0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a year. Mark-up was 20%. What was the revenue for the year? $200 000 $160 000 $250 000 $240 000 2 / 35 Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business? to calculate the interest payable on a loan to calculate the provision for doubtful debts to know whether drawings are at a reasonable level to know the total expenses of the business 3 / 35 $2200 $6000 $7500 $1000 4 / 35 $10 500 $800 $1000 $10 300 5 / 35 The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs? 2 and 3 3 and 4 1, 2 and 5 1, 4 and 5 6 / 35 Which statement is correct? Book-keeping involves communicating financial data. Book-keeping requires the use of ratio analysis. Accounting involves measuring profits and losses. Accounting is the recording of financial transactions. 7 / 35 Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action where necessary? investors managers suppliers government 8 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the cost of building an office extension the purchase of a new computer for resale the annual depreciation on office premises the cost of repairing office equipment 9 / 35 $17 000 $15 000 $29 500 $7000 10 / 35 There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account? $7800 $6960 $6600 $7200 11 / 35 C D B A 12 / 35 Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen? $19.20 $15.36 $20.00 $16.00 13 / 35 Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying. 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 14 / 35 Hassin found that he needed help to run his business. He decided to take a partner rather than employ an assistant. Why did he decide to take a partner? 1 An assistant would not interfere with how the shop was run. 2 An assistant would not share risk. 3 A partner would introduce some additional capital. 4 A partner would take a share of the profit. 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 15 / 35 Which statement is correct? The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts 16 / 35 B A C D 17 / 35 $315 $290 $25 $265 18 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to encourage bulk buying to encourage payment in cash to avoid irrecoverable debts to reward prompt payment 19 / 35 A standing order paid for rent has not been entered into the accounting records of a business. Which statement is correct? Because the payment was made automatically, no additional entries are required in the accounting records. Entries are required in the cash book and in the bank reconciliation statement. Because the payment was made automatically, only an entry in the rent account is required Entries are required in the cash book and in the nominal (general) ledger. 20 / 35 On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December? $504 understated $336 overstated $420 overstated $84 understated 21 / 35 Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice? $3400 $3880 $3298 $4000 22 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? increase $11 600 decrease $800 increase $800 decrease $11 600 23 / 35 What is called-up share capital? the amount requested from shareholders by the company the value of shares the company could issue the amount received by the company for issued shares the value of shares actually issued by the company 24 / 35 increase by $6000 decrease by $6000 decrease by $2000 increase by $2000 25 / 35 What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business? return on capital employed current ratio working capital liquid (acid test) ratio 26 / 35 A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account? $6000 $12 000 $8000 $14 000 27 / 35 $10 934 $10 666 $10 754 $10 514 28 / 35 Which statement is not true about a trial balance? It is useful in preparing financial statements. It can assist in finding arithmetical errors. It is a list of ledger account balances at a certain date. It is part of the double entry system. 29 / 35 Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger? to provide an instant total of trade receivables to deter fraud to speed production of financial statements to locate errors 30 / 35 Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business? to ensure that funds are sufficient to cover loan interest to check that the correct amount of tax is being paid to ensure that employees are being paid the correct hourly rate to calculate and assess the trade payables turnover 31 / 35 Which formulas may be used for the accounting equation? 1 assets = owner’s equity minus liabilities 2 liabilities = assets minus owner’s equity 3 owner’s equity = assets plus liabilities 4 owner’s equity plus liabilities = assets 3 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 32 / 35 Why is a trial balance prepared? to assist preparation of financial statements to control the costs of the business to analyse the financial information to evaluate the performance of the business 33 / 35 D A B C 34 / 35 How does a manufacturer calculate prime cost? direct material + direct labour direct material + direct labour + direct expenses + factory overheads direct material + direct labour + factory overheads direct material + direct labour + direct expenses 35 / 35 Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction? general journal sales journal purchases journal cash book NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a year. Mark-up was 20%. What was the revenue for the year?
2 / 35
Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business?
3 / 35
4 / 35
5 / 35
The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs?
6 / 35
Which statement is correct?
7 / 35
Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action where necessary?
8 / 35
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
9 / 35
10 / 35
There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account?
11 / 35
12 / 35
Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen?
13 / 35
Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.
14 / 35
Hassin found that he needed help to run his business. He decided to take a partner rather than employ an assistant. Why did he decide to take a partner? 1 An assistant would not interfere with how the shop was run. 2 An assistant would not share risk. 3 A partner would introduce some additional capital. 4 A partner would take a share of the profit.
15 / 35
16 / 35
17 / 35
18 / 35
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
19 / 35
A standing order paid for rent has not been entered into the accounting records of a business. Which statement is correct?
20 / 35
On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December?
21 / 35
Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice?
22 / 35
The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?
23 / 35
What is called-up share capital?
24 / 35
25 / 35
What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?
26 / 35
A sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $10 000. It was found that a $2000 contra entry to the purchases ledger control account had been entered on the wrong side of the sales ledger control account. What was the correct debit balance on the sales ledger control account?
27 / 35
28 / 35
Which statement is not true about a trial balance?
29 / 35
Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger?
30 / 35
Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business?
31 / 35
Which formulas may be used for the accounting equation? 1 assets = owner’s equity minus liabilities 2 liabilities = assets minus owner’s equity 3 owner’s equity = assets plus liabilities 4 owner’s equity plus liabilities = assets
32 / 35
Why is a trial balance prepared?
33 / 35
34 / 35
How does a manufacturer calculate prime cost?
35 / 35
Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct? A lower amount of depreciation is charged in the early years of the asset’s life than in the later years. The net book value of the non-current asset will never reach a nil value. Each year a given percentage is deducted from the cost of the asset less the depreciation to date. It is used for assets which give greater benefits in the early years of their life 2 / 35 B A D C 3 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to avoid irrecoverable debts to reward prompt payment to encourage payment in cash to encourage bulk buying 4 / 35 Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book? $2800 credit $2400 credit $2400 debit $2800 debit 5 / 35 A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance? $13 100 $3700 $11 700 $5100 6 / 35 Jake had current liabilities of trade payables and had current assets of inventory, trade receivables and cash at bank. Which measure would improve his current ratio? decreasing drawings revaluing non-current assets buying additional inventory and paying in cash selling inventory on credit rather than for cash 7 / 35 B C A D 8 / 35 C B A D 9 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $2400 $1200 $2500 $1100 10 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance 11 / 35 D A B C 12 / 35 The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs? 1, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 5 3 and 4 2 and 3 13 / 35 $145 000 $155 000 $137 000 $175 000 14 / 35 $5500 $14 500 $10 000 $13 000 15 / 35 A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements. What is the effect of this on the interested parties? They can identify similarities with the financial statements of other businesses. They can understand the financial statements easily. They can use the financial statements in decision-making They can be sure that information in the financial statements is up to date. 16 / 35 Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year? fees received – cost of sales + expenses fees received – expenses fees received – cost of sales fees received + expenses 17 / 35 partnership salaries interest on capital limit on annual drawings interest on drawings 18 / 35 ‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer? matching realisation money measurement going concern 19 / 35 25% 15% 10% 40% 20 / 35 $18 500 $18 250 $16 500 $20 500 21 / 35 What is included in a purchases ledger control account? cash purchases discount allowed goods returned to credit suppliers debts written off as irrecoverable 22 / 35 Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods? general ledger only purchases ledger only general ledger and purchases ledger cash book and sales ledger 23 / 35 Which item would not be shown on a bank statement? a monthly payment made for electricity by direct debit unpresented cheques bank charges a cheque returned by the bank marked as ‘refer to drawer’ 24 / 35 $32 445 $31 195 $32 095 $31 545 25 / 35 Kamika’s financial statements did not comply with the accounting principle of money measurement. What had Kamika done? forgot to include prepaid insurance included a value for the skill of her employees recorded her drawings in wages and salaries valued her inventory above original cost 26 / 35 Charlie is a car dealer. Joe wanted a new car and went to Charlie’s car showroom. On Monday Joe took a car for a test drive and decided to buy it. On Tuesday Joe arranged to pay for the car by cheque. On Wednesday Joe collected the car and received an invoice. On Thursday Joe’s cheque was cleared by the bank. On which day was Charlie able to account for the profit on the sale? Thursday Tuesday Wednesday Monday 27 / 35 X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year? $15 000 $7000 $18 000 $10 000 28 / 35 Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets? to ensure that non-current assets appear at book value in the statement of financial position to ensure that the matching principle is applied when preparing financial statements to retain cash in the business for replacement of non-current assets to charge the cost of non-current assets against profit in the year of purchase 29 / 35 What would be recorded on the credit side of a sales ledger control account? sales returns interest charged on overdue accounts credit sales cash refunded to credit customers 30 / 35 The cash book balance was $190 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 higher than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $190 higher than the bank statement balance. 31 / 35 B D A C 32 / 35 C D A B 33 / 35 D C B A 34 / 35 What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business? wages of factory supervisors raw material royalties wages of factory supervisors 35 / 35 Carl, a trader, took goods from the business for his own use. These goods had cost $100, and $8 carriage had been paid for them to be delivered to the business. How would this be recorded in Carl’s accounts in the books of the business? debit Carl’s capital account $108 debit Carl’s drawings account $100 debit Carl’s capital account $100 debit Carl’s drawings account $108 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct?
Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book?
A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance?
Jake had current liabilities of trade payables and had current assets of inventory, trade receivables and cash at bank. Which measure would improve his current ratio?
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements.
What is the effect of this on the interested parties?
Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year?
‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer?
What is included in a purchases ledger control account?
Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods?
Which item would not be shown on a bank statement?
Kamika’s financial statements did not comply with the accounting principle of money measurement. What had Kamika done?
Charlie is a car dealer. Joe wanted a new car and went to Charlie’s car showroom. On Monday Joe took a car for a test drive and decided to buy it. On Tuesday Joe arranged to pay for the car by cheque. On Wednesday Joe collected the car and received an invoice. On Thursday Joe’s cheque was cleared by the bank. On which day was Charlie able to account for the profit on the sale?
X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year?
Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets?
What would be recorded on the credit side of a sales ledger control account?
What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business?
Carl, a trader, took goods from the business for his own use. These goods had cost $100, and $8 carriage had been paid for them to be delivered to the business. How would this be recorded in Carl’s accounts in the books of the business?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 urethra prostate gland bladder sperm duct 2 / 40 insect arachnid myriapod crustacean 3 / 40 Desert plants have evolved to survive in places where very little water is available. Which process is reduced to enable them to retain as much water as possible? digestion respiration transpiration translocation 4 / 40 A student’s eyes blinked as a ball flew past their head. This is a reflex action. Which row describes the reaction shown by the student? a fast reaction involving the nervous system a slow reaction involving the nervous system a fast reaction involving the endocrine system a slow reaction involving the endocrine system 5 / 40 Which structure in the male reproductive system makes the fluid for sperm to swim in? scrotum penis testis prostate gland 6 / 40 Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct? It has less oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and less carbon dioxide. 7 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants? All of the crop plants have the same risk of disease. Desirable qualities are shown throughout the crop. Only one parent plant is required so growth is rapid. No pollinators are required. 8 / 40 By which process do oxygen and carbon dioxide move between cells and capillaries? respiration diffusion excretion breathing 9 / 40 With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code? animal, plant, fungus and protoctist animal only animal and plant only animal, plant and fungus only 10 / 40 What is the principal source of energy input into food chains? sunlight glucose heat soil 11 / 40 Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes? thick cuticle present on the upper and lower surfaces stomata present on the lower surface only hairs present on the upper and lower surfaces contain large air spaces 12 / 40 Which statement about selective breeding is correct? It involves parents that possess desirable features. It does not involve humans. It always involves only one parent It involves a struggle for survival. 13 / 40 What is a barrier method of birth control? contraceptive pill diaphragm contraceptive implant vasectomy 14 / 40 How does blood enter the heart? through arteries into the ventricles through veins into the atria through veins into the ventricles through arteries into the atria 15 / 40 Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes? stomata present on the lower surface only thick cuticle present on the upper and lower surfaces contain large air spaces hairs present on the upper and lower surfaces 16 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? constipation scurvy obesity starvation 17 / 40 protein mRNA DNA amino acids 18 / 40 Which definition of mitosis is correct? nuclear division giving rise to genetically different cells nuclear division giving rise to genetically identical cells fusion of nuclei giving rise to a genetically identical cell fusion of nuclei giving rise to a genetically different cell 19 / 40 A D B C 20 / 40 What kind of molecule is an enzyme? starch fat protein glucose 21 / 40 What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast? lactic acid + oxygen lactic acid + carbon dioxide alcohol + carbon dioxide alcohol + oxygen 22 / 40 What is a function of the lymphatic system? blood clotting circulation of body fluids temperature regulation absorption of glucose 23 / 40 X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring. Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring 24 / 40 starch and fat protein and starch protein and sugar starch and sugar 25 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x200 x18 x1.8 x2000 26 / 40 myriapods insects arachnids crustaceans 27 / 40 What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation? tissue → cell → organ → organ system cell → tissue → organ → organ system cell → organ → tissue → organ system organ → tissue → cell → organ system 28 / 40 In which process is oxygen a waste product? anaerobic respiration photosynthesis active transport aerobic respiration 29 / 40 In humans, where does most of the absorption of digested food take place? small intestine kidney liver colon 30 / 40 What is a use of pectinase in the food industry? to extract juice from fruit to make biofuels to make biological washing powders to make bread rise 31 / 40 nutrition growth respiration sensitivity 32 / 40 Some reptiles can lose and regrow their tails to avoid predation. Which process occurs to regrow the tail? mitosis fertilisation digestion meiosis 33 / 40 cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus chloroplast, cytoplasm, nucleus cell membrane, chloroplast, nucleus cell membrane, cytoplasm, large permanent vacuole 34 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 35 / 40 Which description of assimilation is correct? the movement of soluble molecules into the blood the passing out of food that has not been digested or absorbed, as faeces, through the anus the movement of digested food molecules into the cells of the body where they are used and become part of the cells the taking of food and drink into the body through the mouth 36 / 40 The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier? mucus skin white blood cells hairs in the nose 37 / 40 D A C B 38 / 40 Which hormone causes the lining of the uterus to become thick and glandular before ovulation? FSH adrenaline progesterone oestrogen 39 / 40 Which statement about the regulation of human body temperature is correct? Vasodilation of skin arterioles occurs when the body temperature is too low. Vasoconstriction of skin capillaries occurs when the body temperature is too high Vasoconstriction of skin arterioles occurs when the body temperature is too low. Vasodilation of skin capillaries occurs when the body temperature is too low. 40 / 40 A C B D NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
3 / 40
Desert plants have evolved to survive in places where very little water is available. Which process is reduced to enable them to retain as much water as possible?
4 / 40
A student’s eyes blinked as a ball flew past their head. This is a reflex action. Which row describes the reaction shown by the student?
5 / 40
Which structure in the male reproductive system makes the fluid for sperm to swim in?
6 / 40
Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct?
7 / 40
Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants?
8 / 40
By which process do oxygen and carbon dioxide move between cells and capillaries?
9 / 40
With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code?
10 / 40
What is the principal source of energy input into food chains?
11 / 40
Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?
12 / 40
Which statement about selective breeding is correct?
13 / 40
What is a barrier method of birth control?
14 / 40
How does blood enter the heart?
15 / 40
16 / 40
Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?
17 / 40
18 / 40
Which definition of mitosis is correct?
