0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 What is a cheque counterfoil used for? to make a credit entry in the bank column of a cash book to send proof of payment to a customer to send a payment to a supplier to make a debit entry in the bank column of a cash book 2 / 35 D C A B 3 / 35 B A D C 4 / 35 What are advantages of keeping a full set of accounting records? 1 Financial statements will be free from errors. 2 It is impossible to make fraudulent entries. 3 More informed decision-making is possible. 4 The calculation of profit is more accurate. 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 5 / 35 A C D B 6 / 35 Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year? fees received – cost of sales fees received – cost of sales + expenses fees received + expenses fees received – expenses 7 / 35 Why should a trader match his costs for a financial year with the revenues for the same period? to account for money that has been paid in advance to show the correct profit figure to account for all liabilities to make sure outstanding income is included 8 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance 9 / 35 The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show? X has fewer liabilities than Y Y has more inventory than X. Y has fewer current assets than X. X has more liquidity than Y. 10 / 35 Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased 2, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 11 / 35 Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account? interest on overdue account cash discount provision for doubtful debts contra entry 12 / 35 ‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer? going concern matching money measurement realisation 13 / 35 D B C A 14 / 35 A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year? $14 910 $14 690 $15 090 $14 510 15 / 35 Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct? It acts as a check on the balance of the purchases account. It provides proof of the arithmetical accuracy of the purchases ledger It includes transactions relating to all the credit suppliers. It is prepared using information from the books of prime entry. 16 / 35 C D A B 17 / 35 Carl, a trader, took goods from the business for his own use. These goods had cost $100, and $8 carriage had been paid for them to be delivered to the business. How would this be recorded in Carl’s accounts in the books of the business? debit Carl’s capital account $100 debit Carl’s capital account $108 debit Carl’s drawings account $100 debit Carl’s drawings account $108 18 / 35 C D A B 19 / 35 D A B C 20 / 35 Which is an application of the materiality principle? charging the cost of light bulbs and batteries to operating expenses recording goods sold only when its legal title passes to the buyer buying raw materials on credit rather than paying immediately always using the straight-line method when depreciating assets 21 / 35 Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book? $2400 credit $2800 debit $2800 credit $2400 debit 22 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $660 $640 $670 $600 23 / 35 $31 000 $43 000 $22 000 $10 000 24 / 35 $620 $590 $860 $890 25 / 35 B D C A 26 / 35 Sumit does not maintain a full set of accounting records. What does Sumit not need to calculate his credit sales? discounts allowed customer’s dishonoured cheque discounts received returns from credit customers 27 / 35 A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance? $11 700 $5100 $3700 $13 100 28 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to summarise what the business owns and what it owes to calculate the profit for the year to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities to show the transactions which took place during the year 29 / 35 Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its debts when they fall due. Sally is considering the following proposals. 1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000 2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months 3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years 4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business? 1 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 30 / 35 Which transaction is recorded in the general journal? drawings in cash by the owner correction of an error in recording sales returns purchase of a motor vehicle by cheque purchase of goods on credit 31 / 35 What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement? A cheque received from a customer was not recorded in the bank statement. A customer’s cheque dishonoured by the bank appeared only on the bank statement. Payment by a customer directly into the bank was not recorded in the cash book. Payment of insurance by standing order was not recorded in the cash book. 32 / 35 C A B D 33 / 35 Equipment costing $20000 was purchased on 1 January 2019. It has a useful working life of 5 years and a residual value of $3000. Depreciation using the straight-line method was included in the income statement for the year ended 31 December 2019. It was then found that the reducing balance method at 30% per annum should have been used. What was the effect on the profit for the year ended 31 December 2019 of this error? $2000 understated $2600 understated $2000 overstated $2600 overstated 34 / 35 A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform? recording sales and purchase invoices in the books of prime entry making entries in the general journal to adjust a provision for doubtful debts extracting balances from the ledger accounts to produce a trial balance preparing a monthly report that analyses the profitability of the company 35 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to encourage bulk buying to reward prompt payment to avoid irrecoverable debts to encourage payment in cash NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
What is a cheque counterfoil used for?
2 / 35
3 / 35
4 / 35
What are advantages of keeping a full set of accounting records? 1 Financial statements will be free from errors. 2 It is impossible to make fraudulent entries. 3 More informed decision-making is possible. 4 The calculation of profit is more accurate.
5 / 35
6 / 35
Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year?
7 / 35
Why should a trader match his costs for a financial year with the revenues for the same period?
8 / 35
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
9 / 35
The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show?
10 / 35
Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader? 1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan 2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees 3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits 4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased
11 / 35
Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account?
12 / 35
‘Revenue should only be regarded as earned when the legal title of goods and services passes from the seller to the buyer.’ To which accounting principle does this statement refer?
13 / 35
14 / 35
A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year?
15 / 35
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?
16 / 35
17 / 35
Carl, a trader, took goods from the business for his own use. These goods had cost $100, and $8 carriage had been paid for them to be delivered to the business. How would this be recorded in Carl’s accounts in the books of the business?
18 / 35
19 / 35
20 / 35
Which is an application of the materiality principle?
21 / 35
Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book?
22 / 35
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
23 / 35
24 / 35
25 / 35
26 / 35
Sumit does not maintain a full set of accounting records. What does Sumit not need to calculate his credit sales?
27 / 35
A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance?
28 / 35
John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?
29 / 35
Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its debts when they fall due. Sally is considering the following proposals.
1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000 2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months 3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years 4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business?
30 / 35
Which transaction is recorded in the general journal?
31 / 35
What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement?
32 / 35
33 / 35
Equipment costing $20000 was purchased on 1 January 2019. It has a useful working life of 5 years and a residual value of $3000. Depreciation using the straight-line method was included in the income statement for the year ended 31 December 2019. It was then found that the reducing balance method at 30% per annum should have been used. What was the effect on the profit for the year ended 31 December 2019 of this error?
34 / 35
A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform?
35 / 35
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 2 members 8 members 6 members 17 members 2 / 35 A C D B 3 / 35 $72 400 $71 000 $67 900 $70 200 4 / 35 Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business? to ensure that funds are sufficient to cover loan interest to check that the correct amount of tax is being paid to calculate and assess the trade payables turnover to ensure that employees are being paid the correct hourly rate 5 / 35 $620 $590 $860 $890 6 / 35 A D B C 7 / 35 Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month? credit purchases returns account credit sales returns account debit purchases returns account debit sales returns account 8 / 35 D B A C 9 / 35 On 31 January Hanif owed Abdul $150. On 1 January Abdul owed Hanif $400. On 31 January Abdul allowed Hanif $8 trade discount. On 4 January Hanif purchased goods, $250, from Abdul. 10 / 35 Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year? 1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account 2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers 3 drawings made by the owner during the year 4 wages paid to employees during the year 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 11 / 35 A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year? $14 690 $14 910 $14 510 $15 090 12 / 35 B A C D 13 / 35 What is recorded in a petty cash book? all cash transactions purchases of all small value items small cash transactions cash purchases and expenses only 14 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? undercast by $200 overcast by $200 overcast by $130 overcast by $200 15 / 35 Which is a feature of debentures? on liquidation are paid back after shareholders carry voting rights carry a fixed rate of dividend are a long-term liability of a company 16 / 35 Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business? factory supervisor’s salary carriage outwards carriage inwards factory rent 17 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $800 increase $11 600 decrease $11 600 increase $800 18 / 35 What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business? wages of factory supervisors wages of factory supervisors royalties raw material 19 / 35 C B D A 20 / 35 $15 270 $14 890 $17 270 $13 920 21 / 35 What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business? return on capital employed liquid (acid test) ratio working capital current ratio 22 / 35 $32 000 $29 200 $31 200 $32 800 23 / 35 C B D A 24 / 35 Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $24 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 1 January 2020 amounted to $2000. Subscriptions prepaid on 31 December 2020 amounted to $3000. Subscriptions relating to the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $29 000. 25 / 35 10% 40% 15% 25% 26 / 35 On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly recorded as office expenses, $90. Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase. What was the effect on the profit for the year? understated by $900 overstated by $810 overstated by $990 understated by $90 27 / 35 The cost of sales of Company X was lower than that of Company Y. Company X had a better gross margin than Company Y. Company Y had a larger proportion of expenses than Company X. Both companies earned the same amount of profit for the year. 28 / 35 How should inventory be valued? lower of cost and net realisable value cost higher of cost and net realisable value net realisable value 29 / 35 $43 600 $38 000 $30 000 $40 800 30 / 35 The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year? $33 500 $23 500 $18 500 $28 500 31 / 35 The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs? 2 and 3 1, 2 and 5 3 and 4 1, 4 and 5 32 / 35 24 days 17 days 20 days 22 days 33 / 35 discount allowed an irrecoverable debt the balance carried down the recovery of a debt previously written off 34 / 35 On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December? $504 understated $84 understated $336 overstated $420 overstated 35 / 35 B D A C NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Why would a bank manager be interested in the financial statements of a business?
Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month?
Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year? 1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account 2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers 3 drawings made by the owner during the year 4 wages paid to employees during the year
What is recorded in a petty cash book?
The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?
Which is a feature of debentures?
Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business?
The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?
What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business?
What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?
On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly recorded as office expenses, $90. Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase. What was the effect on the profit for the year?
How should inventory be valued?
The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year?
The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs?
On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2 / 40 Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct? It is produced by the liver and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and raises blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the liver and raises blood sugar concentration. 3 / 40 The statements describe some of the events that occur in a plant after light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll. 1) converted to chemical energy 2) converted to sucrose for translocation 3) starch is stored in the roots or seeds 4) glucose is produced In which order do these events occur? 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 4 / 40 Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion? Fats are digested by protease to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form amino acids. Fats are digested by lipase to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by lipase to form amino acids and glycerol. 5 / 40 What is a function of phloem? transports water to the roots transports starch to the roots transports sugar to the roots transports minerals to the roots 6 / 40 B A C D 7 / 40 The stages describe how genetic engineering can be used to produce human insulin from bacteria. 1) cut bacterial plasmid DNA with restriction enzymes 2) extract gene for insulin from human DNA with restriction enzymes 3) insert recombinant plasmid into bacteria 4) join human DNA to bacterial plasmid DNA using DNA ligase 5) replicate bacteria containing recombinant plasmid Which sequence will lead to the production of human insulin by bacteria? 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 5 4 → 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 2 → 5 → 1 → 3 → 4 8 / 40 Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules? translocation active transport transpiration osmosis 9 / 40 What is a function of the lymphatic system? absorption of glucose blood clotting temperature regulation circulation of body fluids 10 / 40 Pangolins are mammals. One species of pangolin has 40 chromosomes per body cell. How many chromosomes will a sperm cell from this species of pangolin have? 10 40 50 20 11 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? breaks down repair and thickening implantation of embryo new blood vessel growth 12 / 40 Which characteristic of viruses prevents them from being affected by antibiotics? They have no cell structure. They cannot reproduce on their own. They contain DNA or RNA. They are much smaller than bacteria. 13 / 40 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 2, 5 and 6 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 6 and 7 14 / 40 One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are listed. 1) inhibit FSH production 2) inhibit LH production 3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 3 only 15 / 40 Scientists discover a new species of animal. It has a segmented body with two pairs of legs on each segment. To which group of animals does this new species belong? insects myriapods arachnids crustaceans 16 / 40 C D B A 17 / 40 B A C D 18 / 40 Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container? glucose → lactic acid glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide 19 / 40 X absorbs more water from food than Y. X does not absorb water from food. Y absorbs more water from food than X. Y does not absorb water from food. 20 / 40 A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this? The person cannot focus light onto the retina. The person cannot control how much light enters the eye. Receptors do not produce nerve impulses in response to light. Nerve impulses from the eye cannot reach the brain. 21 / 40 What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast? lactic acid + oxygen lactic acid + carbon dioxide alcohol + carbon dioxide alcohol + oxygen 22 / 40 A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects touching his hand. What could cause this? Effectors are damaged. Motor neurones are cut. Sensory neurones are cut Both sensory and motor neurones are cut. 23 / 40 12 6 3 0 24 / 40 Changes occur in a boy’s body at puberty; his height increases, more muscle develops and body hair grows. Which hormone stimulates these changes? oestrogen adrenaline testosterone insulin 25 / 40 Which description of a population is correct? all the arthropods in the world all the birds in a rainforest all the red deer in a forest all the arachnids in a garden 26 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol glucose → lactic acid 27 / 40 Which statement about meiosis is correct? The chromosome number changes from haploid to diploid. It allows the formation of new combinations of chromosomes. It is used to produce body cells. Daughter cells are genetically identical. 28 / 40 How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis? They increase the surface area for absorption of light energy. They act as a store of oxygen. They let rainwater enter the leaf tissues. They allow carbon dioxide gas to diffuse through the leaf more rapidly. 29 / 40 Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration? 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 30 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 only 31 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile 32 / 40 What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans? ovum embryo placenta fetus 33 / 40 What occurs as a result of artificial selection? disease resistant crops antibiotic resistance in bacteria sickle cell anaemia presence of roots in cactus plants 34 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus with two genes a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes a nucleus with one double helix of DNA 35 / 40 By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood? osmosis active transport diffusion breathing 36 / 40 What is the sequence of organs that blood passes through during one circulation of the body of a fish? muscle → heart → gill → heart → muscle muscle → gill → heart → muscle muscle → heart → gill → muscle muscle → gill → heart → gill → muscle 37 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 1 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 38 / 40 Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response? adrenaline insulin testosterone oestrogen 39 / 40 The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct? The pancreas does not respond to an increase in blood glucose levels. The liver converts the small molecule glucose to the large molecule glucagon. The pancreas responds to a fall in blood glucose by increasing the release of the hormone glucagon. The liver releases the hormone insulin when blood glucose levels are too high. 40 / 40 Which structure in the male reproductive system makes the fluid for sperm to swim in? testis prostate gland scrotum penis NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably?
2 / 40
Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct?
3 / 40
The statements describe some of the events that occur in a plant after light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll. 1) converted to chemical energy 2) converted to sucrose for translocation 3) starch is stored in the roots or seeds 4) glucose is produced In which order do these events occur?
4 / 40
Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion?
5 / 40
What is a function of phloem?
6 / 40
7 / 40
The stages describe how genetic engineering can be used to produce human insulin from bacteria. 1) cut bacterial plasmid DNA with restriction enzymes 2) extract gene for insulin from human DNA with restriction enzymes 3) insert recombinant plasmid into bacteria 4) join human DNA to bacterial plasmid DNA using DNA ligase 5) replicate bacteria containing recombinant plasmid Which sequence will lead to the production of human insulin by bacteria?
8 / 40
Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules?
9 / 40
What is a function of the lymphatic system?
10 / 40
Pangolins are mammals. One species of pangolin has 40 chromosomes per body cell. How many chromosomes will a sperm cell from this species of pangolin have?
