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Accounting (9-1) (0985)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (9-1) (0985)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a trade discount.

Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a cash discount.

Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a cash discount.

Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a trade discount

2 / 35

The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a
year. Mark-up was 20%.
What was the revenue for the year?

$160 000

$240 000

$250 000

$200 000

3 / 35

Tarek produced a statement of affairs at 31 December year 1 and at 31 December year 2.
During year 2, his long-term loan increased by $3000 and his net current assets decreased by
$1000. Depreciation for the year was $500.
By how much did the total of Tarek’s capital decrease?

$3500

$2500

$4500

$4000

4 / 35

Sally’s business has reached the overdraft limit set by the bank of $1500 and is not able to pay its
debts when they fall due.
Sally is considering the following proposals.

1 asking the bank to increase the bank overdraft limit to $2000
2 borrowing $2000 from a relative and paying the money back in six months
3 obtaining a loan from the bank of $2000 repayable in two years
4 paying $2000 from Sally’s personal bank account into the business bank account
Which proposals will improve the working capital of the business?

3 and 4

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 4

5 / 35

A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to
pay its debts.
Which statement is correct?

Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the value of shares owned.

Shareholders would have to sell their personal possessions to pay the debts of the company

Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the number of shares owned.

Shareholders would lose the money that was paid when the shares were first purchased.

6 / 35

What does the objective of understandability assume users of financial statements will possess?

full knowledge of accounting

knowledge of book-keeping but not accounting

a reasonable knowledge of accounting

no knowledge of book-keeping or accounting

7 / 35

Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5%
of trade receivables.
On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables
owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable.
How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?

$660

$670

$600

$640

8 / 35

C

A

D

B

9 / 35

Which accounting principle states that revenue should not be recorded before it is earned?

matching

consistency

realisation

money measurement

10 / 35

Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct?

It is a book of prime entry.

It records cash discounts.

It is a ledger account for cash transactions only.

It is a ledger account for bank transactions only.

11 / 35

A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60.
During the year ended 31 August 2021:
12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year
10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year.
On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from
8 members.
What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021?

$6840

$5160

$6600

$5640

12 / 35

B

A

C

D

13 / 35

B

C

A

D

14 / 35

Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5%
of trade receivables.
On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables
owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable.
How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?

$660

$640

$600

$670

15 / 35

$7000 profit

$7000 loss

$1000 profit

$1000 loss

16 / 35

Which error is an error of original entry?

sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered in the sales account and Janet’s account

sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 not entered in any accounts

sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered in the office equipment account and Jason’s account

sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered as $320 in both the disposal account and Janet’s account

17 / 35

$17 000

$13 000

$32 000

$6000

18 / 35

Javid’s sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $12000. Interest on an overdue
account, $40, and discount allowed, $150, had been omitted.
What was the correct balance on the sales ledger control account?

$12 190

$12 110

$11 890

$11 810

19 / 35

Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal.
How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month?

debit purchases returns account

credit purchases returns account

debit sales returns account

credit sales returns account

20 / 35

$71 000

$70 200

$67 900

$72 400

21 / 35

Which statement is not true about a trial balance?

It can assist in finding arithmetical errors.

It is part of the double entry system.

It is useful in preparing financial statements.

It is a list of ledger account balances at a certain date.

22 / 35

C

A

D

B

23 / 35

The totals of a trial balance failed to agree. The total of the credit column was $10 000. Two
errors were later found.
The sales journal had been overcast by $100.
Goods sold to Sarah on credit for $200 had been incorrectly debited to Zara.
What was the total of the debit column of the trial balance?

$9700

$10 100

$10 300

$9900

24 / 35

Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained?

purchases ledger

sales ledger

purchases journal

sales journal

25 / 35

$17 270

$14 890

$15 270

$13 920

26 / 35

What is the purpose of a partnership appropriation account?

to calculate partners’ salaries

to show the distribution of profits between partners

to record partners’ drawings

to show the movement on partners’ capital accounts

27 / 35

D

C

B

A

28 / 35

Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader?

gross profit, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital

operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital

gross profit, non-current liabilities, working capital

operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, working capital

29 / 35

Which statement about club accounts is correct?

Capital and revenue transactions are recorded in the income and expenditure account.

The closing balance in the receipts and payments account represents a surplus or deficit.

Non-cash transactions are recorded in the income and expenditure account.

Only revenue transactions are recorded in the receipts and payments account.

30 / 35

Leah bought goods, $8000, less 15% trade discount. She later returned half of these goods as
they were faulty.
Which document did Leah issue to the supplier for the returned goods?

credit note for $3400

credit note for $4000

debit note for $4000

debit note for $3400

31 / 35

Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of
$38 750.
On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated
as a revenue receipt.
In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for
the year ended 31 March 2022.
What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?

$33 770

$43 730

$34 130

$43 370

32 / 35

Sumit does not maintain a full set of accounting records.
What does Sumit not need to calculate his credit sales?

discounts received

customer’s dishonoured cheque

returns from credit customers

discounts allowed

33 / 35

Which external parties would be interested in the financial statements of a trader?
1 a bank manager considering a request by the trader for a loan
2 a trade union seeking a wage increase for the employees
3 the business manager making decisions about how to increase profits
4 the trader deciding if drawings could be increased

2, 3 and 4

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 3 and 4

34 / 35

Which items appear in the capital and reserves section of a statement of financial position of a
limited company?

ordinary share capital, debentures, retained earnings

ordinary share capital, general reserve, retained earnings

debentures, ordinary share dividend, general reserve

debentures, retained earnings, general reserve

35 / 35

Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover?
1 increase the selling prices of all clothing
2 offer discounts on last year’s designs
3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible

3 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

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Accounting (0452)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (0452)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

B

C

A

D

2 / 35

$13 920

$17 270

$15 270

$14 890

3 / 35

The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On
checking the books it was found that two errors had been made.
1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770.
2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly.
What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?

undercast by $200

overcast by $200

overcast by $130

overcast by $200

4 / 35

$7000 profit

$1000 loss

$7000 loss

$1000 profit

5 / 35

$2070 credit

$870 credit

$870 debit

$2070 debit

6 / 35

What is included in a purchases ledger control account?

discount allowed

debts written off as irrecoverable

goods returned to credit suppliers

cash purchases

7 / 35

$3400 debit

$3400 credit

$3800 credit

$3800 debit

8 / 35

The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for
$4000.
He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100.
Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation.
The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500.
What was the loss on disposal?

$2400

$2500

$1200

$1100

9 / 35

34 days

62 days

31 days

48 days

10 / 35

Which items would be recorded in the general journal of a bakery?
1 correction of an error of principle relating to an oven repair
2 purchase of a delivery vehicle on credit
3 purchase of flour on credit
4 return by a customer of a faulty batch of bread

1 and 3

2 and 4

1 and 2

3 and 4

11 / 35

The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares.
Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021.
The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of
$5000.
What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year?