19 / 40
20 / 40
What kind of molecule is an enzyme?
21 / 40
What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?
22 / 40
What is a function of the lymphatic system?
23 / 40
24 / 40
25 / 40
A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram?
26 / 40
27 / 40
What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation?
28 / 40
In which process is oxygen a waste product?
29 / 40
In humans, where does most of the absorption of digested food take place?
30 / 40
What is a use of pectinase in the food industry?
31 / 40
32 / 40
Some reptiles can lose and regrow their tails to avoid predation. Which process occurs to regrow the tail?
33 / 40
34 / 40
Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?
35 / 40
Which description of assimilation is correct?
36 / 40
The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier?
37 / 40
38 / 40
Which hormone causes the lining of the uterus to become thick and glandular before ovulation?
39 / 40
Which statement about the regulation of human body temperature is correct?
40 / 40
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct? The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and more blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasoconstrict and less blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and less blood flows to the skin surface. The arterioles supplying capillaries in the skin vasodilate and more blood flows to the skin surface. 2 / 40 Which list contains only arthropods? crustaceans, insects, fish insects, myriapods, reptiles arachnids, crustaceans, myriapods amphibians, insects, myriapods 3 / 40 A C B D 4 / 40 Some functions of blood are listed. 1 antibody production 2 blood clotting 3 oxygen transport 4 phagocytosis What are functions of white blood cells? 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 5 / 40 Which statement about reproduction is correct? Only organisms that are separated from other organisms of the same species can reproduce asexually. Some organisms reproduce asexually and sexually Gametes are needed for asexual reproduction. All living species can reproduce asexually. 6 / 40 C A D B 7 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 8 / 40 The water drop will move away from the woodlice because respiration uses carbon dioxide. The water drop will move towards the woodlice because respiration uses oxygen. The water drop will move towards the woodlice because respiration uses carbon dioxide. The water drop will move away from the woodlice because respiration uses oxygen. 9 / 40 Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container? glucose → lactic acid glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide 10 / 40 Which statement about meiosis is correct? It allows the formation of new combinations of chromosomes. The chromosome number changes from haploid to diploid. It is used to produce body cells. Daughter cells are genetically identical. 11 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 12 / 40 Which type of energy is passed from organism to organism in a food chain? kinetic light heat chemical 13 / 40 What is part of the definition of transpiration? the transport of mineral ions from the roots into the stem and leaves the movement of molecules into the cells of the organism where they are used the loss of water vapour from plant leaves by evaporation of water at the surfaces of the mesophyll cells the movement of particles through a cell membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration 14 / 40 Colour blindness is a characteristic that is sex-linked. Which statement about colour blindness is correct? The gene for colour blindness is located on the X chromosome and colour blindness is more common in males than in females. The gene for colour blindness is located on the Y chromosome and colour blindness is more common in males than in females. The gene for colour blindness is located on the X chromosome and colour blindness is more common in females than in males. The gene for colour blindness is located on the Y chromosome and colour blindness is more common in females than in males. 15 / 40 Which type of cell transports oxygen? red blood ciliated palisade mesophyll nerve 16 / 40 kelp the Sun green sea urchins the sea 17 / 40 What determines the sex of a baby? the mother’s XY chromosomes the mother’s XX chromosomes the father’s XX chromosomes the father’s XY chromosomes 18 / 40 Which characteristic of living organisms is the taking in of materials for energy, growth and development? respiration nutrition reproduction excretion 19 / 40 Which sequence describes the pathway taken by water as it moves through a plant? root hair cell → xylem → root cortex cell → mesophyll root hair cell → root cortex cell → xylem → mesophyll mesophyll → xylem → root cortex cell → root hair cell root cortex cell →root hair cell → xylem → mesophyll 20 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? starvation obesity constipation scurvy 21 / 40 Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy? placenta uterus pancreas ovaries 22 / 40 C B A D 23 / 40 Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum? egestion mechanical digestion chemical digestion ingestion 24 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. The disorder is sex-linked. 25 / 40 Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins. Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins? cell wall plasmid rough endoplasmic reticulum nucleus 26 / 40 What is the correct definition of an enzyme? a protein that functions as a biological catalyst a substance made of fats that changes the rate of a reaction a carbohydrate that functions as a biological catalyst a substance that is changed by the reaction 27 / 40 The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool. seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases? There will be fewer seagulls. fewer whelks. less seaweed. fewer crabs. 28 / 40 Which cells produce mucus? nerve cells white blood cells ciliated cells goblet cells 29 / 40 What is an example of sustainable use of resources? cutting down a forest and not replanting trees planting deforested areas with one species of crop plant controlling the number of fish caught with quotas allowing only young fish to be caught 30 / 40 Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring. X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring 31 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? new blood vessel growth implantation of embryo repair and thickening breaks down 32 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus with one double helix of DNA a nucleus with two genes a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes 33 / 40 Which disease is caused by a pathogen? scurvy lung cancer coronary heart disease cholera 34 / 40 2 The list shows features of a plant leaf. 1) air spaces between spongy mesophyll cells 2) chloroplasts in mesophyll cells 3) contains a natural insecticide 4) xylem vessels close to mesophyll cells Which features are adaptations for photosynthesis? 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 35 / 40 Which part of the eye focuses light on the retina? lens iris pupil cornea 36 / 40 Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower? stigma → style → ovary → ovule stigma → ovary → style → ovule ovary → ovule → stigma → style ovary → stigma → ovule → style 37 / 40 2 m 8 m 6 m 9 m 38 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. 39 / 40 What is a use of pectinase in the food industry? to make biological washing powders to make bread rise to extract juice from fruit to make biofuels 40 / 40 D B C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
A person’s skin looks more red in a warm environment than it does in a cool environment. Which explanation is correct?
Which list contains only arthropods?
Some functions of blood are listed.
1 antibody production 2 blood clotting 3 oxygen transport 4 phagocytosis What are functions of white blood cells?
Which statement about reproduction is correct?
Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?
Which statement about meiosis is correct?
Which type of energy is passed from organism to organism in a food chain?
What is part of the definition of transpiration?
Colour blindness is a characteristic that is sex-linked. Which statement about colour blindness is correct?
Which type of cell transports oxygen?
What determines the sex of a baby?
Which characteristic of living organisms is the taking in of materials for energy, growth and development?
Which sequence describes the pathway taken by water as it moves through a plant?
Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy?
Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins. Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins?
What is the correct definition of an enzyme?
The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool. seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases? There will be
Which cells produce mucus?
What is an example of sustainable use of resources?
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
What is a diploid nucleus?
Which disease is caused by a pathogen?
2 The list shows features of a plant leaf. 1) air spaces between spongy mesophyll cells 2) chloroplasts in mesophyll cells 3) contains a natural insecticide 4) xylem vessels close to mesophyll cells Which features are adaptations for photosynthesis?
Which part of the eye focuses light on the retina?
Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion formed when an atom gains an electron? Check 2 / 40 Which list contains only chemical changes? rusting, freezing, subliming boiling, condensing, distillation neutralisation, polymerisation, combustion melting, evaporating, dissolving 3 / 40 Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation? A non-renewable raw material is used. The product is very pure. The rate of reaction is very high. A continuous production process is used. 4 / 40 The formula of which compound contains the largest number of Group VII atoms? Cl 2O6 Al(BrO3)3 C13H13IO8 NaFC2H2O2 5 / 40 C B D A 6 / 40 A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X? sulfur, S gadolinium, Gd tellurium, Te copper, Cu 7 / 40 Four students collect the gas produced from the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid. Each student records the time taken to collect a volume of gas. Which results show the highest average rate of reaction? 75 cm3 of gas collected in 80 seconds 50 cm3 of gas collected in 40 seconds 90 cm3 of gas collected in 100 seconds 15 cm3 of gas collected in 20 seconds 8 / 40 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared to? an atom of carbon-12 a proton a neutron an atom of hydrogen-1 9 / 40 Water is purified using several processes. Four of the processes are listed. 1) Chlorine is added to water to kill any bacteria. 2) Water is passed through coarse gravel to remove large pieces of dirt. 3) Water is passed through wire screens to remove large twigs. 4) Water is passed through fine sand to remove small particles. In which order are the processes carried out?→ 4 → 3 → 2 → 1 3 → 2 → 4 → 1 1 → 2 →3 → 4 2→ 1 → 4 → 3 10 / 40 Concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Name the products of this electrolysis at: the positive electrode. Check 11 / 40 Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction? Check 12 / 40 No Change orange to red red to orange orange to colorless 13 / 40 D A B C 14 / 40 A student put exactly 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a conical flask. The student added 2.5 g of solid sodium carbonate and measured the change in temperature of the mixture. Which apparatus does the student need to use? balance, measuring cylinder, thermometer balance, pipette, stopwatch balance, pipette, thermometer burette, pipette, thermometer 15 / 40 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction? The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter. The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder. The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter. 16 / 40 Which reaction is reversible? white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turning blue when water is added magnesium burning in air to produce a white ash an iron nail rusting when left in moist air limestone reacting with an acid to form carbon dioxide gas 17 / 40 D A B C 18 / 40 Which statement about metals and their uses is correct? Iron is used to make electrical wires because it is a good insulator of electricity. Aluminium is used to make food containers because it is resistant to corrosion. Iron is used to make cooking utensils because it is easily recycled. Aluminium is used to make aircraft wings because it is strong and has a high density. 19 / 40 Some properties of an organic compound J are listed. ● It is a liquid at room temperature. ● It is soluble in water. ● A solution of J reacts with calcium carbonate to form carbon dioxide. ● A solution of J has a pH of 3. In which homologous series does J belong? alcohol carboxylic acid alkane alkene 20 / 40 Overhead power cables made from (steel-cored) aluminium are used to carry electricity over long distances. Which property of (steel-cored) aluminium makes it suitable for use in power cables? Aluminium has low strength. Steel is a good conductor of heat. Aluminium has a low density Steel is resistant to corrosion 21 / 40 In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction loss electron(s) gains electron(s) Both 22 / 40 Check 23 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used: to separate an undissolved solid from an aqueous solution Check 24 / 40 The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3. What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3? 74.5 106.5 223.5 52.0 25 / 40 why the chemical properties of 1224Mg and 1226Mg are the same. same number of Protons same number of electrons same number of Atoms 26 / 40 a reactant in respiration Oxygen nitrogen ethanol 27 / 40 Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1) carbohydrates 2) nylon 3) proteins 4) Terylene 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 28 / 40 1473 kJ /mol 87 kJ / mol –1473 kJ /mol –87 kJ / mol 29 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They conduct electricity. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon. They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. They form acidic oxides. 30 / 40 Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct? They are molecules with the same boiling point. They are elements with the same chemical properties. They are compounds with the same functional group They are atoms with the same number of outer electrons 31 / 40 The equation shows a reaction between aqueous hydrogen bromide and aqueous ammonia. HBr(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq) + Br–(aq) Which statement describes the role of aqueous hydrogen bromide? It is a catalyst. It is a proton acceptor It is a reducing agent It is a proton donor. 32 / 40 Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas? zinc reacting with sulfuric acid acid rain on limestone buildings digestion in cows combustion of wood 33 / 40 B D C A 34 / 40 potassium and caesium potassium and sodium caesium and rubidium lithium and sodium 35 / 40 Large hydrocarbons can be cracked to form smaller hydrocarbons. Complete the chemical equation for cracking tridecane, C13H28, to form an alkene and one other hydrocarbon. C13H28 → C3H6 + ………….. Check 36 / 40 Which statement about homologous series is not correct? Members of a homologous series have similar chemical properties. The alkanes are an example of a homologous series. All homologous series are hydrocarbons. Members of a homologous series have the same functional group. 37 / 40 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis? The colour changes from green to blue. The colour changes from blue to red. The colour changes from green to red. The colour changes from blue to green. 38 / 40 State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ………………………………………………………. Only Blue Only White Blue to White White to Blue 39 / 40 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly. Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only. The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner. What is metal Q? calcium sodium zinc copper 40 / 40 Element X is in Group II of the Periodic Table. Which statements about X are correct? 1) X is a metal. 2) X has two electrons in its outer shell. 3) X is a liquid at room temperature. 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion formed when an atom gains an electron?
Which list contains only chemical changes?
Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?
The formula of which compound contains the largest number of Group VII atoms?
A compound of element X has the formula X2O and a relative formula mass of 144. What is element X?
Four students collect the gas produced from the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid. Each student records the time taken to collect a volume of gas.
Which results show the highest average rate of reaction?
The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared to?
Water is purified using several processes. Four of the processes are listed. 1) Chlorine is added to water to kill any bacteria. 2) Water is passed through coarse gravel to remove large pieces of dirt. 3) Water is passed through wire screens to remove large twigs. 4) Water is passed through fine sand to remove small particles. In which order are the processes carried out?→
Concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Name the products of this electrolysis at: the positive electrode.
Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction?
A student put exactly 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a conical flask. The student added 2.5 g of solid sodium carbonate and measured the change in temperature of the mixture. Which apparatus does the student need to use?
Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate. What happens during the reaction?
Which reaction is reversible?
Which statement about metals and their uses is correct?
Some properties of an organic compound J are listed. ● It is a liquid at room temperature. ● It is soluble in water. ● A solution of J reacts with calcium carbonate to form carbon dioxide. ● A solution of J has a pH of 3. In which homologous series does J belong?
Overhead power cables made from (steel-cored) aluminium are used to carry electricity over long distances. Which property of (steel-cored) aluminium makes it suitable for use in power cables?
In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction
Give the name of the process that is used: to separate an undissolved solid from an aqueous solution
The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3. What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3?
why the chemical properties of 1224Mg and 1226Mg are the same.
a reactant in respiration
Which polymers or types of polymer are synthetic? 1) carbohydrates 2) nylon 3) proteins 4) Terylene
Which property is shown by all metals?
Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct?
The equation shows a reaction between aqueous hydrogen bromide and aqueous ammonia. HBr(aq) + NH3(aq) → NH4+(aq) + Br–(aq) Which statement describes the role of aqueous hydrogen bromide?
Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas?
Large hydrocarbons can be cracked to form smaller hydrocarbons. Complete the chemical equation for cracking tridecane, C13H28, to form an alkene and one other hydrocarbon. C13H28 → C3H6 + …………..
Which statement about homologous series is not correct?
Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?
State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ……………………………………………………….
Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly. Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only. The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner. What is metal Q?
Element X is in Group II of the Periodic Table. Which statements about X are correct? 1) X is a metal. 2) X has two electrons in its outer shell. 3) X is a liquid at room temperature.
