 / 40 4Ω more than 8Ω less than 4Ω 8Ω 32 / 40 A D B C 33 / 40 A B D C 34 / 40 C D B A 35 / 40 A B C D 36 / 40 D C A B 37 / 40 A C D B 38 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 18 000 m 5.0 m 0.20 m 300 m 39 / 40 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations? nuclear energy hydroelectric energy energy from tides energy from waves 40 / 40 A book has a mass of 400 g. The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m 0.20 m. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book? 200 N/ m2 20 N/ m2 0.08 N/ m2 8.0 N/ m2 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct?
One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor?
A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours. A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second. Background radiation can be ignored. What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?
Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?
In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?
A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train?
Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?
Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?
A book has a mass of 400 g. The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m 0.20 m. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about ethene is not correct? It decolourises aqueous bromine. It is used to make an addition polymer. It is a saturated hydrocarbon It is formed by cracking larger alkanes. 2 / 40 Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct? They react with water to form oxygen. They are hard solids. They become more reactive down the group. They change from metallic to non-metallic down the group. 3 / 40 Refinery gas contains methane. Which statement about methane is correct? Its boiling point is low because it has weak forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is high because it has weak forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is low because it has strong forces of attraction between molecules Its boiling point is high because it has strong forces of attraction between molecules. 4 / 40 A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water? evaporation radiation convection conduction 5 / 40 C D A B 6 / 40 A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes. How much useful power does the motor produce? 1000W 60 000W 240 000W 9000W 7 / 40 kestrels and stoats spiders and stoats foxes and lizards carnivorous insects and voles 8 / 40 Which statements describe an endothermic reaction? 1 Energy is given out. 2 Energy is taken in. 3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases. 4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases. 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 9 / 40 Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood? calcium and vitamin D calcium and iron carbohydrate and iron carbohydrate and vitamin D 10 / 40 Which petroleum fraction is used to make road surfaces? diesel oil naphtha gasoline bitumen 11 / 40 A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase? lifting one foot off the ground lying flat on the ground wearing skis to stand on the ground removing the load 12 / 40 Which word is used to describe a reaction that takes in heat energy from the surroundings? exothermic reduction endothermic oxidation 13 / 40 A D B C 14 / 40 Some examples of how parts of a plant grow are listed. 1 grow away from gravity 2 grow away from the direction of light 3 grow towards gravity 4 grow towards the direction of light Which growth responses are due to gravitropism? 3 only 1 only 1 and 3 1, 2 and 4 15 / 40 D C B A 16 / 40 D C B A 17 / 40 In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers? increased carbon dioxide availability increased oxygen availability increased decomposition increased nitrate ion availability 18 / 40 B C A D 19 / 40 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct? Sulfur dioxide is produced at the cathode. Both hydrogen and oxygen are produced at the negative electrode Hydrogen is produced at the anode. Oxygen is produced at the positive electrode. 20 / 40 Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station? It is the only power station that uses a renewable form of energy. It is the only power station that uses steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that does not use steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that does not use a renewable form of energy. 21 / 40 What is not needed for electrolysis? an electrolyte a bulb a power supply electrodes 22 / 40 What is the function of the cell membrane? to control which substances move in and out of the cell to hold the chlorophyll of the cell to hold the DNA of the cell to store nutrients or waste products 23 / 40 D B C A 24 / 40 Which process takes carbon dioxide out of the air? decomposition combustion plant respiration photosynthesis 25 / 40 Which process produces alkenes? fractional distillation cracking polymerisation reduction 26 / 40 Which ingredient of a cake contains the most protein per gram? flour oil egg sugar 27 / 40 A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced? hydrogen chloride carbon dioxide chlorine ammonia 28 / 40 Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue? along the surface of the glass in the opposite direction to its original direction into the glass in its original direction into the glass in a new direction 29 / 40 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 30 / 40 Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right? They change from non-metals to metals. They change from gases to solids. They change from metals to non-metals. They change from elements to compounds. 31 / 40 Which statement describes the correct order in which two reactions in a blast furnace occur? Carbon monoxide is reduced, then carbon is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is oxidised, then carbon dioxide is reduced. Carbon dioxide is reduced, then carbon monoxide is oxidised. Iron oxide is reduced, then carbon is oxidised. 32 / 40 Which substances conduct electricity when molten? sodium chloride naphtha brass 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 33 / 40 0.25Ω 0.33Ω 4.0Ω 3.0Ω 34 / 40 D B C A 35 / 40 A D B C 36 / 40 During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina? urethra → testes → sperm ducts → vagina testes → urethra → sperm ducts → vagina sperm ducts → testes → urethra → vagina testes → sperm ducts → urethra → vagina 37 / 40 B D C A 38 / 40 D B A C 39 / 40 Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace. Coke and hematite are added at the top of the blast furnace, and hot air enters at the bottom. Which statements are correct? Coke burns to produce high temperatures. Carbon monoxide is formed by the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide Hematite contains iron(III) oxide which is oxidised by carbon monoxide. The oxygen needed for the combustion of the coke comes from the hematite 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 40 / 40 Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct? Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas. The only source of carbon dioxide in the air is from motor vehicles. Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide enhance the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide makes up approximately 4% of clean air. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Which statement about ethene is not correct?
Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct?
Refinery gas contains methane. Which statement about methane is correct?
A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water?
A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes. How much useful power does the motor produce?
Which statements describe an endothermic reaction? 1 Energy is given out. 2 Energy is taken in. 3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases. 4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases.
Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood?
Which petroleum fraction is used to make road surfaces?
A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase?
Which word is used to describe a reaction that takes in heat energy from the surroundings?
Some examples of how parts of a plant grow are listed. 1 grow away from gravity 2 grow away from the direction of light 3 grow towards gravity 4 grow towards the direction of light Which growth responses are due to gravitropism?
In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers?
Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct?
Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station?
What is not needed for electrolysis?
What is the function of the cell membrane?
Which process takes carbon dioxide out of the air?
Which process produces alkenes?
Which ingredient of a cake contains the most protein per gram?
A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced?
Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue?
Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right?
Which statement describes the correct order in which two reactions in a blast furnace occur?
Which substances conduct electricity when molten?
During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?
Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace. Coke and hematite are added at the top of the blast furnace, and hot air enters at the bottom. Which statements are correct?
Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct?