$33 500

$23 500

$28 500

$18 500

12 / 35

B

C

D

A

13 / 35

Which cost is part of the prime cost for a manufacturing business?

carriage outwards

factory rent

carriage inwards

factory supervisor’s salary

14 / 35

Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on
disposal of $584.
How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal
account was it recorded?

$2606 on the credit side

$2606 on the debit side

$3774 on the credit side

$3774 on the debit side

15 / 35

Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer?

direct expenses, depreciation of factory machinery, royalties

factory overheads, raw materials, direct expenses

raw materials, royalties, direct labour

direct wages, factory supervisor’s wages, factory insurance

16 / 35

B

C

D

A

17 / 35

C

D

A

B

18 / 35

Which items appear in the capital and reserves section of a statement of financial position of a
limited company?

debentures, retained earnings, general reserve

ordinary share capital, general reserve, retained earnings

ordinary share capital, debentures, retained earnings

debentures, ordinary share dividend, general reserve

19 / 35

A

D

B

C

20 / 35

$315

$25

$290

$265

21 / 35

Which statement about the reducing balance method of depreciation is not correct?

A lower amount of depreciation is charged in the early years of the asset’s life than in the later years.

The net book value of the non-current asset will never reach a nil value.

It is used for assets which give greater benefits in the early years of their life

Each year a given percentage is deducted from the cost of the asset less the depreciation to date.

22 / 35

B

D

C

A

23 / 35

Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a cash discount.

Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a cash discount.

Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a trade discount.

Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a trade discount

24 / 35

double Bashir’s

one-third of Bashir’s

half of Bashir’s

three times Bashir’s

25 / 35

Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company
G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H
used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum.
What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2?

$100 greater for H

$500 greater for G

$100 greater for G

$500 greater for H

26 / 35

B

A

C

D

27 / 35

$22 500

$19 500

$25 500

$28 500

28 / 35

D

B

C

A

29 / 35

A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered.
No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued.
The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90.
What is the correct profit for the year?

$14 910

$15 090

$14 690

$14 510

30 / 35

What is an example of a compensating error?

The wages account was undercast by $100 and the rent account was overcast by $100.

A payment for office equipment repairs was debited to the office equipment account.

The sale of goods, $65, to A Aziz was entered in the books as $56.

A purchase of goods from C Jones was credited to the account of C Johns

31 / 35

C

A

B

D

32 / 35

A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant.
Which task would the accountant perform?

making entries in the general journal to adjust a provision for doubtful debts

recording sales and purchase invoices in the books of prime entry

extracting balances from the ledger accounts to produce a trial balance

preparing a monthly report that analyses the profitability of the company

33 / 35

A

B

D

C

34 / 35

C

D

A

B

35 / 35

Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and
1 November.
An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid.
Which accounting principle was applied?

prudence

duality

matching

money measurement

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Biology (0610)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (0610)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A

B

C

D

2 / 40

The statements refer to reproduction.
1 A zygote is formed.
2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent.
3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together.
Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

1 only

2 and 3 only

3 / 40

In which order does water pass through these structures in a plant?

root hair → mesophyll → xylem

mesophyll → xylem → root hair

root hair → xylem → mesophyll

mesophyll → root hair → xylem

4 / 40

The sequence of the bases present on one strand of a DNA molecule is shown.
ATTGGACGGT
Which sequence shows the bases present on the opposite strand?

ATTGGACGGT

TCCAATGAAC

CGGTTCATTG

TAACCTGCCA

5 / 40

Which statement about urea is correct?

Amino acids are transported to the kidneys where they are converted to urea

Urea is made in the kidneys and then removed from the body by the liver

Liver cells break down proteins to amino acids which are then converted to urea in the kidneys

Urea travels from liver cells to the kidneys where it is filtered out of the blood.

6 / 40

Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature?

brain

skin

liver

heart

7 / 40

Large areas of forest are cut down in order to clear the land for other uses.
If the land is not replanted with trees or crops, what effect does this have on the atmosphere?

Oxygen increases.

Carbon dioxide increases.

Water vapour increases

Carbon dioxide remains the same.

8 / 40

Which statement about fertilisation is correct?

One haploid gamete nucleus divides to form a diploid zygote

Two diploid gamete nuclei fuse to form a haploid zygote

Two haploid gamete nuclei fuse to form a diploid zygote

One diploid gamete nucleus divides to form a haploid zygote

9 / 40

A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a concentrated salt solution. After soaking for one hour
the potato tissue was observed.
How will the potato tissue have changed after soaking for one hour?

longer and firmer

no change

shorter and softer

shorter and firmer

10 / 40

Asexual reproduction can be used to produce crops.
Why might a disease be likely to spread throughout the whole crop?

crop plants are genetically different

many offspring are produced

offspring are produced quickly

crop plants are genetically identical

11 / 40

the Sun

producer

consumer

heat

12 / 40

All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.

What is the name of this characteristic?

respiration

growth

sensitivity

nutrition

13 / 40

Which sequence of structures does a pollen tube grow through in a flower?

stigma → ovary → style → ovule

stigma → style → ovary → ovule

ovary → stigma → ovule → style

ovary → ovule → stigma → style

14 / 40

In a comparison between the processes of artificial insemination (AI) and in vitro fertilisation
(IVF), which statement applies to IVF only?

Human egg cells are harvested from the ovary.

Fertilisation occurs inside the body of the female.

Childless couples are given the opportunity to have a child of their own.

Donated sperm cells are used to fertilise the egg cells.

15 / 40

B

A

D

C

16 / 40

P, Q and R

Q only

Q and R only

P and Q only

17 / 40

C

A

D

B

18 / 40

oxygen

light

chlorophyll

carbon dioxide

19 / 40

A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds.
Which group of organisms is an example of a population?

all the animals in the forest

all the plants in the forest

all the red deer in the forest

all the organisms in the forest

20 / 40

Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response?

testosterone

adrenaline

oestrogen

insulin

21 / 40

The diagram shows three different types of organism in a food chain.
producer→ organism 2 → organism 3

Which statement is correct for this food chain?

Organism 2 is a carnivore

Organism 3 is a carnivore.

Organism 2 is a secondary consumer.

Organism 3 is a tertiary consumer

22 / 40

testes

adrenal glands

ovaries

pancreas

23 / 40

Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?

High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

24 / 40

mitosis

fertilisation

pollination

meiosis

25 / 40

What is the synthetic plant hormone 2,4-D used for?

genetic engineering

killing weeds

inhibiting phototropism

promoting germination

26 / 40

Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish?

gills → heart → body → gills

heart → gills → body → heart

heart → body → gills → body

body → gills → heart → body

27 / 40

What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans?

fetus

embryo

ovum

placenta

28 / 40

Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?

ingestion

chemical digestion

egestion

mechanical digestion

29 / 40

A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus.
What do the two parts of this name refer to?

kingdom and species

genus and species

kingdom and genus

variety and genus

30 / 40

Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?

chemical digestion

mechanical digestion

egestion

ingestion

31 / 40

What is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles?

ethanol

lactic acid

water

carbon dioxide

32 / 40

What would be the effect of cutting down forests, on the carbon dioxide concentration in the
atmosphere?

