0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying. 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 / 35 $40 800 $38 000 $43 600 $30 000 3 / 35 20.00% 14.12% 17.14% 16.00% 4 / 35 What is shown in a trial balance? receipts and payments for a particular period capital and profit on a particular date ledger balances on a particular date financial transactions for a particular period 5 / 35 C B A D 6 / 35 A C D B 7 / 35 A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct? Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the number of shares owned. Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the value of shares owned. Shareholders would have to sell their personal possessions to pay the debts of the company Shareholders would lose the money that was paid when the shares were first purchased. 8 / 35 D B C A 9 / 35 James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader. Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position? 1 long-term loan 2 retained earnings 3 trade payables 2 only 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 2 10 / 35 Which is a feature of debentures? carry voting rights carry a fixed rate of dividend are a long-term liability of a company on liquidation are paid back after shareholders 11 / 35 $336 000 $366 000 $351 000 $324 000 12 / 35 How does a manufacturer calculate prime cost? direct material + direct labour + factory overheads direct material + direct labour + direct expenses + factory overheads direct material + direct labour + direct expenses direct material + direct labour 13 / 35 The cash book balance was $190 higher than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $190 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 higher than the bank statement balance. 14 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $800 increase $11 600 decrease $11 600 increase $800 15 / 35 Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500. Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year? $125 as an income $325 as an expense $125 as an expense $325 as an income 16 / 35 What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business? current ratio return on capital employed liquid (acid test) ratio working capital 17 / 35 What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement? A cheque received from a customer was not recorded in the bank statement. Payment by a customer directly into the bank was not recorded in the cash book. A customer’s cheque dishonoured by the bank appeared only on the bank statement. Payment of insurance by standing order was not recorded in the cash book. 18 / 35 A B C D 19 / 35 A D C B 20 / 35 How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements? to compare the business performance over a number of years to calculate the amount of cash drawings taken to check the balance shown on a bank statement to calculate the amount that is owed by trade receivables 21 / 35 A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements. What is the effect of this on the interested parties? They can identify similarities with the financial statements of other businesses. They can use the financial statements in decision-making They can be sure that information in the financial statements is up to date. They can understand the financial statements easily. 22 / 35 B A D C 23 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to encourage payment in cash to encourage bulk buying to avoid irrecoverable debts to reward prompt payment 24 / 35 Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover? 1 increase the selling prices of all clothing 2 offer discounts on last year’s designs 3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 3 only 2 only 25 / 35 $62 700 $55 700 $57 300 $58 700 26 / 35 A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance? $3700 $5100 $11 700 $13 100 27 / 35 D A C B 28 / 35 A B C D 29 / 35 Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position? at original cost at book value at replacement cost at expected sales value 30 / 35 $315 $25 $265 $290 31 / 35 Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business? to calculate the interest payable on a loan to know whether drawings are at a reasonable level to know the total expenses of the business to calculate the provision for doubtful debts 32 / 35 A farmer sold a piece of land at market value. How should the proceeds of this sale be treated? as capital expenditure as revenue expenditure as a capital receipt as a revenue receipt 33 / 35 What is the purpose of a partnership appropriation account? to show the movement on partners’ capital accounts to show the distribution of profits between partners to record partners’ drawings to calculate partners’ salaries 34 / 35 What is an example of a compensating error? The sale of goods, $65, to A Aziz was entered in the books as $56. A payment for office equipment repairs was debited to the office equipment account. The wages account was undercast by $100 and the rent account was overcast by $100. A purchase of goods from C Jones was credited to the account of C Johns 35 / 35 Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect? It shows the surplus for the year. It includes amounts prepaid at the end of the year. Non-monetary items are excluded. Non-monetary items are excluded. 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Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.
2 / 35
3 / 35
4 / 35
What is shown in a trial balance?
5 / 35
6 / 35
7 / 35
A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct?
8 / 35
9 / 35
James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader. Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position? 1 long-term loan 2 retained earnings 3 trade payables
10 / 35
Which is a feature of debentures?
11 / 35
12 / 35
How does a manufacturer calculate prime cost?