11 / 40
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
12 / 40
Which characteristic of viruses prevents them from being affected by antibiotics?
13 / 40
14 / 40
One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are listed. 1) inhibit FSH production 2) inhibit LH production 3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell?
15 / 40
Scientists discover a new species of animal. It has a segmented body with two pairs of legs on each segment. To which group of animals does this new species belong?
16 / 40
17 / 40
18 / 40
Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?
19 / 40
20 / 40
A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this?
21 / 40
What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?
22 / 40
A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects touching his hand. What could cause this?
23 / 40
24 / 40
Changes occur in a boy’s body at puberty; his height increases, more muscle develops and body hair grows. Which hormone stimulates these changes?
25 / 40
Which description of a population is correct?
26 / 40
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
27 / 40
Which statement about meiosis is correct?
28 / 40
How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis?
29 / 40
Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?
30 / 40
The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus?
31 / 40
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
32 / 40
What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans?
33 / 40
What occurs as a result of artificial selection?
34 / 40
What is a diploid nucleus?
35 / 40
By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood?
36 / 40
What is the sequence of organs that blood passes through during one circulation of the body of a fish?
37 / 40
Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes?
38 / 40
Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response?
39 / 40
The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct?
40 / 40
Which structure in the male reproductive system makes the fluid for sperm to swim in?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What happens when deforestation takes place? The possibility of flooding is decreased. The number of species becoming extinct is increased. The number of habitats is increased. The volume of soil present is increased. 2 / 40 What is part of the definition of transpiration? the movement of molecules into the cells of the organism where they are used the transport of mineral ions from the roots into the stem and leaves the movement of particles through a cell membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration the loss of water vapour from plant leaves by evaporation of water at the surfaces of the mesophyll cells 3 / 40 C A B D 4 / 40 Pangolins are mammals. One species of pangolin has 40 chromosomes per body cell. How many chromosomes will a sperm cell from this species of pangolin have? 40 50 10 20 5 / 40 What is the correct definition of an enzyme? a substance made of fats that changes the rate of a reaction a carbohydrate that functions as a biological catalyst a protein that functions as a biological catalyst a substance that is changed by the reaction 6 / 40 What is an example of sustainable use of resources? controlling the number of fish caught with quotas cutting down a forest and not replanting trees planting deforested areas with one species of crop plant allowing only young fish to be caught 7 / 40 In a cell, where are amino acids assembled to form protein molecules? cell membrane vesicles nucleus ribosomes 8 / 40 Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis? 6 24 12 48 9 / 40 A student exercised for three minutes. Before exercise, her breathing rate was 15 breaths per minute. During exercise, her breathing rate was 45 breaths per minute. What is the percentage increase in her breathing rate? 67% 200% 33% 300% 10 / 40 Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach. What is the reason for this? The temperature in the stomach is not suitable for the amylase to work. The pH in the stomach is not suitable for the amylase to work. All starch digestion is completed in the mouth The starch does not stay in the stomach long enough to be digested. 11 / 40 Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion? Fats are digested by lipase to form amino acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form amino acids. Fats are digested by lipase to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form fatty acids and glycerol. 12 / 40 C A D B 13 / 40 What is the principal source of energy for the food chain shown? grass → caterpillar → frog → snake→ owl sunlight mineral ions glucose water 14 / 40 ×2.2 ×495 ×48 ×0.45 15 / 40 An area of forest was destroyed by a forest fire. Eventually the forest regrew. What is likely to happen to the amount of soil erosion and flooding when the forest has regrown? Soil erosion increases and flooding increases. Soil erosion decreases and flooding increases. Soil erosion increases and flooding decreases. Soil erosion decreases and flooding decreases. 16 / 40 What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material? consumer herbivore decomposer carnivore 17 / 40 Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart? vena cava renal vein coronary artery pulmonary artery 18 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Camelus dromedarius 2 Camelus ferus 3 Equus ferus 4 Struthio camelus Which animals are in the same genus? 1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 19 / 40 A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC? t increased steadily. It decreased steadily. It increased and then decreased. It remained the same. 20 / 40 C D B A 21 / 40 What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus? gametes → zygote → embryo embryo → zygote → gametes embryo → gametes → zygote gametes → embryo → zygote 22 / 40 B C D A 23 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 24 / 40 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 1 only 25 / 40 chewing secretion absorption digestion 26 / 40 A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population? all the plants in the forest all the organisms in the forest all the animals in the forest all the red deer in the forest 27 / 40 crustacean myriapod arachnid insect 28 / 40 cell organ tissue organ system. 29 / 40 Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy? ovaries placenta uterus pancreas 30 / 40 a vein a capillary an artery a ventricle 31 / 40 What is the principal source of energy input into food chains? soil heat glucose sunlight 32 / 40 Which structure has a large surface area for the absorption of digested food? liver alveolus pancreas ileum 33 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes a nucleus with one double helix of DNA a nucleus with two genes 34 / 40 Uncooked pieces of potato of identical size were placed in different liquids for one hour and then measured. Which liquid will cause a decrease in the size of the piece of potato? sugar solution less concentrated than the potato cell contents pure water sugar solution with the same concentration as the potato cell contents sugar solution more concentrated than the potato cell contents 35 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid 36 / 40 Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in? diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases 37 / 40 The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct? The liver releases the hormone insulin when blood glucose levels are too high. The pancreas does not respond to an increase in blood glucose levels. The liver converts the small molecule glucose to the large molecule glucagon. The pancreas responds to a fall in blood glucose by increasing the release of the hormone glucagon. 38 / 40 Which stage of nutrition takes place when food molecules become part of a body cell? digestion absorption assimilation ingestion 39 / 40 Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct? It requires only one parent. It requires two parents. It produces gametes. It produces genetically different offspring. 40 / 40 Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology? Bacteria reproduce slowly. Bacteria are found inside the human body Bacteria can make complex molecules. Bacteria do not become resistant to antibiotics. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
What happens when deforestation takes place?
What is part of the definition of transpiration?
What is the correct definition of an enzyme?
What is an example of sustainable use of resources?
In a cell, where are amino acids assembled to form protein molecules?
Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis?
A student exercised for three minutes. Before exercise, her breathing rate was 15 breaths per minute. During exercise, her breathing rate was 45 breaths per minute. What is the percentage increase in her breathing rate?
Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach. What is the reason for this?
What is the principal source of energy for the food chain shown? grass → caterpillar → frog → snake→ owl
An area of forest was destroyed by a forest fire. Eventually the forest regrew. What is likely to happen to the amount of soil erosion and flooding when the forest has regrown?
What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material?
Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart?
A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC?
What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?
Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?
A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population?
Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy?
What is the principal source of energy input into food chains?
Which structure has a large surface area for the absorption of digested food?
Uncooked pieces of potato of identical size were placed in different liquids for one hour and then measured. Which liquid will cause a decrease in the size of the piece of potato?
Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in?
Which stage of nutrition takes place when food molecules become part of a body cell?
Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct?
Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Why is aluminium metal unreactive with air? It is produced by electrolysis of its oxide. It is covered with a layer of oxide. It melts at a high temperature. It is low in the reactivity series. 2 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is extracted from an ore called bauxite Check 3 / 40 D B A C 4 / 40 This question is about compounds of nitrogen. Aqueous ammonia is alkaline. Which one of the following pH values could be the pH of aqueous ammonia? Which is the correct answer. pH 1 pH 5 pH 7 pH 9 pH 1 pH 9 pH 7 pH 5 5 / 40 Which process is a physical change? rusting iron burning wood cooking an egg melting an ice cube 6 / 40 2.00 g of powdered calcium carbonate is added to 50.0 cm3 of hydrochloric acid. Which apparatus is used to measure the calcium carbonate and the hydrochloric acid? Calcium carbonate pipette – Hydrochloric acid thermometer Calcium carbonate pipette – Hydrochloric acid burette Calcium carbonate balance – Hydrochloric acid burette Calcium carbonate balance – Hydrochloric acid thermometer 7 / 40 Nitrogen(I) oxide, N2O, nitrogen(II) oxide, NO, and carbon monoxide, CO, are all non-metal oxides. They do not react with acids or bases. Which statement is correct? They are basic oxides. They are amphoteric oxides They are acidic oxides. They are neutral oxides. 8 / 40 Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct? They are atoms with the same number of outer electrons They are elements with the same chemical properties. They are molecules with the same boiling point. They are compounds with the same functional group 9 / 40 Which statements about acids and bases are correct? 1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen. 2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia. 3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide. 4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange. 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 10 / 40 Which substance is a natural polymer? protein nylon ethene Terylene 11 / 40 In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction Both gains electron(s) loss electron(s) 12 / 40 R (an acidic oxide) – S (sodium nitrate) R (a basic oxide) – S (sodium nitrate) R (a basic oxide) – S (ammonium chloride) R (an acidic oxide) – S (ammonium chloride) 13 / 40 The exhaust gases from cars contain oxides of nitrogen. How are these oxides of nitrogen formed? Nitrogen and oxygen from the air react together at the high temperatures in the engine Nitrogen from the petrol reacts with oxygen at the high temperatures in the engine. Nitrogen reacts with oxygen from the air in the catalytic converter. Nitrogen and oxygen from the petrol react together in the car exhaust. 14 / 40 A C B D 15 / 40 Z only W, X and Y Y only W and X only 16 / 40 The halogens are the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Predict the physical state and colour of astatine at room temperature and pressure. What is the physical state & colour? Solid – White Solid – Black Liquid – White Liquid – Black 17 / 40 They are all carbon-based molecules. They all contain bromine, carbon and hydrogen. They all contain the same functional group. They are all saturated molecules. 18 / 40 Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change. Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the dissolving of ammonium chloride? energy change (energy is released) – temperature change (increase) energy change (energy is absorbed) – temperature change (increase) energy change (energy is released) – temperature change (decrease) energy change (energy is absorbed) – temperature change (decrease) 19 / 40 The results of two tests on a solution of compound Q are shown. Test Observation add ammonia solution green precipitate formed add dilute nitric acid followed by aqueous barium nitrate white precipitate formed What is Q? iron(III) sulfate iron(II) sulfate iron(II) chloride iron(III) chloride 20 / 40 Which statement about pure water is not correct? It freezes at 0 °C. It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue. It condenses at 100 °C. It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue. 21 / 40 The names and formulae for some compounds are shown. aluminium nitrate, Al(NO3)3 magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2 sodium nitrate, NaNO3 What is the formula for calcium nitrate CaNo2 Ca(NO3)2 Ca(NO) Ca(NO)2 22 / 40 Which statement about an atom of fluorine, 199F, is correct? Its isotopes contain different numbers of protons. It contains a total of 28 protons, neutrons and electrons. It contains more protons than neutrons. Its nucleus contains 9 neutrons. 23 / 40 The gases Ar, CO2, N2 and O2 are in clean, dry air. CO, NO, NO2 and SO2 are gases commonly found in polluted air. What percentage of clean, dry air is N2? Give your answer to the nearest whole number. Check 24 / 40 Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct? Ionic bonding involves sharing of pairs of electrons. Sodium ions have an equal number of protons and electrons. Caesium atoms gain electrons to form negatively charged caesium ions. Potassium ions and chloride ions have the same number of outer-shell electrons. 25 / 40 Farmers add calcium oxide (lime) and ammonium salts to their fields. The compounds are not added at the same time because they react with each other. Which gas is produced in this reaction? hydrogen carbon dioxide nitrogen ammonia 26 / 40 The formula of which compound contains the largest number of Group VII atoms? Al(BrO3)3 Cl 2O6 NaFC2H2O2 C13H13IO8 27 / 40 The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of the element with the mass of one atom of element Q. What is Q? oxygen carbon chlorine hydrogen 28 / 40 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant? Layers in the structure can slide over each other. All bonds between the atoms are weak. It conducts electricity. It has a low melting point. 29 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? methane, CH4 water, H2O ammonia, NH3 chlorine, Cl2 30 / 40 Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X? hydrated copper(II) sulfate calcium carbonate lead(II) bromide anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride 31 / 40 Which pair of formulae represents two alkanes? C2H6 and C5H8 C3H6 and C5H12 C10H8 and C4H8 CH4 and C8H18 32 / 40 Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting? 1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal. 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 1 and 3 33 / 40 Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water? 50 cm3 measuring cylinder 50 cm3 burette 25 cm3 beaker 25 cm3 pipette 34 / 40 Which statement about the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct? Reactivity increases down Group VII. Group VII elements occur as monoatomic covalent molecules. Group VII elements are all solids at room temperature. Chlorine can displace bromine from bromides. 35 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide Check 36 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 only 37 / 40 When aqueous ammonia is added to aqueous iron(II) sulfate a green precipitate is seen. This green precipitate turns red-brown at the surface. Name the green precipitate. Check 38 / 40 Check 39 / 40 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? photosynthesis fermentation respiration combustion of fossil fuels 40 / 40 Which statement about atomic structure is correct? Isotopes have a different nucleon number but the same proton number. The nucleon number is the total number of electrons and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom. Metal atoms gain electrons to achieve a noble gas electronic structure. Protons and neutrons are oppositely charged particles. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Why is aluminium metal unreactive with air?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is extracted from an ore called bauxite
This question is about compounds of nitrogen. Aqueous ammonia is alkaline. Which one of the following pH values could be the pH of aqueous ammonia? Which is the correct answer. pH 1 pH 5 pH 7 pH 9
Which process is a physical change?
2.00 g of powdered calcium carbonate is added to 50.0 cm3 of hydrochloric acid. Which apparatus is used to measure the calcium carbonate and the hydrochloric acid?
Nitrogen(I) oxide, N2O, nitrogen(II) oxide, NO, and carbon monoxide, CO, are all non-metal oxides. They do not react with acids or bases. Which statement is correct?
Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct?
Which statements about acids and bases are correct? 1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen. 2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia. 3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide. 4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange.
Which substance is a natural polymer?
In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction
The exhaust gases from cars contain oxides of nitrogen. How are these oxides of nitrogen formed?
The halogens are the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Predict the physical state and colour of astatine at room temperature and pressure. What is the physical state & colour?
Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change. Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the dissolving of ammonium chloride?
The results of two tests on a solution of compound Q are shown.
What is Q?
Which statement about pure water is not correct?
The names and formulae for some compounds are shown. aluminium nitrate, Al(NO3)3 magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2 sodium nitrate, NaNO3 What is the formula for calcium nitrate
Which statement about an atom of fluorine, 199F, is correct?
The gases Ar, CO2, N2 and O2 are in clean, dry air. CO, NO, NO2 and SO2 are gases commonly found in polluted air. What percentage of clean, dry air is N2? Give your answer to the nearest whole number.
Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct?
Farmers add calcium oxide (lime) and ammonium salts to their fields. The compounds are not added at the same time because they react with each other. Which gas is produced in this reaction?