Carbon dioxide concentration would fall because of more photosynthesis.

Carbon dioxide concentration would fall because of less photosynthesis.

Carbon dioxide concentration would rise because of less photosynthesis.

Carbon dioxide concentration would rise because of more photosynthesis

33 / 40

What type of cell must an organ contain to detect a stimulus?

xylem

skin

receptor

blood

34 / 40

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

35 / 40

C

B

D

A

36 / 40

What will happen if a woman smokes during pregnancy?

The woman can become addicted to carbon monoxide.

Nicotine can cause COPD in the lungs of the fetus.

Nicotine can cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

Carbon monoxide can cause cancer in the lungs of the fetus

37 / 40

Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct?

It requires only one parent.

It produces gametes.

It requires two parents.

It produces genetically different offspring.

38 / 40

Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?

stomata present on the lower surface only

hairs present on the upper and lower surfaces

contain large air spaces

thick cuticle present on the upper and lower surfaces

39 / 40

2 m

8 m

9 m

6 m

40 / 40

days 6–12

days 0–5

days 13–18

days 19–28

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Biology (9-1) (0970)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (9-1) (0970)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A

B

C

D

2 / 40

Which statement applies to respiration?

It involves enzymes.

It only takes place in animal cells

Energy is absorbed.

Oxygen is released.

3 / 40

Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs to the heart?

pulmonary artery

pulmonary vein

renal vein

aorta

4 / 40

Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed.
1 carbon dioxide
2 glucose
3 oxygen
4 water
Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?

2 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 3

5 / 40

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

6 / 40

What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant
body temperature?

They are controlled by hormones

They require carbon dioxide.

They are examples of homeostasis.

They require energy.

7 / 40

Which organ detects and coordinates the response to changes in internal body temperature?

brain

liver

skin

heart

8 / 40

One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are
listed.
1) inhibit FSH production
2) inhibit LH production
3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall
Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell?

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

9 / 40

In which order does water pass through these structures in a plant?

mesophyll → xylem → root hair

mesophyll → root hair → xylem

root hair → mesophyll → xylem

root hair → xylem → mesophyll

10 / 40

Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?

Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site.

11 / 40

A

B

C

D

12 / 40

Some statements about bacteria are listed.
1) They contain plasmids.
2) They can make complex molecules.
3) They have a rapid reproduction rate.
4) They contain many chromosomes.
5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms.
Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?

1, 3 and 5 only

2, 4 and 5 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

13 / 40

Pea plants produce either yellow or green seeds. Yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y).
What are the most likely phenotypes of the offspring of a cross between YY and Yy plants?

100% yellow

50% yellow and 50% green

75% yellow and 25% green

100% green

14 / 40

Which statement about urea is correct?

Urea travels from liver cells to the kidneys where it is filtered out of the blood.

Amino acids are transported to the kidneys where they are converted to urea

Urea is made in the kidneys and then removed from the body by the liver

Liver cells break down proteins to amino acids which are then converted to urea in the kidneys

15 / 40

What controls the speed of chemical reactions in all living cells?

vitamins

enzymes

ions

hormones

16 / 40

blackbird

owl

fox

rabbit

17 / 40

An animal can swim, has a backbone and produces milk.
To which group does it belong?

fish

amphibians

mammals

reptiles

18 / 40

Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous
individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial.
What could be the reason for this?

Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder.

The disorder is caused by a dominant allele.

The disorder is sex-linked.

Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria.

19 / 40

With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code?

animal, plant, fungus and protoctist

animal only

animal and plant only

animal, plant and fungus only

20 / 40

D

C

B

A

21 / 40

6

3

12

0

22 / 40

What causes the development of female secondary sexual characteristics?

menstrual cycle starting

ovulation occurring

adrenaline production

oestrogen production

23 / 40

A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins.
What is the reason for this?

increased chlorophyll production

decreased protein production

increased protein production

decreased chlorophyll production

24 / 40

D

C

B

A

25 / 40

Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?

phloem and xylem

palisade mesophyll and phloem

palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll

spongy mesophyll and xylem

26 / 40

C

A

D

B

27 / 40

1 and 4

3 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 2

28 / 40

After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water
passes?

xylem

cortex

mesophyll

epidermis

29 / 40

A student exercised for three minutes. Before exercise, her breathing rate was 15 breaths per
minute. During exercise, her breathing rate was 45 breaths per minute.
What is the percentage increase in her breathing rate?

200%

33%

67%

300%

30 / 40

A

B

D

C

31 / 40

In a leaf, water moves from the surface of a mesophyll cell and then out of the leaf into the
atmosphere.
What is the correct order of the processes involved?

diffusion → evaporation

osmosis → active transport

active transport → osmosis

evaporation → diffusion

32 / 40

What is an adaptive feature of sperm?

jelly coating that changes after fertilisation

diploid nucleus

enzymes in the acrosome

large stores of energy

33 / 40

Which statement about an enzyme-controlled reaction is correct?

During the reaction, the substrate changes into products.

The enzyme is gradually used up during the reaction.

The higher the temperature, the slower the reaction

The enzyme is slowly broken down during the reaction

34 / 40

What type of cell must an organ contain to detect a stimulus?

receptor

xylem

skin

blood

35 / 40

Fertilisation is the fusion of which parts of two cells?

cell walls

vacuoles

nuclei

cytoplasm

36 / 40

Which cells produce mucus?

goblet cells

nerve cells

ciliated cells

white blood cells

37 / 40

×300

×30

×0.3

×3

38 / 40

Which statement about urea is correct?

Urea is formed from excess glucose in the liver and egested by the kidneys.

Urea is formed from excess amino acids in the liver and excreted by the kidneys.

Urea is formed from excess amino acids in the kidneys and excreted by the liver

Urea is formed from excess glucose in the kidneys and egested by the liver.

39 / 40

D

A

C

B

40 / 40

Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct?

Males and females have at least one X chromosome.

Females have two Y chromosomes.

Males and females have at least one Y chromosome.

Females have an X chromosome and a Y chromosome.

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Which statement explains why methane has a lower boiling point than water?

Methane molecules are heavier than water molecules.

Methane has weaker attractive forces than water.

Methane has weaker covalent bonds than water.

Methane molecules have more bonds than water molecules.

2 / 40

In a blast furnace, iron is extracted when iron (III) oxide reacts with carbon monoxide.
The equation is shown.
Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
Which substance is oxidised and which is reduced?

Oxidised Fe₂O₃ – Reduced ( CO)

Oxidised (CO₂) – Reduced ( Fe)

Oxidised (CO) – Reduced Fe₂O₃

Oxidised (Fe) – Reduced ( CO₂)

3 / 40

Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to
produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide?

oxidation

endothermic

combustion

reduction

4 / 40

+247 kJ / mol

–247 kJ /mol

+184 kJ / mol

–184 kJ /mol

5 / 40

D

C

A

B

6 / 40

a product of photosynthesis

calcium oxide

aluminium oxide

nitrogen

oxygen

7 / 40

The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown.
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Write the symbol of an element which: forms an amphoteric oxide

8 / 40

What is the molecular formula of alkene D?