13 / 35
14 / 35
The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?
15 / 35
Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500. Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year?
16 / 35
What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?
17 / 35
What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement?
18 / 35
19 / 35
20 / 35
How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements?
21 / 35
A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements.
What is the effect of this on the interested parties?
22 / 35
23 / 35
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
24 / 35
Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover? 1 increase the selling prices of all clothing 2 offer discounts on last year’s designs 3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible
25 / 35
26 / 35
A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance?
27 / 35
28 / 35
29 / 35
Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position?
30 / 35
31 / 35
Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business?
32 / 35
A farmer sold a piece of land at market value. How should the proceeds of this sale be treated?
33 / 35
What is the purpose of a partnership appropriation account?
34 / 35
What is an example of a compensating error?
35 / 35
Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 C B A D 2 / 35 A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance? $13 100 $3700 $11 700 $5100 3 / 35 Which change would cause an increase in the liquid (acid test) ratio? a decrease in the provision for doubtful debts a decrease in inventory an increase in the provision for doubtful debts an increase in inventory 4 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $11 600 increase $800 decrease $800 increase $11 600 5 / 35 $2200 $1000 $6000 $7500 6 / 35 $9450 $8550 $8150 $9050 7 / 35 C B D A 8 / 35 What is recorded in a petty cash book? purchases of all small value items cash purchases and expenses only small cash transactions all cash transactions 9 / 35 Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying. 1 and 2 1 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4 10 / 35 C B D A 11 / 35 24 days 20 days 17 days 22 days 12 / 35 Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account? to reduce the expense of irrecoverable debts in the future to have an accurate forecast of debts which will be uncollectible to avoid profit for the year being understated to apply the accounting principle of prudence 13 / 35 Jameel sold goods on credit. Where did he first record the invoice he issued? general ledger sales journal sales ledger general journal 14 / 35 The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column. One account balance had been entered in the wrong column. Which one was it? cash irrecoverable debts discount received drawings 15 / 35 X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year? $18 000 $10 000 $7000 $15 000 16 / 35 A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this? Discounts allowed, $420, was debited twice in the discounts allowed account. A cheque for $420 received from a customer was debited to his account. Goods costing $420, taken by the owner of the business for own use, were credited to his drawings account. Rent received, $420, was credited twice in the rent receivable account. 17 / 35 Atif depreciates his motor vehicles at a rate of 20% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 1 May 2021, Atif owned motor vehicles which cost $35 000. At that date, the motor vehicles had been depreciated by $12 600. What was the balance on Atif’s provision for depreciation account on 1 May 2022? $19 600 $17 920 $17 080 $22 400 18 / 35 $10 900 $12 100 $12 500 $11 200 19 / 35 $32 095 $31 195 $32 445 $31 545 20 / 35 Why is a trial balance prepared? to control the costs of the business to evaluate the performance of the business to analyse the financial information to assist preparation of financial statements 21 / 35 $14 890 $15 270 $13 920 $17 270 22 / 35 Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022? $34 130 $43 730 $33 770 $43 370 23 / 35 ‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently verified.’ To which accounting policy does this statement refer? relevance understandability reliability comparability 24 / 35 $613 $623 $595 $605 25 / 35 D A C B 26 / 35 Annual rental income due from Kumar, a tenant, is $3600. At the start of the year Kumar had prepaid rent of $900. At the end of the year he owed two months’ rent. How much rent was received from Kumar during the year? $2100 $3900 $3300 $5100 27 / 35 C D B A 28 / 35 Which statements about a three-column cash book are correct? 1 It contains ledger accounts for bank and cash. 2 It contains ledger accounts for discounts allowed and received. 3 It records transactions before they are recorded in the ledgers. 1 and 3 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 2 29 / 35 Leah bought goods, $8000, less 15% trade discount. She later returned half of these goods as they were faulty. Which document did Leah issue to the supplier for the returned goods? credit note for $3400 debit note for $4000 credit note for $4000 debit note for $3400 30 / 35 Raminder maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The monthly imprest of $250 is restored on the first day of each month. In January the petty cashier spent $105 and received a refund of $15 from a stationery supplier. How much was given to the petty cashier on 1 February to restore the imprest? $160 $145 $105 $90 31 / 35 Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year? fees received – cost of sales fees received – expenses fees received + expenses fees received – cost of sales + expenses 32 / 35 A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year? $15 090 $14 910 $14 510 $14 690 33 / 35 A late payment has been received for a debt not yet written off. An irrecoverable debt has been written off. A payment has been received for a debt that had been written off. A credit customer has paid his account by the due date. 34 / 35 A sales invoice for $800 was incorrectly recorded in the sales journal as $1800. How did this error affect the trial balance? The trial balance did not balance because the debits were understated by $1000. The trial balance did not balance because the credits were overstated by $1000. The trial balance balanced but both totals were overstated by $1000. The trial balance balanced but both totals were understated by $1000. 35 / 35 $62 700 $57 300 $55 700 $58 700 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Which change would cause an increase in the liquid (acid test) ratio?