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia? air limestone petroleum water 2 / 40 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture? filtration → evaporation → crystallisation evaporation → crystallisation → filtration crystallisation → evaporation → filtration filtration → crystallisation → evaporation 3 / 40 Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct? Structural isomers have different molecular formulae. Compounds in the same homologous series have the same general formula. Compounds in the same homologous series have the same molecular formula. Butane and butene are structural isomers. 4 / 40 Chromium is a more reactive metal than iron but less reactive than zinc. Which statements are correct? 1 Chromium does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid. 2 Chromium oxide is reduced when it is heated with carbon. 3 Chromium reacts with zinc oxide to form zinc. 4 Chromium reacts with steam to form hydrogen gas. 3 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 2 and 4 5 / 40 Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables. Which statement explains why these cables are used? Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium because aluminium is an insulator. Aluminium conducts electricity and the steel core makes the cable stronger. Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium to stop the steel from corroding. Aluminium conducts electricity only when it surrounds a steel core. 6 / 40 A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 7 / 40 Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets and is also used in hydrogen fuel cells. Which statements are correct? 1 Both uses produce water vapour. 2 Burning hydrogen produces polluting gases. 3 A fuel cell produces electricity. 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 8 / 40 Which oxide neutralises aqueous sodium hydroxide? sulfur dioxide water calcium oxide carbon monoxide 9 / 40 Which polymers have the same linkage between monomer units? protein and polyamide carbohydrate and polyamide carbohydrate and polyester protein and polyester 10 / 40 Copper is used to make saucepans. Which properties of copper make it suitable for this use? 1 Copper has a relatively high melting point. 2 Copper has a low density. 3 Copper is a good conductor of electricity. 4 Copper is a good conductor of heat. 1 and 2 2 and 4 1 and 4 3 and 4 11 / 40 Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 3 only 12 / 40 What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed? Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb 2Br– → Br2 + 2e– Pb → Pb2+ + 2e– 13 / 40 The rate of the reaction between lumps of zinc and dilute sulfuric acid is determined. The experiment is repeated four times, making only one change each time. The changes are listed. 1 The lumps of zinc are replaced with powdered zinc. 2 Water is added to the dilute sulfuric acid. 3 The temperature of the dilute sulfuric acid is increased. 4 A catalyst is added to the reaction mixture. Which changes produce an increase in the rate of reaction? 1 and 2 2 only 1, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 14 / 40 The element silicon has the same structure as diamond. Which statement about silicon is correct? Silicon is a good conductor of electricity Silicon is used as a lubricant. Silicon has a high melting point. Every silicon atom is bonded to three other atoms only. 15 / 40 2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M? 192 128 96 48 16 / 40 Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid by acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is observed in the reaction? colourless to purple purple to colourless colourless to orange orange to colourless 17 / 40 Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct? Elements with similar chemical properties are placed in groups. Elements with similar physical properties are placed in periods. Elements with the highest atomic number in each period are metallic. Elements with the lowest group numbers are non-metals. 18 / 40 The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of the element with the mass of one atom of element Q. What is Q? hydrogen carbon oxygen chlorine 19 / 40 The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive? They all have full outer shells. They are all gases. They all have eight electrons in their outer shells. They are all monoatomic. 20 / 40 Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together? calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid zinc and dilute sulfuric acid copper(II) oxide and dilute nitric acid calcium hydroxide and ammonium chloride 21 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? ammonia, NH3 chlorine, Cl2 water, H2O methane, CH4 22 / 40 Which type of reaction occurs when calcium oxide is formed from calcium carbonate? neutralisation combustion addition thermal decomposition 23 / 40 Some properties of four elements, P, Q, R and S, are shown. Solid P reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen. Solid Q does not conduct electricity. Solid R is used to make saucepans because it is a good conductor of heat. Solid S reacts with oxygen to form a compound where atoms of S share electrons with atoms of oxygen. Which elements are metals? P and R P and S Q and R Q and S 24 / 40 Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Potassium has the lowest melting point and the least violent reaction with water. Lithium has the highest density and the most violent reaction with water. Lithium has the highest melting point and the lowest density. Potassium has the highest melting point and the highest density. 25 / 40 Iron rusts when exposed to air. Which two substances in air cause iron to rust? nitrogen and oxygen oxygen and water carbon dioxide and oxygen carbon dioxide and water 26 / 40 Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct? All petroleum fractions are used as fuels. Hydrocarbons in diesel have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons in gasoline. Gas oil is used to make bottled gas for heating. Molecules in kerosene are larger than molecules in fuel oil. 27 / 40 Which statements about strong acids are correct? 1 They have a high concentration of OH– ions. 2 They have a pH value of 1. 3 They completely ionise in water. 4 They turn red litmus blue. 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 28 / 40 Which statement about aqueous ethanoic acid is correct? It reacts with ammonium salts to produce ammonia. It reacts with magnesium to produce a salt and hydrogen. It reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce a salt and hydrogen. It turns red litmus blue. 29 / 40 Which reaction in the Contact process requires the use of a catalyst? SO3 + H2SO4→ H2S2O7 H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4 S + O2 → SO2 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 30 / 40 Which statement is correct? When anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. When water is added to pink cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns blue When water is added to blue cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns pink. When hydrated copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. 31 / 40 Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride? 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2 2Na3N → 6Na + N2 2Na3N → 6Na + 2N 2NaN3 → Na2 + 3N2 32 / 40 Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas? methane ethane butane propane 33 / 40 Which process produces methane? decomposition of vegetation respiration combustion of hydrocarbons reaction between hydrochloric acid and calcium carbonate 34 / 40 Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C. A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours. What happens to the sample of decane? It boils. It melts. It evaporates. It sublimes. 35 / 40 Which statement explains why lime is added to soil? to decrease the pH of alkaline soil to decrease the pH of acidic soil to increase the pH of alkaline soil to increase the pH of acidic soil 36 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 37 / 40 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out? 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 38 / 40 Which statement about rate of reaction is correct? Decreasing temperature increases the rate of reaction. Decreasing particle size increases the rate of reaction. Catalysts increase the time for the reaction to be completed. Rate of reaction decreases as the concentration increases. 39 / 40 Covering iron with zinc prevents the iron from rusting even when the zinc is scratched. Covering iron with tin prevents the iron from rusting, but when the tin is scratched the iron underneath starts to rust. Which statement is correct? Both tin and zinc prevent iron from rusting by sacrificial protection Tin is more reactive than iron and prevents iron from rusting until it is scratched. Both tin and zinc prevent iron from rusting by stopping water and carbon dioxide reaching the iron. Zinc loses electrons more easily than iron and prevents iron from rusting by corroding first. 40 / 40 Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic character. Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period? The atoms have more electrons in their outer shells. The atoms more readily lose electrons to form positive ions The charge on the nucleus of each atom gets larger. The atoms more readily gain electrons to form negative ions. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?
An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?
Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct?
Chromium is a more reactive metal than iron but less reactive than zinc. Which statements are correct? 1 Chromium does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid. 2 Chromium oxide is reduced when it is heated with carbon. 3 Chromium reacts with zinc oxide to form zinc. 4 Chromium reacts with steam to form hydrogen gas.
Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables. Which statement explains why these cables are used?
A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct?
Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets and is also used in hydrogen fuel cells. Which statements are correct? 1 Both uses produce water vapour. 2 Burning hydrogen produces polluting gases. 3 A fuel cell produces electricity.
Which oxide neutralises aqueous sodium hydroxide?
Which polymers have the same linkage between monomer units?
Copper is used to make saucepans. Which properties of copper make it suitable for this use? 1 Copper has a relatively high melting point. 2 Copper has a low density. 3 Copper is a good conductor of electricity. 4 Copper is a good conductor of heat.
Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane
What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?
The rate of the reaction between lumps of zinc and dilute sulfuric acid is determined. The experiment is repeated four times, making only one change each time. The changes are listed. 1 The lumps of zinc are replaced with powdered zinc. 2 Water is added to the dilute sulfuric acid. 3 The temperature of the dilute sulfuric acid is increased. 4 A catalyst is added to the reaction mixture. Which changes produce an increase in the rate of reaction?
The element silicon has the same structure as diamond. Which statement about silicon is correct?
2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M?
Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid by acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is observed in the reaction?
Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct?
The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of the element with the mass of one atom of element Q. What is Q?
The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?
Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together?
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
Which type of reaction occurs when calcium oxide is formed from calcium carbonate?
Some properties of four elements, P, Q, R and S, are shown. Solid P reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen. Solid Q does not conduct electricity. Solid R is used to make saucepans because it is a good conductor of heat. Solid S reacts with oxygen to form a compound where atoms of S share electrons with atoms of oxygen. Which elements are metals?
Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
Iron rusts when exposed to air. Which two substances in air cause iron to rust?
Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?
Which statements about strong acids are correct? 1 They have a high concentration of OH– ions. 2 They have a pH value of 1. 3 They completely ionise in water. 4 They turn red litmus blue.
Which statement about aqueous ethanoic acid is correct?
Which reaction in the Contact process requires the use of a catalyst?
Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride?
Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas?
Which process produces methane?
Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C. A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours. What happens to the sample of decane?
Which statement explains why lime is added to soil?
Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation
Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out?
Which statement about rate of reaction is correct?
Covering iron with zinc prevents the iron from rusting even when the zinc is scratched. Covering iron with tin prevents the iron from rusting, but when the tin is scratched the iron underneath starts to rust. Which statement is correct?
Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic character. Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Introduce a tax on all food. Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. 2 / 30 What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate? the level of national debt the price of exports the level of trade protection the price of imports 3 / 30 What is included in microeconomics? the effects of a change in exchange rates on the trade balance of an economy the effects of an increase in the price of a good or service the factors leading to demand-pull inflation the calculation of national income and expenditure 4 / 30 What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? an increase in life expectancy at birth a rise in the GDP per head an increase in the level of car ownership a rise in the number of years of schooling 5 / 30 Which action might be taken by an economy wishing to produce a greater range of products? encourage investment by multinational companies encourage imports of manufactured goods increase interest rates concentrate on the production of primary products 6 / 30 Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement? demand and supply, government subsidy opportunity cost, private monopoly public sector, factors of production excess demand, resource allocation 7 / 30 What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker? higher quality of the good a low price of the product that they make boredom due to repetition of the same task the opportunity to undertake training 8 / 30 All occupations were better off in 2015 than in 1985 Professionals received higher percentage increases in income than manual workers. Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985. Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015. 9 / 30 International free trade exists. Some resources will be unemployed. Resources are unlimited in supply. Opportunity cost changes 10 / 30 Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a better measure of comparative living standards when it is adjusted for the effects of population change and inflation. imports and exports. population change and exports. exports and inflation. 11 / 30 Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate? Interest rate changes have no impact on the level of production. A rise in interest rates may increase cost-push inflation A rise in interest rates will raise the level of investment in a country. A fall in interest rates will always increase inflation. 12 / 30 What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy? a rise in the level of government spending a fall in wage rates a fall in import prices a rise in the level of unemployment 13 / 30 OR RT RS OT 14 / 30 D B C A 15 / 30 Economic growth can be defined as an increase in a country’s productive capacity. a reduction in a country’s rate of inflation. an increase in a country’s exports. an increase in a country’s population. 16 / 30 Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases? total variable cost average variable cost average fixed cost average total cost 17 / 30 WY XY XZ WX 18 / 30 A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure? building more affordable homes to improve labour mobility raising pensions to help retired people pay their fuel bills lowering interest rates to encourage purchase of expensive goods controlling consumer spending to reduce inflation 19 / 30 What is an immediate effect for a country of a fall in its foreign exchange rate? a fall in the money supply an increase in purchasing power cheaper imports more competitive exports 20 / 30 The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve? monetary policy and supply-side policy only monetary policy, supply-side policy and fiscal policy fiscal policy and monetary policy only fiscal policy and supply-side policy only 21 / 30 In recent years some central banks have reduced interest rates below 1% per year. What is the purpose of this monetary policy? to increase individual savings to encourage investment to stimulate the economy to discourage lending by the commercial banks to reduce inflation 22 / 30 What can be found in a market economy? externalities and monopolies interest rates and public goods tax rates and commercial banks public corporations and market prices 23 / 30 What is included in the Human Development Index (HDI)? the impact of pollution gender inequality political freedom life expectancy at birth 24 / 30 Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero? tariff subsidy embargo quota 25 / 30 Which statement about the factors of production is correct? Capital is a financial resource and includes savings in banks. Enterprise is limited in supply and includes office workers. Labour is a human resource and includes pensioners and children. Land is a natural resource and includes trees and fish. 26 / 30 Which topic is not included in microeconomics? consumer demand forms of competition economies of scale inflation 27 / 30 What is an advantage of competitive markets? Competition encourages the efficient use of resources. The economic problem of scarcity is eliminated. Competition causes inequalities of wealth. The right quantity of merit goods is guaranteed. 28 / 30 China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa. Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line. Who bears the external costs of this operation? China who built the new railway Kenya who must repay the cost to China farmers who have lost agricultural land passengers who pay the higher fare 29 / 30 The demand schedule will shift to the left. The supply schedule will shift to the right. The market will move from surplus to shortage. The market will move from shortage to surplus. 30 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the rate of inflation the income of the family the reliability of banks the level of taxation NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim?
2 / 30
What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate?
3 / 30
What is included in microeconomics?
4 / 30
What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?
5 / 30
Which action might be taken by an economy wishing to produce a greater range of products?
6 / 30
Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement?
7 / 30
What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker?
8 / 30
9 / 30
10 / 30
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a better measure of comparative living standards when it is adjusted for the effects of
11 / 30
Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate?
12 / 30
What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy?
13 / 30
14 / 30
15 / 30
Economic growth can be defined as
16 / 30
Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases?
17 / 30
18 / 30
A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure?
19 / 30
What is an immediate effect for a country of a fall in its foreign exchange rate?
20 / 30
The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve?
21 / 30
In recent years some central banks have reduced interest rates below 1% per year. What is the purpose of this monetary policy?
22 / 30
What can be found in a market economy?
23 / 30
What is included in the Human Development Index (HDI)?
24 / 30
Which method of protection always reduces the supply of an imported good to zero?
25 / 30
Which statement about the factors of production is correct?
26 / 30
Which topic is not included in microeconomics?
27 / 30
What is an advantage of competitive markets?
28 / 30
China has built a new railway in Kenya from the capital, Nairobi, to the seaport of Mombasa. Kenya must repay the cost of the railway to China. Journey time has been reduced significantly but fares have increased and farmers have lost agricultural land along the new line. Who bears the external costs of this operation?