9 / 40

Iron is a metal.
Give three physical properties that are characteristic of metals

malleable

Brittleness

conduct heat

conduct electricity

10 / 40

D

A

C

B

11 / 40

B

C

A

D

12 / 40

What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten
lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?

Pb → Pb²⁺ + 2e^–

Pb₂₊ + 2e^– → Pb

2Br^– → Br₂ + 2e^–

Br₂ + 2e^– → 2Br^–

13 / 40

Which substance should be pure for the intended use?

a drug for curing disease

limestone for iron extraction

water for washing a car

petroleum for fractional distillation

14 / 40

A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO₃.
1) The relative formula mass of KNO₃ is 101.
2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth.
3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser.
Which statements are correct?

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

15 / 40

Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser?

potassium nitrate and ammonium chloride

potassium carbonate and ammonium nitrate

ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate

ammonium phosphate and potassium chloride

16 / 40

One element in the first 36 elements is used as the fuel in a fuel cell.
Name this element

17 / 40

Four students collect the gas produced from the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute
hydrochloric acid. Each student records the time taken to collect a volume of gas.

Which results show the highest average rate of reaction?

90 cm³ of gas collected in 100 seconds

50 cm³ of gas collected in 40 seconds

75 cm³ of gas collected in 80 seconds

15 cm³ of gas collected in 20 seconds

18 / 40

When heated strongly, silicon(IV) oxide reacts with carbon.
SiO₂ + 2C → Si + 2CO
Which term describes what happens to silicon(IV) oxide?

neutralisation

reduction

thermal decomposition

oxidation

19 / 40

Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct?
1) They contain both single and double bonds.
2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown.
3) They can be manufactured by cracking.

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

20 / 40

Which is a typical property of transition elements?

low density

poor electrical conductivity

can act as catalysts

low melting point

21 / 40

The ionic equation for the reaction of aqueous potassium bromide with chlorine gas is shown.
2Br^– + Cl₂ → Br₂ + 2Cl^–
Which statement is correct?

Chlorine is oxidised by losing electrons.

Bromide ions are oxidised by losing electrons.

Bromide ions are oxidised by gaining electrons.

Chlorine is oxidised by gaining electrons.

22 / 40

Give the name of the process that is used:to produce amino acids from proteins

23 / 40

Which statement about compounds in the same homologous series is correct?

They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of carbon atoms.

They have different chemical properties because they have different numbers of carbon atoms.

They have different physical properties because they have different numbers of carbon atoms.

They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of carbon atoms.

24 / 40

What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?

calcium oxide and carbon monoxide

calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide

calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide

calcium oxide and carbon dioxide

25 / 40

Which element is not used as a fuel?

helium

carbon

hydrogen

uranium

26 / 40

Which statement about alkanes is correct?

They burn in oxygen.

They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms.

They contain ionic bonds.

They contain double bonds.

27 / 40

Which statement about ethene is correct?

It burns in excess oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water.

It reacts with oxygen to form ethanol.

It has the chemical formula C₂H₆.

It reacts with Br₂to produce an orange solution.

28 / 40

Which property is shown by all metals?

They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen.

They form acidic oxides.

They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon.

They conduct electricity.

29 / 40

The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown.
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
Write the symbol of an element which: does not form an oxide

30 / 40

D

C

B

A

31 / 40

Which statement about mild steel explains why it is a good choice for car bodies?

It is a good conductor.

It is low density.

It is cheap and strong.

It resists rusting.

32 / 40

D

A

C

B

33 / 40

34 / 40

Why is ethanol a member of the homologous series of alcohols but propane is not?

Ethanol is a liquid but propane is a gas.

Ethanol has two carbon atoms per molecule but propane has three.

Ethanol can be made from ethene but propane is obtained from petroleum

Ethanol contains the same functional group as other alcohols but propane does not.

35 / 40

An isotope of calcium is written as shown. ⁴⁴₂₀Ca
Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium.
number of electrons?

Wrong

36 / 40

A mixture of colourless compounds is separated using chromatography.
Which type of reagent is used to detect these compounds after separation?

a reducing agent

an oxidising agent

a locating agent

a dehydrating agent

37 / 40

Why is helium used to fill balloons?

Helium has a full outer electron shell.

Helium is less dense than air.

Helium is monoatomic

Helium is in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.

38 / 40

Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly.
Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only.
The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner.
What is metal Q?

sodium

calcium

zinc

copper

39 / 40

the main constituent of bauxite

oxygen

methane

calcium oxide

aluminium oxide

40 / 40

A Group I metal (lithium, sodium or potassium) is reacted with a Group VII element (chlorine,
bromine or iodine).
Which compound is formed when the Group I metal of highest density reacts with the Group VII
element of lowest density?

potassium iodide

lithium chloride

lithium iodide

potassium chloride

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Chemistry (0620)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Chemistry (0620)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Which substances are needed for iron to rust?

water and oxygen

carbon dioxide and oxygen

water and carbon dioxide

oxygen only

2 / 40

Why is helium used to fill balloons?

Helium is less dense than air.

Helium is monoatomic.

Helium has a full outer electron shell.

Helium is in Group VIII of the Periodic Table.

3 / 40

The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO₃.
What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO₃?

52.0

74.5

223.5

106.5

4 / 40

Which statement explains why metals are malleable?

The electrons and the cations are attracted to each other.

The electrons are free to move.

The layers of ions can slide over each other.

The atoms release electrons to become cations.

5 / 40

Which processes produce carbon dioxide?
1 respiration
2 photosynthesis
3 fermentation
4 combustion of hydrogen

1 and 3

2 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 4

6 / 40

Which molecule contains only single covalent bonds?

propene

propanoic acid

propyl propanoate

propane

7 / 40

When the colourless gas N₂O₄ is heated, it forms the brown gas NO₂.
When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless.
Which type of reaction is described by these observations?

reversible

decomposition

reduction

displacement

8 / 40

How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH₃OH?

5

6

10

8

9 / 40

Sulfur dioxide is tested by reacting it with acidified potassium manganate(VII).
Which colour change is seen in the test?

purple to colourless

white to blue

blue to white

colourless to purple

10 / 40

Which statement about the extraction of aluminium is correct?

Hematite is mainly aluminium oxide.

Aluminium is formed at the cathode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide

Oxygen gains electrons at the anode during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide.

Molten cryolite is used to raise the melting point of the aluminium oxide.

11 / 40

What is the main constituent of natural gas?

oxygen

hydrogen

methane

nitrogen

12 / 40

A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons.
What is Q?

ammonia, NH₃

methane, CH₄

water, H₂O

chlorine, Cl₂

13 / 40

Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?

iron

calcium oxide

vanadium(V) oxide

manganese(II) oxide

14 / 40

Which statements about lime are correct?
1 Lime is made by heating calcium carbonate (limestone).
2 Lime is used to desulfurise flue gases.
3 Lime is used to treat alkaline soil.
4 The chemical name for lime is calcium oxide.