What is recorded in a petty cash book?
Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account?
Jameel sold goods on credit. Where did he first record the invoice he issued?
The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column. One account balance had been entered in the wrong column. Which one was it?
X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year?
A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840. Which error caused this?
Atif depreciates his motor vehicles at a rate of 20% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 1 May 2021, Atif owned motor vehicles which cost $35 000. At that date, the motor vehicles had been depreciated by $12 600. What was the balance on Atif’s provision for depreciation account on 1 May 2022?
Why is a trial balance prepared?
Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?
‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently verified.’ To which accounting policy does this statement refer?
Annual rental income due from Kumar, a tenant, is $3600. At the start of the year Kumar had prepaid rent of $900. At the end of the year he owed two months’ rent. How much rent was received from Kumar during the year?
Which statements about a three-column cash book are correct? 1 It contains ledger accounts for bank and cash. 2 It contains ledger accounts for discounts allowed and received. 3 It records transactions before they are recorded in the ledgers.
Leah bought goods, $8000, less 15% trade discount. She later returned half of these goods as they were faulty. Which document did Leah issue to the supplier for the returned goods?
Raminder maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The monthly imprest of $250 is restored on the first day of each month. In January the petty cashier spent $105 and received a refund of $15 from a stationery supplier. How much was given to the petty cashier on 1 February to restore the imprest?
Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients. How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year?
A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered. No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued. The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90. What is the correct profit for the year?
A sales invoice for $800 was incorrectly recorded in the sales journal as $1800. How did this error affect the trial balance?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Modern agricultural methods often use artificial insemination (AI) to breed dairy cattle. Which statement describes the process of artificial insemination? Embryos are removed from the uterus of the cow. The embryos are frozen and stored for future use. Sperm is collected from a bull and frozen. The sperm is later inserted into the vagina of a cow Eggs are removed from a cow and fertilised using sperm from a bull. The fertilised eggs are reinserted into the uterus of the cow. Male and female cows with desired characteristics are chosen to mate 2 / 40 One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are listed. 1) inhibit FSH production 2) inhibit LH production 3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 / 40 Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum? chemical digestion ingestion mechanical digestion egestion 4 / 40 C A B D 5 / 40 In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules? salts urea glucose water 6 / 40 What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus? gametes → embryo → zygote embryo → gametes → zygote gametes → zygote → embryo embryo → zygote → gametes 7 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants? No pollinators are required. Only one parent plant is required so growth is rapid. Desirable qualities are shown throughout the crop. All of the crop plants have the same risk of disease. 8 / 40 In which process is oxygen a waste product? active transport aerobic respiration photosynthesis anaerobic respiration 9 / 40 Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering? restriction enzyme DNA ligase trypsin lipase 10 / 40 Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach. What is the reason for this? The starch does not stay in the stomach long enough to be digested. All starch digestion is completed in the mouth The pH in the stomach is not suitable for the amylase to work. The temperature in the stomach is not suitable for the amylase to work. 11 / 40 A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to? variety and genus genus and species kingdom and genus kingdom and species 12 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? phagocytosis antibody formation blood clotting oxygen transport 13 / 40 What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc? motor → sensory → relay sensory → motor → relay motor → relay → sensory sensory → relay → motor 14 / 40 B D A C 15 / 40 In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine. In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine. To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890? 104% 204% 49% 51% 16 / 40 Which is a correct description of mitosis? It produces genetically identical cells for growth and repair It produces genetically identical cells called gametes. It produces genetically different cells for growth. It produces genetically different cells called gametes. 