The formula of which compound contains the largest number of Group VII atoms?
The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of the element with the mass of one atom of element Q. What is Q?
Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X?
Which pair of formulae represents two alkanes?
Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting?
1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal.
Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water?
Which statement about the elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
When aqueous ammonia is added to aqueous iron(II) sulfate a green precipitate is seen. This green precipitate turns red-brown at the surface. Name the green precipitate.
Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
Which statement about atomic structure is correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct? They have the same mass. They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell. They have the same number of neutrons They are all radioactive. 2 / 40 Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P. What is P? methane ethane yeast ethene 3 / 40 Which three elements are needed in fertilisers? calcium, nitrogen and phosphorus potassium, phosphorus and carbon potassium, nitrogen and phosphorus carbon, potassium and nitrogen 4 / 40 P, Q, R and S are four organic compounds. P is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Q burns but otherwise is unreactive. R contains a C–C single bond and a C=C double bond. S undergoes addition polymerisation. Which compounds are alkenes? P, Q and S P and R only Q, R and S P, R and S 5 / 40 Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct? The amount of product present is no longer affected by changes in temperature or pressure. Neither the forward nor the backward reaction is proceeding. The amount of product present is only affected by a change in pressure. Both the forward and the backward reactions are proceeding at the same rate 6 / 40 Which statement explains why the noble gas helium is unreactive? It has a complete outer shell of electrons. It has two protons in the nucleus. It has the same number of protons and neutrons. It has the same number of protons, electrons and neutrons. 7 / 40 Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature? carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide chlorine and fluorine nitrogen and oxygen carbon monoxide and nitrogen 8 / 40 The nucleus of a particular atom consists of nineteen particles. Nine of them are positively charged and ten of them are uncharged. Which statement about this nucleus is correct? The nucleus has a proton number of nine. The nucleus has a proton number of ten. The nucleus has a nucleon number of ten. The nucleus has a nucleon number of nine. 9 / 40 Which statements about strong acids are correct? 1 They have a high concentration of OH– ions. 2 They have a pH value of 1. 3 They completely ionise in water. 4 They turn red litmus blue. 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 2 and 3 10 / 40 Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide. 1 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 11 / 40 Which statement about metals and their uses is correct? Iron is used to make cooking utensils because it is easily recycled. Iron is used to make electrical wires because it is a good insulator of electricity. Aluminium is used to make food containers because it is resistant to corrosion. Aluminium is used to make aircraft wings because it is strong and has a high density. 12 / 40 2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M? 48 128 96 192 13 / 40 Which gas has the fastest rate of diffusion? SO2 CO2 CH4 H2 14 / 40 Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide? reduction oxidation endothermic combustion 15 / 40 Which products are formed when magnesium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid? magnesium chloride, hydrogen and water magnesium chloride and hydrogen only magnesium chloride and water only magnesium chloride, carbon dioxide and water 16 / 40 Water is removed from reservoirs and undergoes several stages of treatment to make it suitable for drinking. Which statements about the stages are correct? 1 Chlorine is added to the water to kill harmful bacteria. 2 Water is heated to remove dissolved oxygen gas. 3 Water is filtered to remove solids. 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 1 and 3 17 / 40 Metal M is mixed with copper to produce brass. What is M? chromium nickel zinc vanadium 18 / 40 Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic character. Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period? The atoms have more electrons in their outer shells. The charge on the nucleus of each atom gets larger. The atoms more readily gain electrons to form negative ions. The atoms more readily lose electrons to form positive ions 19 / 40 Which equation for the decomposition of calcium nitrate is correct? 2Ca(NO3)2→ 2CaO + 2NO2 + O2 2Ca(NO3)2→ 2CaO + 4NO2+ O2 Ca(NO3)2 → CaO + 2NO2 + O2 Ca(NO3)2 → CaO + NO2 + O 20 / 40 The equations for two reactions are shown. 1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2) 2H2 + O2 →2H2O Which statement about the reactions is correct? Heat energy is released during reaction 2 but absorbed during reaction 1. Heat energy is released during both these reactions. Heat energy is released during reaction 1 but absorbed during reaction 2. Heat energy is absorbed during both these reactions. 21 / 40 In the preparation of zinc sulfate crystals, excess zinc oxide is added to dilute sulfuric acid. Why is an excess of zinc oxide added? to make sure crystals are formed and not powder to use up all of the sulfuric acid to avoid filtering the mixture to use up all of the zinc oxide 22 / 40 Which gas is released when slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is added to a field that has previously been treated with ammonium sulfate fertiliser? sulfur dioxide ammonia nitrogen carbon dioxide 23 / 40 Compound Z contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Molecules of compound Z have four hydrogen atoms and two carbon atoms. Compound Z can be made by oxidation of an alcohol. What is compound Z? ethene methyl methanoate ethanoic acid ethanol 24 / 40 Copper is used to make saucepans. Which properties of copper make it suitable for this use? 1 Copper has a relatively high melting point. 2 Copper has a low density. 3 Copper is a good conductor of electricity. 4 Copper is a good conductor of heat. 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 4 25 / 40 Which reaction is a photochemical reaction? addition of bromine to propene substitution of methane with chlorine oxidation of ethanol esterification of ethanol and ethanoic acid 26 / 40 Which process produces methane? decomposition of vegetation respiration reaction between hydrochloric acid and calcium carbonate combustion of hydrocarbons 27 / 40 Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide? It turns blue litmus red. It turns universal indicator green. It produces a gas when it is warmed with ammonium chloride. It has a pH less than pH 7. 28 / 40 Two isotopes of carbon are 12C and 14C. Which statement about these two isotopes is correct? Their electronic structure is different. They have different numbers of protons. They have different numbers of nucleons. They have the same number of neutrons. 29 / 40 Which monomer molecules are used to make poly(ethene)? C2H4 C2H6 C4H8 C3H6 30 / 40 Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of the reaction? Particles have more energy so there are more frequent collisions. There are more particles in the same volume so there are more frequent collisions. A greater proportion of the particles have the activation energy so there are more successful collisions. The particles move more quickly so there are more frequent collisions. 31 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O 32 / 40 Which statement about rate of reaction is correct? Decreasing particle size increases the rate of reaction. Decreasing temperature increases the rate of reaction. Catalysts increase the time for the reaction to be completed. Rate of reaction decreases as the concentration increases. 33 / 40 Which statement describes a polymer? It is a covalent molecule obtained by fractional distillation. It is a small molecule formed by splitting up a larger molecule. It is a large molecule made from joining many monomer molecules together. It is a large covalent molecule obtained by cracking. 34 / 40 What is the relative formula mass of magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2 ? 74 134 86 148 35 / 40 What happens to a chemical substance when it is reduced? It decomposes. It burns. It gains mass. It loses oxygen. 36 / 40 Which type of compound is made when a protein is hydrolysed? sugar carboxylic acid amino acid alkene 37 / 40 Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation? iron platinum phosphoric acid yeast 38 / 40 Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S. The results are shown. 1) Magnesium does not react with the solution. 2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution. 3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution. What is S? sodium hydroxide sodium chloride sulfur dioxide hydrochloric acid 39 / 40 What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1? It loses an electron. It loses a proton. It gains a proton. It gains an electron. 40 / 40 Which statements about the products of electrolysis, using inert electrodes, are correct? 1 When molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed, bromine is formed at the cathode. 2 When dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed, oxygen is formed at the anode. 3 When concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed, sodium is formed at the cathode. 4 When concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed, chlorine is formed at the anode. 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?
Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P. What is P?
Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?
P, Q, R and S are four organic compounds. P is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Q burns but otherwise is unreactive. R contains a C–C single bond and a C=C double bond. S undergoes addition polymerisation. Which compounds are alkenes?
Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct?
Which statement explains why the noble gas helium is unreactive?
Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature?
The nucleus of a particular atom consists of nineteen particles. Nine of them are positively charged and ten of them are uncharged. Which statement about this nucleus is correct?
Which statements about strong acids are correct? 1 They have a high concentration of OH– ions. 2 They have a pH value of 1. 3 They completely ionise in water. 4 They turn red litmus blue.
Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide.
Which statement about metals and their uses is correct?
2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M?
Which gas has the fastest rate of diffusion?
Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide?
Which products are formed when magnesium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid?
Water is removed from reservoirs and undergoes several stages of treatment to make it suitable for drinking. Which statements about the stages are correct? 1 Chlorine is added to the water to kill harmful bacteria. 2 Water is heated to remove dissolved oxygen gas. 3 Water is filtered to remove solids.
Metal M is mixed with copper to produce brass. What is M?
Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic character. Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period?
Which equation for the decomposition of calcium nitrate is correct?
The equations for two reactions are shown. 1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2) 2H2 + O2 →2H2O Which statement about the reactions is correct?
In the preparation of zinc sulfate crystals, excess zinc oxide is added to dilute sulfuric acid. Why is an excess of zinc oxide added?
Which gas is released when slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is added to a field that has previously been treated with ammonium sulfate fertiliser?
Compound Z contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Molecules of compound Z have four hydrogen atoms and two carbon atoms. Compound Z can be made by oxidation of an alcohol. What is compound Z?
Copper is used to make saucepans. Which properties of copper make it suitable for this use? 1 Copper has a relatively high melting point. 2 Copper has a low density. 3 Copper is a good conductor of electricity. 4 Copper is a good conductor of heat.
Which reaction is a photochemical reaction?
Which process produces methane?
Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide?
Two isotopes of carbon are 12C and 14C. Which statement about these two isotopes is correct?
Which monomer molecules are used to make poly(ethene)?
Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of the reaction?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
Which statement about rate of reaction is correct?
Which statement describes a polymer?
What is the relative formula mass of magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2 ?
What happens to a chemical substance when it is reduced?
Which type of compound is made when a protein is hydrolysed?
Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation?
Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S. The results are shown. 1) Magnesium does not react with the solution. 2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution. 3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution. What is S?
What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1?
Which statements about the products of electrolysis, using inert electrodes, are correct? 1 When molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed, bromine is formed at the cathode. 2 When dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed, oxygen is formed at the anode. 3 When concentrated aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed, sodium is formed at the cathode. 4 When concentrated hydrochloric acid is electrolysed, chlorine is formed at the anode.
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? The real rate of interest is negative. Prices are falling. The rate of price increases is falling. There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. 2 / 30 Which pair of economic institutions can be found in a market economy? monopolies and commercial banks local government and charities nationalised industries and partnerships stock exchange and public corporations 3 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? social welfare efficiency profit maximisation growth 4 / 30 a recession the use of previously unemployed resources a change in what consumers want to buy more investment 5 / 30 Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers? Low-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax High-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax. Low-income purchasers and high-income purchasers pay the same percentage of their income in tax. High-income purchasers pay a higher percentage of their income in tax 6 / 30 An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean? It was facing a recession. Total demand was rising. Price levels were falling. Unemployment was falling. 7 / 30 An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary? Commercial banks restricted their lending. Its own dollar no longer acted as a store of value. The central bank controlled the issue of money too tightly. Consumers only used credit cards rather than paper money. 8 / 30 Producers are unable to respond to a price rise. Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue. There are 20 people able to buy the product. The product is one with many substitutes 9 / 30 The US imposed tariffs on cars and motorcycles from Germany. What is the effect of these tariffs? decrease in inflation in the US decrease in trade between the US and Germany increase in profits of car and motorcycle producers from Germany increase in standards of living in the US and in Germany 10 / 30 B C A D 11 / 30 It is expected that consumers will use less paper money. What is the most likely reason for this? Other forms of money are more durable. More ways of making payments will be available. Paper money will have less intrinsic value. Inflation reduces the value of paper money. 12 / 30 The standard rate for Value Added Tax (sales tax) is 20% in a country. Different consumers buying the same product have to pay the same amount of tax. What kind of tax is this? progressive proportional regressive direct 13 / 30 C D B A 14 / 30 Y → Z → X Z → X → Y Y → X → Z Z → Y → X 15 / 30 2013–2014 2015–2016 2012–2013 2014–2015 16 / 30 A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur? an increase in absolute poverty a reduction in imports a reduction in the number of doctors per capita an increase in incomes 17 / 30 Supply is perfectly elastic. Price elasticity of supply is 2.5 Price elasticity of supply is 0.4. There is unit elasticity. 18 / 30 Why might a government decide to subsidise a high-cost steel industry? if economic growth is increasing due to the success of other industries if cheaper imports of steel are improving the balance of payments if redundant steel workers can easily be retrained if unemployment in steel producing areas is increasing 19 / 30 A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers? capital and enterprise labour and land enterprise and labour land and capital 20 / 30 A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours? the additional time travelling to and from work the ten hours of leisure time the increased hourly earnings of $7.50 the ability to increase his purchasing power 21 / 30 What is the definition of diseconomies of scale? the increase in average total costs as output increases the decrease in fixed cost as output increases the increase in total costs as output increases the decrease in average revenue as output increases 22 / 30 What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday? the rubbish created during the holiday which affects the local community the price paid for an air ticket to the holiday destination the potential interest earned if the holiday money had been saved the satisfaction that the consumer gains from the holiday 23 / 30 What could discourage women from seeking employment? More education and training are provided. More flexible and part-time jobs are available. There are fewer promotion opportunities for women. There is a shift in employment to the services sector 24 / 30 A D C B 25 / 30 What is included in the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? population size life expectancy at birth level of net immigration rate of population growth 26 / 30 What might cause consumers in a high-income economy to both save more and spend more? expectation that prices will fall in the future an increase in the rate of interest an increase in wealth inflation rising at a faster rate than wages 27 / 30 U + X U + V + X + Y U + V + W U + V 28 / 30 $150 $50 $40 $100 29 / 30 Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics? the relationship between the output of a firm and its costs of production the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity demanded by a consumer the relationship between the wage rate of workers and demand for labour in an occupation 30 / 30 B C A D NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information?
2 / 30
Which pair of economic institutions can be found in a market economy?
3 / 30
A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?
4 / 30
5 / 30
Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers?
6 / 30
An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean?
7 / 30
An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary?
8 / 30
9 / 30
The US imposed tariffs on cars and motorcycles from Germany. What is the effect of these tariffs?
10 / 30
11 / 30
It is expected that consumers will use less paper money. What is the most likely reason for this?
12 / 30
The standard rate for Value Added Tax (sales tax) is 20% in a country. Different consumers buying the same product have to pay the same amount of tax. What kind of tax is this?
13 / 30
14 / 30
15 / 30
16 / 30
A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur?
17 / 30
18 / 30
Why might a government decide to subsidise a high-cost steel industry?
19 / 30
A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?
20 / 30
A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours?
21 / 30
What is the definition of diseconomies of scale?
22 / 30
What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday?
23 / 30
What could discourage women from seeking employment?
24 / 30
25 / 30
What is included in the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?