1 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4

1 and 3

2, 3 and 4

15 / 40

When a piece of marble is added to hydrochloric acid, bubbles of carbon dioxide gas are given
off.
Which method is used to find the rate of the reaction?

measuring the speed at which the gas bubbles rise upwards through the acid

measuring the time taken for 10 cm3 of gas to be collected

counting the number of gas bubbles formed

measuring the diameter of the gas bubbles

16 / 40

Which process produces methane?

combustion of hydrocarbons

respiration

reaction between hydrochloric acid and calcium carbonate

decomposition of vegetation

17 / 40

Which processes are physical changes?
1 melting ice
2 reduction of copper(II) oxide
3 burning sulfur
4 boiling ethanol

1 and 4

1 and 3

2 and 3

2 and 4

18 / 40

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.
What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction at the cathode?

Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e^–

2O^2- → O₂ + 4e^–

2H⁺ + 2e^– → H₂

Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu

19 / 40

Some properties of copper are listed.
1 It conducts electricity.
2 It conducts heat.
3 It is ductile.
4 It has a high melting point.
Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan?

1 and 3

2 and 4

1 and 2

3 and 4

20 / 40

Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables.
Which statement explains why these cables are used?

Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium because aluminium is an insulator.

Aluminium conducts electricity only when it surrounds a steel core.

Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium to stop the steel from corroding.

Aluminium conducts electricity and the steel core makes the cable stronger.

21 / 40

Which statements about ethanol are correct?
1 Ethanol is used as a solvent.
2 Ethanol can be made directly from ethane.
3 Ethanol is a covalent compound.

2 and 3

1 only

1 and 3

1 and 2

22 / 40

Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?

They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together.

They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together.

They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules.

They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice.

23 / 40

Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.
carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead
What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

The elements have more electrons in their outer shell.

The elements become more metallic.

The elements have more electron shells.

The proton number of the elements increases.

24 / 40

Which oxide neutralises aqueous sodium hydroxide?

sulfur dioxide

water

carbon monoxide

calcium oxide

25 / 40

Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets and is also used in hydrogen fuel cells.
Which statements are correct?
1 Both uses produce water vapour.
2 Burning hydrogen produces polluting gases.
3 A fuel cell produces electricity.

1, 2 and 3

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

26 / 40

A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas.
The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly.
What is Z?

calcium hydroxide

calcium carbonate

calcium

calcium oxide

27 / 40

Compound Z contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
Molecules of compound Z have four hydrogen atoms and two carbon atoms.
Compound Z can be made by oxidation of an alcohol.
What is compound Z?

methyl methanoate

ethanol

ethene

ethanoic acid

28 / 40

Some properties of diamond are shown.

1 It is very hard.
2 Every atom forms four bonds.
3 It does not conduct electricity.
Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide?

2 and 3

1 and 2

1 only

1 and 3

29 / 40

Substance J takes part in a redox reaction.
In the reaction, J gains electrons.
Which statement is correct?

J is the oxidising agent and it is reduced in the reaction.

J is the oxidising agent and it is oxidised in the reaction.

J is the reducing agent and it is oxidised in the reaction.

J is the reducing agent and it is reduced in the reaction.

30 / 40

Which statements about acids and bases are correct?
1) An acid reacts with a metal to give off hydrogen.
2) A base reacts with an ammonium salt to give off ammonia.
3) An acid reacts with a carbonate to give off carbon dioxide.
4) Alkaline solutions are orange in methyl orange.

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 4

1, 3 and 4

31 / 40

Which substance is described as a macromolecule?

iron

graphite

ammonia

sodium chloride

32 / 40

Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown.
carbon
silicon
germanium
tin
lead
What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?

The elements have more electrons in their outer shell.

The proton number of the elements increases.

The elements have more electron shells.

The elements become more metallic.

33 / 40

Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic
character.
Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period?

The atoms more readily lose electrons to form positive ions

The charge on the nucleus of each atom gets larger.

The atoms more readily gain electrons to form negative ions.

The atoms have more electrons in their outer shells.

34 / 40

Which substance is a natural polymer?

protein

ethene

nylon

Terylene

35 / 40

Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?

potassium, phosphorus and carbon

potassium, nitrogen and phosphorus

carbon, potassium and nitrogen

calcium, nitrogen and phosphorus

36 / 40

The equation for the reaction when hydrogen is used as a fuel is shown.
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Which statement about this reaction is correct?

Energy is taken in so the temperature of the surroundings increases.

The reaction is endothermic so the temperature of the surroundings decreases.

Energy is given out so the temperature of the surroundings decreases.

The reaction is exothermic so the temperature of the surroundings increases.

37 / 40

Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.
1 The activation energy becomes lower.
2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.
Which statements are correct?

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

38 / 40

Gas syringe X contains 100 cm³ of hydrogen bromide gas, HBr.
Gas syringe Y contains 100 cm³of carbon dioxide gas. The volume of each gas is measured at
room temperature and pressure.
Which statement is correct?

The mass of HBr is less than the mass of CO₂

The gas in syringe X contains more atoms than the gas in syringe Y

The number of molecules of HBr equals the number of molecules of CO₂

The number of moles of HBr is more than the number of moles of CO₂

39 / 40

Element X has 7 protons.
Element Y has 8 more protons than X.
Which statement about element Y is correct?

Y has more electron shells than X.

Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X.

Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X.

Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X

40 / 40

Information about element J is shown.
● Its atoms have four electrons in their outer shell.
● It is a non-metal.
● Its oxide has a macromolecular structure.
● It has a high melting point.
What is J?

sulfur

beryllium

carbon

silicon

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Economics (9-1) (0987)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (9-1) (0987)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

A private sector firm is given a contract by the government to supply a country’s water.
Which government directive will minimise the risk of market failure?

insist that the firm aims to maximise profits

allow the firm to ration water rather than meet demand

ensure the firm’s supply includes all areas which are expensive to service

instruct the firm to provide water only to those who can pay for it

2 / 30

What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?

a rise in the GDP per head

an increase in life expectancy at birth

an increase in the level of car ownership

a rise in the number of years of schooling

3 / 30

B

D

C

A

4 / 30

B

D

C

A

5 / 30

B

D

A

C

6 / 30

The standard rate for Value Added Tax (sales tax) is 20% in a country. Different consumers
buying the same product have to pay the same amount of tax.
What kind of tax is this?

direct

proportional

progressive

regressive

7 / 30

Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers.
Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection?

preventing mergers which result in high monopoly prices

reducing the range of products supplied to the market

discouraging economies of scale that lead to lower costs

reducing shop opening hours

8 / 30

The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China.
What is likely to happen?

The good will become cheaper in the US.

The US government’s revenue will decline.

There will be less of the good imported into the US.

The US balance of trade will worsen.

9 / 30

Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation.
Why might this policy be effective?

Investment may be encouraged.

The exchange rate may fall.

Government spending may increase

Consumers may save more

10 / 30

The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China.
What is likely to happen?