17 / 40 What is a barrier method of birth control? contraceptive implant diaphragm vasectomy contraceptive pill 18 / 40 A D C B 19 / 40 What is the correct order of arthropod groups, from those with the most legs to those with the fewest legs? arachnids → insects → myriapods → crustaceans myriapods → crustaceans → arachnids → insects myriapods → insects → arachnids → crustaceans arachnids → crustaceans → insects → myriapods 20 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 21 / 40 A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population? all the plants in the forest all the organisms in the forest all the red deer in the forest all the animals in the forest 22 / 40 Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates? carbon oxygen hydrogen nitrogen 23 / 40 In a leaf, water moves from the surface of a mesophyll cell and then out of the leaf into the atmosphere. What is the correct order of the processes involved? active transport → osmosis diffusion → evaporation osmosis → active transport evaporation → diffusion 24 / 40 A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this? Nerve impulses from the eye cannot reach the brain. The person cannot focus light onto the retina. The person cannot control how much light enters the eye. Receptors do not produce nerve impulses in response to light. 25 / 40 A B C D 26 / 40 Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy? calcium vitamin D vitamin C iron 27 / 40 Which structures ensure the one-way flow of blood in the human circulatory system? valves capillaries alveoli synapses 28 / 40 Some human phenotypes are listed. 1 body mass 2 foot size 3 height 4 sex Which features are examples of continuous variation? 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 29 / 40 3 only 1 and 2 1 only 2 and 3 30 / 40 With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code? animal, plant and fungus only animal only animal, plant, fungus and protoctist animal and plant only 31 / 40 All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells. What is the name of this characteristic? growth nutrition sensitivity respiration 32 / 40 What is a chemical barrier to pathogens? stomach acid white blood cells skin nose hairs 33 / 40 C A D B 34 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? scurvy starvation obesity constipation 35 / 40 A C B D 36 / 40 During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery? Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. 37 / 40 A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram? x18 x1.8 x2000 x200 38 / 40 Which disease is caused by a pathogen? cholera lung cancer scurvy coronary heart disease 39 / 40 What is an adaptive feature of an organism? any inherited feature that an organism has any feature that is not changed by the environment any feature that shows discontinuous variation any inherited feature that helps an organism to survive and reproduce 40 / 40 Why is excessive consumption of alcohol discouraged before someone operates machinery or drives a vehicle? Alcohol is an addictive drug. Alcohol is a stimulant drug. Alcohol decreases reaction times. Alcohol increases reaction times. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Modern agricultural methods often use artificial insemination (AI) to breed dairy cattle. Which statement describes the process of artificial insemination?
2 / 40
One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are listed. 1) inhibit FSH production 2) inhibit LH production 3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell?
3 / 40
Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?
4 / 40
5 / 40
In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules?
6 / 40
What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?
7 / 40
Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants?
8 / 40
In which process is oxygen a waste product?
9 / 40
Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering?
10 / 40
Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach. What is the reason for this?
11 / 40
A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to?
12 / 40
Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?
13 / 40
What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc?
14 / 40
15 / 40
In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine. In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine. To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890?
16 / 40
Which is a correct description of mitosis?
17 / 40
What is a barrier method of birth control?
18 / 40
19 / 40
What is the correct order of arthropod groups, from those with the most legs to those with the fewest legs?
20 / 40
The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?
21 / 40
A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population?
22 / 40
Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates?
23 / 40
In a leaf, water moves from the surface of a mesophyll cell and then out of the leaf into the atmosphere. What is the correct order of the processes involved?
24 / 40
A person’s iris is damaged. What is the effect of this?
25 / 40
26 / 40
Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy?