29 / 30
30 / 30
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment? Sunjit lost his job as a bank worker when the bank replaced his job with a new computer system. Sunjeev decided to stop working and claim benefits when the government increased unemployment benefits. Jamie lost his job as an ice cream seller during the winter months when little ice cream was sold. Aneesha lost her job as an engineer when her firm had to make redundancies in a recession. 2 / 30 In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply? 0.9 1.25 1.2 0.8 3 / 30 What could discourage women from seeking employment? More flexible and part-time jobs are available. There are fewer promotion opportunities for women. More education and training are provided. There is a shift in employment to the services sector 4 / 30 A country imposes tariffs and quotas on imported goods. What will citizens of that country experience? higher welfare wider consumer choice higher unemployment higher prices 5 / 30 What is meant by equilibrium in a market? where profit is at the expected level where the quantity of inputs equals the quantity of output where products offered for sale equal consumer demand where total costs equal total revenue 6 / 30 What is an example of an external benefit from an individual cycling, rather than driving, to work? lower cost of cycling compared with driving to work higher cost of building cycle lanes improved physical fitness to the individual from cycling reduced congestion for other road users 7 / 30 OR RT RS OT 8 / 30 What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40? a more mobile labour force rising house prices an ageing population higher government tax revenue 9 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? sales of golf equipment cost of water wages of golf course staff loss of farmland 10 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US balance of trade will worsen. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 11 / 30 A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement? Farmers matched demand by planting more coffee bushes. A sequence of poor harvests resulted in shortages. The price of coffee was fixed between producers. Decreased transport costs led to a surplus of supply. 12 / 30 An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary? The central bank controlled the issue of money too tightly. Commercial banks restricted their lending. Consumers only used credit cards rather than paper money. Its own dollar no longer acted as a store of value. 13 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. The rate of price increases is falling. Prices are falling. The real rate of interest is negative. 14 / 30 An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs? $150 000 $100 000 $370 000 $220 000 15 / 30 What is identified as economic growth? an increase in the Consumer Prices Index (CPI) an increase in the productive capacity of the economy the economy enters a period of recession a fall in labour productivity 16 / 30 2014–2015 2015–2016 2013–2014 2012–2013 17 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US balance of trade will worsen. The US government’s revenue will decline. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The good will become cheaper in the US. 18 / 30 Carlos has been offered a new job with a large multinational company. He is undecided whether to accept the position. What is a non-wage factor he might consider? salary level bonus payments holiday entitlement overtime rate 19 / 30 D C B A 20 / 30 What is the most likely disadvantage of international specialisation? decreased levels of global output increased average production costs increased productivity levels overdependence on other economies 21 / 30 Which government policy would reduce economic growth? raising interest rates lowering the rate of income tax cutting the rate of corporation tax increasing expenditure on education 22 / 30 A company mining cobalt, invests in machinery to replace some workers. Eventually diseconomies of scale occur. What could cause this situation? Overhead costs are spread as output increases. As more cobalt is mined average costs increase. Output per hour increases as more machinery is used. Fewer workers are needed to produce the required output. 23 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? sales of golf equipment cost of water loss of farmland wages of golf course staff 24 / 30 Changes in the foreign exchange rate of a country resulted in a depreciation of its currency. What is not likely to happen? The current account deficit will be unchanged. The country’s export trading position will become more competitive. The costs of imported raw materials will fall. The country’s residents will find it more expensive to take holidays abroad. 25 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developed, exporting services developing, exporting primary commodities developing, exporting services developed, exporting manufactured goods 26 / 30 What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country? acting as lender of last resort operating the government’s monetary policy setting the government’s budget issuing notes and coins 27 / 30 What will cause the demand curve for a good to shift to the right? a decrease in the disposable income of consumers a decrease in the price of a complement good a decrease in the price of a substitute good a decrease in the price of the good 28 / 30 A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country? It has the world’s fastest economic growth rate. It has the world’s highest standard of living. It has the world’s biggest economy It has the world’s greatest size of population. 29 / 30 A farmer reduces the land used to grow wheat from 80 hectares to 60 hectares and increases the use of the land for growing potatoes from 80 to 100 hectares. What is the opportunity cost of this change? The output from 60 hectares used for growing wheat. The output from 20 hectares used for growing wheat. The output from 80 hectares used for growing potatoes. The output from 20 hectares used for growing potatoes. 30 / 30 What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy? the Canadian government introducing quotas on Malaysian electronics products a German bank making a loan to a Nigerian company the Swedish government granting aid to Somalia a Japanese car manufacturer establishing a factory in the Czech Republic NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?
In response to an increase in price from $5 per kilo to $6 per kilo, a farmer increased supply from 400 kilos to 500 kilos per week. What is the price elasticity of supply?
What could discourage women from seeking employment?
A country imposes tariffs and quotas on imported goods. What will citizens of that country experience?
What is meant by equilibrium in a market?
What is an example of an external benefit from an individual cycling, rather than driving, to work?
What is the effect on an economy of net emigration of people aged 20–40?
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement?
An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary?
A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information?
An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs?
What is identified as economic growth?
Carlos has been offered a new job with a large multinational company. He is undecided whether to accept the position. What is a non-wage factor he might consider?
What is the most likely disadvantage of international specialisation?
Which government policy would reduce economic growth?
A company mining cobalt, invests in machinery to replace some workers. Eventually diseconomies of scale occur. What could cause this situation?
Changes in the foreign exchange rate of a country resulted in a depreciation of its currency. What is not likely to happen?
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country?
What will cause the demand curve for a good to shift to the right?
A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country?
A farmer reduces the land used to grow wheat from 80 hectares to 60 hectares and increases the use of the land for growing potatoes from 80 to 100 hectares.
What is the opportunity cost of this change?
What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A D B C 2 / 40 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 / 40 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction? rubber plastic copper steel 4 / 40 B A D C 5 / 40 What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit? A smaller fuse is needed to protect the lamps. If the filament of one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit. The current taken from the supply is less. The lamps use less power. 6 / 40 A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker. The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot hear the sound. What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker? increase the frequency decrease the amplitude decrease the frequency increase the amplitude 7 / 40 A C D B 8 / 40 1 N to the right 1 N to the left 7 N to the right 7 N to the left 9 / 40 An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct? There is no resultant force acting on the object because it is moving at constant speed. A resultant force acts on the object in the direction it is travelling. A resultant force acts on the object towards the centre of the circle. A resultant force acts on the object outwards from the centre of the circle. 10 / 40 Which statement about mass is correct? Mass is a gravitational force. The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface. 11 / 40 A B D C 12 / 40 0.88 s 0.92 s 17.6 s 18.4 s 13 / 40 B C A D 14 / 40 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force? 20 J 40 J 30 J 10 J 15 / 40 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object? 0.080 N 4.8 N 3.2 N 0.053 N 16 / 40 A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery? 30 kg 12V 216 kJ 680A 17 / 40 A B D C 18 / 40 It stays on zero. It quickly increases and stays at maximum. It quickly increases and then decreases. It keeps increasing. 19 / 40 A B D C 20 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured? ampere coulomb joule watt 21 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 2.0N 4.0N 7.0N 6.0N 22 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number 23 / 40 A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it. The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000N. The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000N. What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant speed? 20 000N downwards 180 000N downwards 20 000N upwards 180 000N upwards 24 / 40 Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct? The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water. The decay always produces poisonous gases. It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay. Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying 25 / 40 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 26 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. 27 / 40 D A B C 28 / 40 90 s 400 s 120 s 200 s 29 / 40 angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2 30 / 40 P has a greater reading than S P has a greater reading than R. P has a greater reading than Q P has a greater reading than T. 31 / 40 80 cm3 10 cm3 40 cm3 20 cm3 32 / 40 C B A D 33 / 40 A D C B 34 / 40 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person? 0.02 m 7 000 000m 20 000 m 60 m 35 / 40 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave? 0.25 Hz 15 Hz 4.0 Hz 100 Hz 36 / 40 A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate? β-particles only γ-rays only α-particles only α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays 37 / 40 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 38 / 40 The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more frequently. The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller. The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly. The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly. 39 / 40 weight length volume mass 40 / 40 40 min 10 min 12 min 14 min NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?
Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?
What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit?
A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker. The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot hear the sound. What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker?
An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct?
Which statement about mass is correct?
A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force?
An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object?
A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery?
There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured?
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it. The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000N. The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000N. What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant speed?
Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct?
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person?
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate?