There will be less of the good imported into the US.

The US balance of trade will worsen.

The good will become cheaper in the US.

The US balance of trade will worsen.

11 / 30

A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’.
Which situation supports this statement?

A sequence of poor harvests resulted in shortages.

Decreased transport costs led to a surplus of supply.

The price of coffee was fixed between producers.

Farmers matched demand by planting more coffee bushes.

12 / 30

Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive
when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers?

High-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax.

Low-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax

Low-income purchasers and high-income purchasers pay the same percentage of their income in tax.

High-income purchasers pay a higher percentage of their income in tax

13 / 30

A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of
exchange.
The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen.
What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?

US$25 000

US$22 500

US$20 000

US$27 500

14 / 30

A Swedish furniture maker bought a Romanian firm that owned 83 000 hectares of trees.
Which type of merger is this most likely to be?

diversification

vertical forward

horizontal

vertical backward

15 / 30

What is an example of expansionary monetary policy?

a decrease in the rate of interest

a decrease in the money supply

a decrease in the budget deficit

a decrease in income tax rates

16 / 30

Which problem will be reduced by a government subsidy to a firm?

overconsumption of a demerit good

underconsumption of a merit good

absence of a public good

abuse of monopoly power

17 / 30

In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers.
What might explain this situation?

Girls are only interested in low-wage jobs

It costs more for girls to be trained as design engineers.

Girls do not favour heavy manual work.

Girls have fewer opportunities to complete higher education.

18 / 30

A government uses expansionary monetary policy.
What does the government decrease?

interest rates

bank lending

the money supply

the budget deficit

19 / 30

Which statement about the factors of production is correct?

Labour is a human resource and includes pensioners and children.

Land is a natural resource and includes trees and fish.

Capital is a financial resource and includes savings in banks.

Enterprise is limited in supply and includes office workers.

20 / 30

In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China.
What may be the opportunity cost of this?

wages of golf course staff

cost of water

loss of farmland

sales of golf equipment

21 / 30

A government introduces a series of economic measures.
What is a supply-side policy measure?

lowering interest rates to encourage purchase of expensive goods

raising pensions to help retired people pay their fuel bills

building more affordable homes to improve labour mobility

controlling consumer spending to reduce inflation

22 / 30

QS

QR

PS

PQ

23 / 30

Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession?

a reduction in interest rates and an increase in income tax

an increase in interest rates and a reduction in income tax

an increase in interest rates and an increase in income tax

a reduction in interest rates and a reduction in income tax

24 / 30

B

C

A

D

25 / 30

What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?

They transform raw materials into goods.

They do not sell to the final consumer.

They tend to be labour-intensive.

They are located away from centres of population

26 / 30

B

D

C

A

27 / 30

– 60

– 40

+200

+120

28 / 30

Which topic is not included in microeconomics?

consumer demand

forms of competition

inflation

economies of scale

29 / 30

Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it
rises?

progressive

indirect

regressive

proportionate

30 / 30

a recession

the use of previously unemployed resources

a change in what consumers want to buy

more investment

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Economics (0455)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (0455)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

A country is experiencing a period of full employment.
What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation?

an increase in sales tax

an increase in imports

an increase in income tax rates

an increase in government spending

2 / 30

What is included in microeconomics?

the effects of a change in exchange rates on the trade balance of an economy

the factors leading to demand-pull inflation

the effects of an increase in the price of a good or service

the calculation of national income and expenditure

3 / 30

a change in what consumers want to buy

a recession

more investment

the use of previously unemployed resources

4 / 30

D

B

C

A

5 / 30

What is classified as one of the four economic resources?

production

consumption

trade

enterprise

6 / 30

What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)?

a fall in unemployment

a reduction in expenditure on education

an increase in the labour force

an increase in the rate of income tax

7 / 30

What is a macroeconomic aim of a government?

unemployment

deflation

income inequality

balance of payments stability

8 / 30

What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production?

increase in the demand for the good or service produced

decrease in the efficiency of the factor of production

increase in the price of the factor of production

decrease in the price of an alternative factor of production

9 / 30

What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no
other changes in the economy?

A trade in goods surplus will fall.

The inflation rate will fall.

Import prices will rise.

Export prices will rise.

10 / 30

A

C

D

B

11 / 30

What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account?

A Kenyan trade delegation promoting coffee sales visits India.

A Kenyan company wins a contract to transport exports from Uganda.

A Zambian company increases its exports to Kenya.

A Kenyan tea company increases its exports.

12 / 30

Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy?

interest rates

investment

hyperinflation

income taxes

13 / 30

$1100

$900

$1000

$800

14 / 30

A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce
electric power.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?

the profit made from selling the land

the loss of revenue from crops that grow on the land

the reduced cost of producing renewable energy

the cost of installing wind turbines

15 / 30

XY

WX

XZ

WY

16 / 30

What is a likely cause of economic growth?

decreased investment

decreased productivity

decreased employment

decreased taxation

17 / 30

A

C

B

D

18 / 30

How is the rate of inflation measured?

by calculating the total value of exports minus the total value of imports

by calculating the total number of people willing and able to work but cannot find work

by calculating the change in the price of goods and services from one year to the next

by calculating the real value of all output of goods and services in an economy

19 / 30

What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?

higher tax rates

lower net exports

a surplus of skilled labour

higher government expenditure

20 / 30

During periods of high unemployment across the entire labour force, the highest unemployment
rate in an economy is often in the 16–19 year-old age group.
Which statement explains why 16–19 year-olds may find it difficult to find a job?

The incentive to earn an income is lower for that age group.

They lack both work experience and the necessary skills.

They prefer leisure activities to long working hours.

Their wages are lower than those of adults

21 / 30

C

A

B

D

22 / 30

What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?

Aneesha lost her job as an engineer when her firm had to make redundancies in a recession.

Sunjeev decided to stop working and claim benefits when the government increased unemployment benefits.

Sunjit lost his job as a bank worker when the bank replaced his job with a new computer system.

Jamie lost his job as an ice cream seller during the winter months when little ice cream was sold.

23 / 30

What will deflation most likely lead to?

an increase in the real purchasing power of money

a fall in the real value of debts

an increase in the rate of interest

an increase in the exchange rate

24 / 30

A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth.
What is most likely to occur?

an increase in incomes

an increase in absolute poverty

a reduction in imports

a reduction in the number of doctors per capita

25 / 30

A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He
is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75.
What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours?

the ten hours of leisure time

the ability to increase his purchasing power

the additional time travelling to and from work

the increased hourly earnings of $7.50

26 / 30

Which pair of economic institutions can be found in a market economy?

nationalised industries and partnerships

stock exchange and public corporations

monopolies and commercial banks

local government and charities

27 / 30

What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker?

It may be difficult to find work locally.

Earnings are related to the level of skill.

Labour supply is elastic and plentiful.

Career opportunities are abundant.

28 / 30

Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue.

There are 20 people able to buy the product.

The product is one with many substitutes

Producers are unable to respond to a price rise.