26 / 30
What might cause consumers in a high-income economy to both save more and spend more?
27 / 30
28 / 30
29 / 30
Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics?
30 / 30
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 C A D B 2 / 30 A country specialises in the production of steel, toys and textiles. What is a disadvantage of specialisation for the country’s workers? They could become structurally unemployed if global demand changes. They cannot afford to buy products from other countries. They have too much choice which wastes their time. They have to learn a variety of skills. 3 / 30 Which topic is not included in microeconomics? consumer demand inflation economies of scale forms of competition 4 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the level of taxation the income of the family the reliability of banks the rate of inflation 5 / 30 In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this? a fall in infant mortality but no change in the death rate the death rate fell with no change in migration no change in migration but the death rate rose a rise in net immigration but no change in the death rate 6 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 7 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The good will become cheaper in the US. The US government’s revenue will decline. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 8 / 30 Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it rises? proportionate progressive indirect regressive 9 / 30 In recent years some central banks have reduced interest rates below 1% per year. What is the purpose of this monetary policy? to encourage investment to stimulate the economy to discourage lending by the commercial banks to reduce inflation to increase individual savings 10 / 30 Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses? long period of training required low start-up and running costs high scope for economies of scale high level of competition 11 / 30 Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985. All occupations were better off in 2015 than in 1985. Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015. Professionals received higher percentage increases in income than manual workers. 12 / 30 The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this? The supply of capital will decrease. The price of capital will fall. The costs of production will increase. The demand for capital will increase. 13 / 30 A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car? US$20 000 US$22 500 US$27 500 US$25 000 14 / 30 Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm? higher labour productivity greater mechanisation longer training times higher skill levels 15 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. The real rate of interest is negative. The rate of price increases is falling. Prices are falling. 16 / 30 In recent years, a government has started to make more use of the free market system. However, they are doing it very slowly to avoid the disadvantages that a free market system might bring. What is a possible disadvantage of the free market system? decreased incentive to work decreased levels of pollution increased inequality of income increased efficiency 17 / 30 What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation? an increase in household consumption an increase in government spending on education an increase in wages and salaries an increase in the balance of payments surplus 18 / 30 $30 $80 $20 $60 19 / 30 What is the definition of foreign exchange rate? the difference between emigration and immigration the difference between the values of imports and exports the price of one good in terms of another the price of one currency in terms of another 20 / 30 Supply exceeds demand by 400 000 tonnes Demand exceeds supply by 400 000 tonnes. Supply exceeds demand by 200 000 tonnes. Demand exceeds supply by 200 000 tonnes. 21 / 30 QR QS PQ PS 22 / 30 A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country? It has the world’s biggest economy It has the world’s highest standard of living. It has the world’s greatest size of population. It has the world’s fastest economic growth rate. 23 / 30 A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this? horizontal vertical backwards vertical forwards conglomerate 24 / 30 Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases? average variable cost total variable cost average total cost average fixed cost 25 / 30 The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve? monetary policy and supply-side policy only fiscal policy and supply-side policy only monetary policy, supply-side policy and fiscal policy fiscal policy and monetary policy only 26 / 30 Which policy is most likely to reduce relative poverty? make income tax rates less progressive reduce the minimum wage reduce benefit payments reduce the rate of sales tax 27 / 30 Y → Z → X Z → Y → X Y → X → Z Z → X → Y 28 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? profit maximisation social welfare growth efficiency 29 / 30 Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run? grants to firms to research new technology a reduction in the standard rate of income tax a programme of privatisation removal of all restrictions on imports into the country 30 / 30 B D C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
A country specialises in the production of steel, toys and textiles. What is a disadvantage of specialisation for the country’s workers?
Which topic is not included in microeconomics?
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this?
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it rises?
In recent years some central banks have reduced interest rates below 1% per year. What is the purpose of this monetary policy?
Why are many hairdressers able to operate as small businesses?
The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this?
A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?
Which result of increased specialisation in a firm is an advantage for the firm, but a disadvantage for some of the workers in the firm?
In recent years, a government has started to make more use of the free market system. However, they are doing it very slowly to avoid the disadvantages that a free market system might bring. What is a possible disadvantage of the free market system?
What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation?
What is the definition of foreign exchange rate?
A country has the highest GDP per head in the world. What is this information most likely to suggest about the country?
A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this?
Which cost of production falls continuously as output increases?
The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve?
Which policy is most likely to reduce relative poverty?
Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 1 only 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 2 / 40 Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure? thermal energy thermal expansion thermal capacity thermal conduction 3 / 40 vertically upwards at 20cm to the left of X vertically downwards at 20cm to the right of X vertically upwards at 20cm to the right of X vertically downwards at 20cm to the left of X 4 / 40 A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity? The skydiver’s speed is zero. The skydiver’s speed is decreasing. The skydiver’s speed is increasing. The skydiver is moving with constant speed. 5 / 40 The mass of an empty flask is 34 g. The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3. The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g. What is the density of the liquid? 2.50 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.25 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 4.20 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.80 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 6 / 40 C A D B 7 / 40 the length of the pointer the length of the roller the length of the steel bar the thickness of the roller 8 / 40 0.67 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.60 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.5 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.7 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 9 / 40 120 s 200 s 90 s 400 s 10 / 40 A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom? on the orbiting particles spread throughout the atom in the nucleus in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles 11 / 40 B A C D 12 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 40W 400W 40 000W 4000W 13 / 40 B A C D 14 / 40 D B C A 15 / 40 C D A B 16 / 40 resistor, thermistor and bell lamp, voltmeter and switch switch, variable resistor and heater switch, heater and fuse 17 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. 18 / 40 The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids? 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 19 / 40 manometer galvanometer barometer newton meter 20 / 40 the surface area of the water the depth of the water at X the thickness of the dam wall the length of the reservoir 21 / 40 One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod? Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end. Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end. Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end. Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end. 22 / 40 The speed of the object is decreasing with constant deceleration. The speed of the object is decreasing with a deceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is increasing with an acceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is increasing with constant acceleration. 23 / 40 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor? light-dependent resistor motor thermistor relay 24 / 40 2.0 N 7.0 N 14N 10N 25 / 40 A D C B 26 / 40 Both X and Y are repelled by the coil. X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled. Both X and Y are attracted to the coil. X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted. 27 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. 28 / 40 All three readings are the same. I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2. I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3. I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3 29 / 40 C B D A 30 / 40 C B D A 31 / 40 An object is moved from point X to point Y. The acceleration of free fall at X is different from that at Y. Which statement about the object at Y is correct? Its weight is the same as at X but its mass is different. Both its mass and its weight are different from those at X Both its mass and its weight are the same as those at X Its mass is the same as at X but its weight is different. 32 / 40 P, Q, R and S Q, R and S only R only Q and S only 33 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? infrared waves radio waves visible light ultraviolet waves 34 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The current in each lamp is different. 35 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of protons only. 36 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 5.0 m 300 m 0.20 m 18 000 m 37 / 40 B C D A 38 / 40 A D C B 39 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. 40 / 40 12 cm / s 48 cm / s 72 cm / s 3.0 cm / s NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?
A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity?
The mass of an empty flask is 34 g. The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3. The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g. What is the density of the liquid?
A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom?
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids?
One end of a copper rod is heated. What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?
An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor?
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
An object is moved from point X to point Y. The acceleration of free fall at X is different from that at Y. Which statement about the object at Y is correct?