A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct? It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay. Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying The decay always produces poisonous gases. The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water. 2 / 40 more than 3 years more than 2 years but less than 3 years more than 1 year but less than 2 years less than 1 year 3 / 40 B D C A 4 / 40 A B D C 5 / 40 Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track? to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day 6 / 40 C A D B 7 / 40 XY ZY WY XZ 8 / 40 B D A C 9 / 40 In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer? air and water only water only air only air, water and wood 10 / 40 Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo? reflection refraction dispersion diffraction 11 / 40 C A D B 12 / 40 C B A D 13 / 40 D A B C 14 / 40 A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit? decreasing the thickness of the wire connecting a second identical length of wire in series with the original wire connecting a second identical length of wire in parallel with the original wire increasing the length of the wire 15 / 40 A D C B 16 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number 17 / 40 D A C B 18 / 40 A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations? gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy internal energy and elastic energy gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only 19 / 40 B C D A 20 / 40 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current? thermistor fuse earth wire relay 21 / 40 Cool the aluminium and cool the iron. Cool the aluminium and heat the iron. Heat the aluminium and cool the iron. Heat the aluminium and heat the iron. 22 / 40 kinetic → gravitational potential → elastic (strain) gravitational potential → kinetic → elastic (strain) gravitational potential → kinetic → chemical kinetic → gravitational potential → chemical 23 / 40 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 24 / 40 It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case. The electric cooker will not switch on without it. It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on. It improves the efficiency of the cooker. 25 / 40 A D C B 26 / 40 A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct? There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus. There are 6 protons in the nucleus. There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus. There are 6 electrons in the nucleus. 27 / 40 C A B D 28 / 40 What is the advantage of connecting lamps in parallel in a lighting circuit? The lamps use less power. The current taken from the supply is less. If the filament of one lamp breaks, the remaining lamps stay lit. A smaller fuse is needed to protect the lamps. 29 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 2 and 3 2 only 1 only 1 and 3 30 / 40 A D C B 31 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. 32 / 40 D C B A 33 / 40 In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope. The smoke particles move about with short random movements. Which of the following statements is correct? Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions. Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions. Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only. Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only. 34 / 40 What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion? the area under a distance–time graph the area under a speed–time graph the gradient of a distance–time graph the gradient of a speed–time graph 35 / 40 B D A C 36 / 40 C B A D 37 / 40 D B A C 38 / 40 D A C B 39 / 40 D A B C 40 / 40 B D A C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?
In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?
Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?
A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?
A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?
Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current?
A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope. The smoke particles move about with short random movements. Which of the following statements is correct?
What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 D C A B 2 / 40 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 3 / 40 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct? Both hydrogen and oxygen are produced at the negative electrode Oxygen is produced at the positive electrode. Hydrogen is produced at the anode. Sulfur dioxide is produced at the cathode. 4 / 40 carbon dioxide argon nitrogen oxygen 5 / 40 A student has 50 identical sheets of paper. Which procedure is used to find the thickness of one sheet of paper? Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then add the thickness of 49 sheets. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then multiply by 50. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then multiply by the thickness of 49 sheets. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then divide by 50. 6 / 40 8 A man takes 30 minutes to walk 4.0 km to a station. He then immediately gets on a train that takes 60 minutes to travel 100 km. What is the average speed for the man’s complete journey? 1.2 km / hour 69 km / hour 1.8 km / hour 54 km / hour 7 / 40 Which statements about elements in Group I of the Periodic Table are correct? 1 They become less reactive going down the group. 2 Sodium forms positive ions more easily than lithium. 3 Their melting points increase going down the group. 4 Rubidium is more dense than sodium. 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 4 1 and 3 8 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur? CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O Na2CO3 + ZnSO4 → Na2SO4 + ZnCO3 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O 9 / 40 B C D A 10 / 40 B A D C 11 / 40 What is the definition of diffusion? the movement of particles from a hotter to a cooler region the movement of particles down a concentration gradient the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient the downward movement of particles in the atmosphere 12 / 40 Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct? They conduct electricity. They have low densities. They are malleable. They are hard. 13 / 40 The amount of carbon dioxide increases. The amount of oxygen decreases. The amount of carbon dioxide decreases. The amount of nitrogen increases. 14 / 40 A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule? 1200N 1.2 N 1200 kg 1.2 kg 15 / 40 3.0Ω 0.25Ω 0.33Ω 4.0Ω 16 / 40 heat the nut and the bolt through the same temperature rise heat the nut only cool the nut and heat the bolt heat the bolt only 17 / 40 A B C D 18 / 40 D B A C 19 / 40 What are enzymes made from? carbohydrates proteins sugars fats 20 / 40 2 5 3 4 21 / 40 A student applies a force to an object, causing the object to move in the same direction as the force. She measures the size of the force and the distance moved by the object. Which quantity can she now calculate? the speed of the object the power she produces the work done on the object the acceleration of the object 22 / 40 Which substance does not react with chlorine? H2 NaBr Kr Li 23 / 40 Which statement about enzymes is correct? Enzymes are made of glycerol. Enzymes are not affected by changes in pH. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Enzymes are not affected by changes in temperature. 24 / 40 A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2. The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg? 50 000Pa 5000Pa 200 000Pa 20 000Pa 25 / 40 A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes. How much useful power does the motor produce? 240 000W 1000W 60 000W 9000W 26 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere? feeding respiration fossilisation photosynthesis 27 / 40 a lamp a fuse a variable resistor a fixed resistor 28 / 40 D C A B 29 / 40 Air is trapped in a sealed glass bottle that has a fixed volume. The temperature of the air in the bottle decreases. Which statement describes what happens to the air in the bottle? The average separation of the molecules remains the same and the pressure remains the same. The average separation of the molecules remains the same but the pressure decreases. The average separation of the molecules decreases but the pressure remains the same. The average separation of the molecules decreases and the pressure decreases. 30 / 40 ingestion and absorption absorption and digestion digestion and egestion egestion and ingestion 31 / 40 Which change shows the presence of water? Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns pink. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white. Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns blue. Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns pink. 32 / 40 Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct? Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide enhance the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas. The only source of carbon dioxide in the air is from motor vehicles. Carbon dioxide makes up approximately 4% of clean air. 33 / 40 Which words describe a noble gas? compound, colourless, does not burn in air element, green, does not burn in air element, colourless, burns in air element, colourless, does not burn in air 34 / 40 Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is correct? Lead ions lose electrons at the anode. Bromide ions lose electrons at the anode. Bromide ions gain electrons at the anode Lead ions gain electrons at the anode. 35 / 40 A C B D 36 / 40 A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell? 4.0 mm 16.0 mm 1.6 mm 0.4 mm 37 / 40 A B D C 38 / 40 Which statements about the reactivity series of metals are correct? Iron is higher in the reactivity series than copper because it cannot be extracted from its oxide using carbon. Sodium is higher in the reactivity series than copper because it has a greater tendency to form positive ions. Magnesium is higher in the reactivity series than zinc because it can displace zinc ions from aqueous solution. 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 39 / 40 D B A C 40 / 40 Excess magnesium ribbon is reacted with 10 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The hydrogen gas produced is collected and measured. Which change to the reaction conditions increases the rate of reaction and the volume of hydrogen produced? Use a transition metal catalyst. Use powdered magnesium. Use concentrated hydrochloric acid. Use a lower temperature. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct?
A student has 50 identical sheets of paper. Which procedure is used to find the thickness of one sheet of paper?
8 A man takes 30 minutes to walk 4.0 km to a station. He then immediately gets on a train that takes 60 minutes to travel 100 km. What is the average speed for the man’s complete journey?
Which statements about elements in Group I of the Periodic Table are correct? 1 They become less reactive going down the group. 2 Sodium forms positive ions more easily than lithium. 3 Their melting points increase going down the group. 4 Rubidium is more dense than sodium.
Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur?
What is the definition of diffusion?
Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct?
A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule?
What are enzymes made from?
A student applies a force to an object, causing the object to move in the same direction as the force. She measures the size of the force and the distance moved by the object. Which quantity can she now calculate?
Which substance does not react with chlorine?
Which statement about enzymes is correct?
A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2. The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg?
A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes. How much useful power does the motor produce?
Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere?
Air is trapped in a sealed glass bottle that has a fixed volume. The temperature of the air in the bottle decreases. Which statement describes what happens to the air in the bottle?
Which change shows the presence of water?
Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct?
Which words describe a noble gas?
Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is correct?
A drawing of a cell is 80 mm in length and the magnification is 200. What is the actual size of the cell?
Which statements about the reactivity series of metals are correct?
Excess magnesium ribbon is reacted with 10 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The hydrogen gas produced is collected and measured. Which change to the reaction conditions increases the rate of reaction and the volume of hydrogen produced?