29 / 30

What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation?

The level of imports increases.

Governments raise interest rates.

Consumers delay spending.

The real value of money falls.

30 / 30

Which type of business is always in the public sector?

public corporation

multinational corporation

public limited company

monopoly

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Physics (9-1) (0972)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (9-1) (0972)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

B

A

D

C

2 / 40

It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on.

The electric cooker will not switch on without it.

It improves the efficiency of the cooker.

It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case.

3 / 40

Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º.
What is the angle of reflection?

38º

142º

52º

76º

4 / 40

A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F.
The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N.
The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s.
What is the value of F?

6.0N

4.0N

7.0N

2.0N

5 / 40

C

A

B

D

6 / 40

Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?

a car skidding to a stop on a road

a student dragging a big box over a rough floor

a crane lifting a load

a heavy load hanging from a strong bar

7 / 40

D

B

C

A

8 / 40

It is smaller and inverted.

It is larger and the same way up.

It is larger and inverted.

It is smaller and the same way up.

9 / 40

A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.
What is the average speed of the train?

60 m / s

5.0 m / s

50 m / s

3.0 m / s

10 / 40

A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high
speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing.
Which state of matter is being described?

a gas being heated

a liquid being heated

a solid cooling

a gas cooling

11 / 40

In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope.
The smoke particles move about with short random movements.
Which of the following statements is correct?

Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only.

Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions.

Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions.

Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only.

12 / 40

C

D

A

B

13 / 40

An object is moved from point X to point Y.
The acceleration of free fall at X is different from that at Y.
Which statement about the object at Y is correct?

Its mass is the same as at X but its weight is different.

Both its mass and its weight are different from those at X

Its weight is the same as at X but its mass is different.

Both its mass and its weight are the same as those at X

14 / 40

There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the
resistor is V.
Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?

E = IRt

E = IV

E = IR

E = IVt

15 / 40

What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

The speed of the light changes.

The frequency of the light changes.

The amplitude of the light changes.

The colour of the light changes.

16 / 40

γ-radiation only

α-radiation only

α-radiation, β-radiation and γ-radiation

β-radiation only

17 / 40

A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar.
He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s.
The weight of the boy is 500 N.
What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?

4000W

40W

40 000W

400W

18 / 40

convection

conduction

evaporation

condensation

19 / 40

m₁ is less than m2 and m₂ is greater than m₃

m₁ is equal to m2 and m₂ is equal to m₃.

m₁ is less than m2 and m₂ is less than m₃

m₁ is greater than m2 and m₂ is greater than m₃

20 / 40

D

A

C

B

21 / 40

A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block
of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions.
1 Heat it.
2 Shine light on it.
3 Pass a current through it.
Which suggestions are correct?

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

22 / 40

towards the S pole

out of the page

into the page

towards the N pole

23 / 40

B

A

C

D

24 / 40

A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times
per minute.
The speed of sound is 320 m / s.
What is the wavelength of the sound wave?

300 m

0.20 m

5.0 m

18 000 m

25 / 40

B

A

D

C

26 / 40

A

B

C

D

27 / 40

B

D

A

C

28 / 40

B

A

C

D

29 / 40

120 s

90 s

400 s

200 s

30 / 40

Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?

visible light

infrared waves

radio waves

ultraviolet waves

31 / 40

0.25 s

0.50 s

1.0 s

2.0 s

32 / 40

B

D

C

A

33 / 40

A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference
across the resistor is 6.0V.
For how long is there this current in the resistor?

180 s

720 s

20 s

0.05 s

34 / 40

Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?

Radioactive materials have a half-life.

The radiation given out is ionising.

Radioactive decay is a random process.

γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum

35 / 40

20 cm³

40 cm³

10 cm³

80 cm³

36 / 40

It can change the direction of the spaceship, or speed it up, but not slow it down.

It can change the direction of the spaceship, or slow it down, but not speed it up.

It can change the direction of the spaceship, slow it down, or speed it up.

It can slow down the spaceship, or speed it up, but not change its direction.

37 / 40

D

A

B

C

38 / 40

C

A

B

D

39 / 40

2.5 minutes

1.0 minute

4.0 minutes

2.0 minutes

40 / 40

B

A

D

C

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Physics (0625)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

Hello .

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Physics (0625)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

83 km / h

67 km / h

50 km / h

70 km / h

2 / 40

A book has a mass of 400 g.
The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.
The gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg.
What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

8.0 N/ m²

200 N/ m²

0.08 N/ m²

20 N/ m²

3 / 40

Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?

γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum

The radiation given out is ionising.

Radioactive materials have a half-life.

Radioactive decay is a random process.

4 / 40

the length of the roller

the length of the pointer

the length of the steel bar

the thickness of the roller

5 / 40

It stays on zero.

It quickly increases and stays at maximum.

It keeps increasing.

It quickly increases and then decreases.

6 / 40

The mass of an empty flask is 34 g.
The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm³.
The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g.
What is the density of the liquid?

4.20 g / cm3

2.50 g / cm3

0.80 g / cm3

1.25 g / cm3

7 / 40

A

B

C

D

8 / 40

B

A

D

C

9 / 40

A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it.
The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000N.
The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000N.
What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant
speed?

180 000N upwards

180 000N downwards

20 000N upwards

20 000N downwards

10 / 40

A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force.
What is the work done on the object?

d/F

F/d

1/(F x d)

F x d

11 / 40

Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?

The current in each lamp is different.

If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on

The lamps have the same voltage across each of them.

The lamps can be switched on and off separately.

12 / 40

A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high
speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing.
Which state of matter is being described?

a liquid being heated

a gas being heated

a solid cooling

a gas cooling

13 / 40

D

C

B

A

14 / 40

C

B

A

D

15 / 40

Which are examples of friction?
1 tension in a spring
2 air resistance
3 weight

2 only

2 and 3

1 only

1 and 3

16 / 40

C

B

D

A

17 / 40

manometer

galvanometer

barometer

newton meter

18 / 40

C

B

A

D

19 / 40

What is meant by the power of an engine?

the maximum force that the engine can exert

the maximum weight that the engine can lift

the total energy that the engine transfers

the energy that the engine transfers per unit time

20 / 40

D

C

A

B

21 / 40

Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?

thermal expansion

thermal capacity

thermal conduction

thermal energy

22 / 40

R = amplitude, S = wavelength

R = amplitude, Q = wavelength

P = amplitude, S = speed

P = speed, Q = wavelength

23 / 40

Q and S only

Q, R and S only

R only

P, Q, R and S

24 / 40

10 min

14 min

12 min

40 min

25 / 40

0.50 kg

0.40 kg

0.80 kg

0.65 kg

26 / 40

A

B

D

C

27 / 40

switch, variable resistor and heater

switch, heater and fuse

resistor, thermistor and bell

lamp, voltmeter and switch

28 / 40

A

B

D

C

29 / 40

7 N to the right

1 N to the right

1 N to the left

7 N to the left

30 / 40

angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1

angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2

angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2

angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2

31 / 40

It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case.