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A D C B 2 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of protons only. 3 / 40 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction? steel rubber copper plastic 4 / 40 B C A D 5 / 40 A D C B 6 / 40 An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct? A resultant force acts on the object in the direction it is travelling. A resultant force acts on the object towards the centre of the circle. A resultant force acts on the object outwards from the centre of the circle. There is no resultant force acting on the object because it is moving at constant speed. 7 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number 8 / 40 C B A D 9 / 40 40 cm3 20 cm3 80 cm3 10 cm3 10 / 40 the length of the roller the length of the steel bar the length of the pointer the thickness of the roller 11 / 40 12V 2.0V 48V 4400V 12 / 40 A B D C 13 / 40 thermistor variable resistor relay coil light-dependent resistor 14 / 40 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred? a heavy load hanging from a strong bar a car skidding to a stop on a road a crane lifting a load a student dragging a big box over a rough floor 15 / 40 D B A C 16 / 40 B D C A 17 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The frequency of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The colour of the light changes. The amplitude of the light changes. 18 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? Radioactive materials have a half-life. The radiation given out is ionising. Radioactive decay is a random process. γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum 19 / 40 C B D A 20 / 40 Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement? The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water. The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles. The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles. 21 / 40 A D B C 22 / 40 D A C B 23 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? visible light rays ultraviolet rays infrared rays gamma rays 24 / 40 A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field. Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct? α-particles deflect, but β-particles do not deflect. Both α-particles and β-particles deflect in the same direction. β-particles deflect, but α-particles do not deflect. α-particles deflect in the opposite direction to β-particles. 25 / 40 D B A C 26 / 40 A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block? 46 J 12 000 000J 12 000J 46 000J 27 / 40 A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery? 680A 30 kg 216 kJ 12V 28 / 40 Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track? to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day 29 / 40 a wire of greater length with the same diameter a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter a wire of the same length with a larger diameter 30 / 40 The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more frequently. The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly. The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly. The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller. 31 / 40 B C D A 32 / 40 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person? 0.02 m 7 000 000m 60 m 20 000 m 33 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? radio waves infrared waves visible light ultraviolet waves 34 / 40 C D B A 35 / 40 B A C D 36 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.31 m / s 0.0 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.19 m / s 37 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 2.0N 4.0N 7.0N 6.0N 38 / 40 C D A B 39 / 40 B D A C 40 / 40 B C D A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?
An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct?
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?
Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement?
Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum?
A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field. Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct?
A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block?
A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery?
Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?
What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a normal healthy person?
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C B D A 2 / 40 C A D B 3 / 40 B A D C 4 / 40 D B C A 5 / 40 Most cars burn fossil fuels to release energy for their movement. Which characteristic of living organisms is similar to this? nutrition growth respiration excretion 6 / 40 What is the definition of diffusion? the downward movement of particles in the atmosphere the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient the movement of particles from a hotter to a cooler region the movement of particles down a concentration gradient 7 / 40 What is the function of valves in the circulatory system? to ensure blood only flows one way to act as a pump to provide a large surface area to stop blood vessels bursting 8 / 40 Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct? They are hard solids. They change from metallic to non-metallic down the group. They become more reactive down the group. They react with water to form oxygen. 9 / 40 Which substance does not react with chlorine? Li H2 Kr NaBr 10 / 40 B D A C 11 / 40 The amount of carbon dioxide increases. The amount of oxygen decreases. The amount of nitrogen increases. The amount of carbon dioxide decreases. 12 / 40 Barium hydroxide is an alkali. Which statement about barium hydroxide is correct? It reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide. It has a pH greater than 7 in aqueous solution. It reacts with metal carbonates. It turns Universal Indicator red 13 / 40 C B D A 14 / 40 Which statements about the reactivity series of metals are correct? Iron is higher in the reactivity series than copper because it cannot be extracted from its oxide using carbon. Sodium is higher in the reactivity series than copper because it has a greater tendency to form positive ions. Magnesium is higher in the reactivity series than zinc because it can displace zinc ions from aqueous solution. 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 15 / 40 Which substances conduct electricity when molten? sodium chloride naphtha brass 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 16 / 40 A C B D 17 / 40 Iodine is a non-metal. It is a solid at room temperature. What is a property of iodine? It is brittle. It can be stretched into a wire. It is a good conductor of heat. It is a good conductor of electricity. 18 / 40 The mass of a solid object is 1.6 kg and the volume of the object is 80 cm3. What is the density of the object? 0.20 kg/ cm3 50 kg/ cm3 5.0 kg/ cm3 0.020 kg/ cm3 19 / 40 Which groups of the Periodic Table form compounds containing covalent bonds? Group V and Group 0 Group V and Group VII Group I and Group 0 Group I and Group VII 20 / 40 D A B C 21 / 40 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 22 / 40 What is used to identify chlorine? limewater a glowing splint a lighted splint damp litmus paper 23 / 40 In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers? increased carbon dioxide availability increased decomposition increased oxygen availability increased nitrate ion availability 24 / 40 A B C D 25 / 40 Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources? geothermal, nuclear, solar geothermal, solar, wind nuclear, solar, wind oil, geothermal, solar 26 / 40 A D B C 27 / 40 A C B D 28 / 40 A D C B 29 / 40 A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase? removing the load wearing skis to stand on the ground lifting one foot off the ground lying flat on the ground 30 / 40 C A D B 31 / 40 A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean. A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is received back at the boat. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. How deep is the ocean under the boat? 6600 m 680 m 340 m 3300 m 32 / 40 Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperatures. carbon + carbon dioxide →carbon monoxide Which statement about the reaction is correct? The carbon is oxidised and the carbon dioxide is reduced. Both carbon and carbon dioxide are reduced. Both carbon and carbon dioxide are oxidised The carbon is reduced and the carbon dioxide is oxidised. 33 / 40 combustion fossilisation respiration photosynthesis 34 / 40 Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station? It is the only power station that does not use steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that does not use a renewable form of energy. It is the only power station that uses steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that uses a renewable form of energy. 35 / 40 A large quantity of damp iron filings is added to clean air in a sealed container. The container is left for several weeks. The composition of the air in the container changes. Which gas decreases in composition? nitrogen carbon dioxide argon oxygen 36 / 40 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct? Both hydrogen and oxygen are produced at the negative electrode Oxygen is produced at the positive electrode. Sulfur dioxide is produced at the cathode. Hydrogen is produced at the anode. 37 / 40 What are properties of transition elements? They can act as catalysts. They only form white compounds. They have high densities. 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 38 / 40 B A C D 39 / 40 A B C D 40 / 40 C A D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Most cars burn fossil fuels to release energy for their movement. Which characteristic of living organisms is similar to this?
What is the definition of diffusion?
What is the function of valves in the circulatory system?
Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct?
Which substance does not react with chlorine?
Barium hydroxide is an alkali. Which statement about barium hydroxide is correct?
Which statements about the reactivity series of metals are correct?
Which substances conduct electricity when molten?
Iodine is a non-metal. It is a solid at room temperature. What is a property of iodine?
The mass of a solid object is 1.6 kg and the volume of the object is 80 cm3. What is the density of the object?
Which groups of the Periodic Table form compounds containing covalent bonds?
What is used to identify chlorine?
In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers?
Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources?
A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase?
A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean. A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is received back at the boat. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. How deep is the ocean under the boat?
Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperatures. carbon + carbon dioxide →carbon monoxide Which statement about the reaction is correct?
Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station?
A large quantity of damp iron filings is added to clean air in a sealed container. The container is left for several weeks. The composition of the air in the container changes. Which gas decreases in composition?
Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which statement is correct?
What are properties of transition elements?