It improves the efficiency of the cooker.

The electric cooker will not switch on without it.

It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on.

32 / 40

Energy resources are used to produce electricity.
Which resource is non-renewable?

waves

hydroelectric

wind

nuclear fission

33 / 40

Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an
extension–load graph of a spring?

light gate, ruler, newton meter

balance, stop-watch, ruler

stop-watch, balance, measuring cylinder

ruler, newton meter, clamp and stand

34 / 40

A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed.
What causes the ripples to refract?

The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water.

The ripples hit the wall of the tank.

The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water.

The ripples pass through a narrow gap.

35 / 40

Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º.
What is the angle of reflection?

38º

142º

76º

52º

36 / 40

Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs

so that the current can have only one value

to prevent the current becoming too large

to save electrical energy

37 / 40

the mug painted shiny white

the mug painted shiny black

the mug painted dull black

the mug painted dull white

38 / 40

A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m.
What is the average braking force acting on the car?

6800 N

0.15 N

6.8 N

56 000N

39 / 40

A

D

B

C

40 / 40

D

A

B

C

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Science – Combined (0653)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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TIME UP!!! Try Again

Science – Combined (0653)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

40N/ cm

5.0 N/ cm

80N/ cm

0.20 N/ cm

2 / 40

D

B

C

A

3 / 40

B

C

D

A

4 / 40

A

D

C

B

5 / 40

A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean.
A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is
received back at the boat.
The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s.
How deep is the ocean under the boat?

340 m

3300 m

6600 m

680 m

6 / 40

Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct?

Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns blue.

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns blue.

Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns white.

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white.

7 / 40

Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen which is collected in a gas syringe.
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl₂(aq) + H₂(g)
Which statement is correct?

When a catalyst is added, the time taken to collect 20 cm3 of hydrogen is reduced because fewer particles have the activation energy.

Hydrogen is produced faster when the acid is more concentrated because a larger proportion of the particles have the activation energy.

Raising the temperature reduces the time taken to collect 20 cm3 of hydrogen because more particles have the activation energy.

Larger pieces of zinc react faster than the same mass of smaller pieces because they have a larger total surface area.

8 / 40

Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from
left to right?

They change from non-metals to metals.

They change from gases to solids.

They change from metals to non-metals.

They change from elements to compounds.

9 / 40

Methane, ethane and propane are all alkanes. Their formulae are shown.
methane, CH₄
ethane, C₂H₆
propane, C₃H₈
Which statement is not correct?

All three compounds are hydrocarbons.

All three compounds burn.

Methane is the main constituent of natural gas

Propane burns completely to form carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

10 / 40

combustion

respiration

fossilisation

photosynthesis

11 / 40

The current in the battery halves.

The potential difference across R1 stays the same.

The current in the battery stays the same.

The potential difference across R2 becomes 1.5V.

12 / 40

Which statements describe an endothermic reaction?
1 Energy is given out.
2 Energy is taken in.
3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases.
4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases.

1 and 3

2 and 3

2 and 4

1 and 4

13 / 40

What is the chemical formula of nitric acid?

HCl

NH₃

HNO₃

H₂SO₄

14 / 40

A

C

B

D

15 / 40

5.4 cm

2.1 cm

7.5 cm

3.3 cm

16 / 40

B

C

A

D

17 / 40

Which statements about elements in Group I of the Periodic Table are correct?
1 They become less reactive going down the group.
2 Sodium forms positive ions more easily than lithium.
3 Their melting points increase going down the group.
4 Rubidium is more dense than sodium.

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 4

3 and 4

18 / 40

Two food chains are shown.
wheat → vole → fox → tick
grass → rabbit → fox → flea
What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains?

primary consumers

secondary consumers

producers

tertiary consumers

19 / 40

C

D

B

A

20 / 40

What describes a solvent?

the liquid in which a solid dissolves

a solid that dissolves in a liquid

the mixture formed when a solid dissolves in a liquid

the amount of solid that dissolves in a liquid

21 / 40

Excess magnesium ribbon is reacted with 10 cm3
of dilute hydrochloric acid. The hydrogen gas
produced is collected and measured.
Which change to the reaction conditions increases the rate of reaction and the volume of
hydrogen produced?

Use concentrated hydrochloric acid.

Use powdered magnesium.

Use a transition metal catalyst.

Use a lower temperature.

22 / 40

B

A

C

D

23 / 40

Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Which statement explains why the rate of this reaction increases when the concentration of the
acid is increased?

The particles collide more frequently and the activation energy of the reaction is reduced.

The particles collide more frequently and more of the particles have the minimum energy to react.

The particles are closer together and the particles collide more frequently.

A greater proportion of the particles have the minimum energy to react.

24 / 40

Which colour change is seen when water is added to anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride?

pink to blue

blue to white

white to blue

blue to pink

25 / 40

C

A

B

D

26 / 40

A

D

C

B

27 / 40

During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina.
What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?

testes → urethra → sperm ducts → vagina

testes → sperm ducts → urethra → vagina

urethra → testes → sperm ducts → vagina

sperm ducts → testes → urethra → vagina

28 / 40

D

B

C

A

29 / 40

Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide at high temperatures.
carbon + carbon dioxide →carbon monoxide
Which statement about the reaction is correct?

The carbon is reduced and the carbon dioxide is oxidised.

Both carbon and carbon dioxide are oxidised

The carbon is oxidised and the carbon dioxide is reduced.

Both carbon and carbon dioxide are reduced.

30 / 40

Which statement about hydrocarbons is correct?

Alkenes contain a double bond.

Alkanes decolourise bromine water.

Alkenes are saturated hydrocarbons.

Alkanes are produced by cracking alkenes.

31 / 40

8 A man takes 30 minutes to walk 4.0 km to a station. He then immediately gets on a train that
takes 60 minutes to travel 100 km.
What is the average speed for the man’s complete journey?

69 km / hour

1.2 km / hour

54 km / hour

1.8 km / hour

32 / 40

ingestion and absorption

digestion and egestion

egestion and ingestion

absorption and digestion

33 / 40

Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear
fission or geothermal resources.
How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station?

It is the only power station that uses steam as part of the process.

It is the only power station that uses a renewable form of energy.

It is the only power station that does not use a renewable form of energy.

It is the only power station that does not use steam as part of the process.

34 / 40

Which change occurs during an endothermic reaction?

The temperature of a mixture changes from 22 ºC to 18 ºC.

The volume of a gas changes from 2.0 dm³ to 1.0 dm³.

The mass of a solid changes from 2.0 g to 2.5 g.

The pH of a mixture changes from 5 to 7.

35 / 40

B

A

C

D

36 / 40

How is thermal energy transferred from the Sun to the Earth through the vacuum of space?

by conduction only

by conduction, convection and radiation

by radiation only

by convection only

37 / 40

Which change shows the presence of water?

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white.

Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns blue.

Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns pink.

Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns pink.

38 / 40

A

C

D

B

39 / 40

B

A

C

D

40 / 40

2

3

5

4

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