27 / 40
Which structures ensure the one-way flow of blood in the human circulatory system?
28 / 40
Some human phenotypes are listed. 1 body mass 2 foot size 3 height 4 sex Which features are examples of continuous variation?
29 / 40
30 / 40
With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code?
31 / 40
All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.
What is the name of this characteristic?
32 / 40
What is a chemical barrier to pathogens?
33 / 40
34 / 40
Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?
35 / 40
36 / 40
During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery?
37 / 40
A student draws a diagram of a plant cell. The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide. What is the magnification of the diagram?
38 / 40
Which disease is caused by a pathogen?
39 / 40
What is an adaptive feature of an organism?
40 / 40
Why is excessive consumption of alcohol discouraged before someone operates machinery or drives a vehicle?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Why is excessive consumption of alcohol discouraged before someone operates machinery or drives a vehicle? Alcohol decreases reaction times. Alcohol is an addictive drug. Alcohol increases reaction times. Alcohol is a stimulant drug. 2 / 40 Which statement about meiosis is correct? It allows the formation of new combinations of chromosomes. Daughter cells are genetically identical. It is used to produce body cells. The chromosome number changes from haploid to diploid. 3 / 40 Which description of cross-pollination is correct? the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one plant to the anther on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma to the anther on the same plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma on the same plant 4 / 40 Sensory neurones conduct impulses from sense organs to the brain and spinal cord. sense organs to muscles. one sense organ to another sense organ. the brain and spinal cord to muscles. 5 / 40 A B C D 6 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one banana plant being divided into two banana plants one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells 7 / 40 digestion chewing secretion absorption 8 / 40 Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response? testosterone adrenaline oestrogen insulin 9 / 40 Pea plants produce either yellow or green seeds. Yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). What are the most likely phenotypes of the offspring of a cross between YY and Yy plants? 75% yellow and 25% green 100% yellow 50% yellow and 50% green 100% green 10 / 40 Which statement about a function of xylem tissue is correct? It is the only transport tissue in the plant. It helps to support stems and leaves. It carries glucose from the roots to the leaves It carries water away from the leaves. 11 / 40 What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast? alcohol + carbon dioxide alcohol + oxygen lactic acid + oxygen lactic acid + carbon dioxide 12 / 40 A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins. What is the reason for this? increased protein production increased chlorophyll production decreased protein production decreased chlorophyll production 13 / 40 Which element is found in proteins but is absent from fats? nitrogen carbon hydrogen oxygen 14 / 40 After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes? mesophyll xylem cortex epidermis 15 / 40 B A D C 16 / 40 According to the binomial system, how should a human be named? homo Sapiens homo sapiens Homo Sapiens Homo sapiens 17 / 40 The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are? compare evolutionary relationships of other species compare the base sequences of their DNA compare their anatomy compare their morphology 18 / 40 What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs? It halves and then halves again. It halves It stays the same. It doubles 19 / 40 When damaged tissues are repaired cells undergo division by mitosis to produce genetically different cells. meiosis to produce genetically identical cells. mitosis to produce genetically identical cells. meiosis to produce genetically different cells. 20 / 40 In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous? 100% black 100% white 50% black, 50% white 25% black, 75% white 21 / 40 Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism? using enzymes in biological washing powders using bacteria to produce insulin using yeast to produce ethanol using pectinase in fruit juice production 22 / 40 Asexual reproduction can be used to produce crops. Why might a disease be likely to spread throughout the whole crop? crop plants are genetically identical offspring are produced quickly many offspring are produced crop plants are genetically different 23 / 40 C A D B 24 / 40 What are the products when proteins are broken down? fatty acids amino acids simple sugars glycerol 25 / 40 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 26 / 40 C A D B 27 / 40 In which part of a cell does photosynthesis take place? cytoplasm vacuole nucleus chloroplast 28 / 40 The frog is a secondary consumer. The fox and the hawk are both tertiary consumers. Dandelions and grass are both producers. The rabbit and the snail are both primary consumers. 29 / 40 Which type of molecule are enzymes made of? carbohydrates fats proteins vitamins 30 / 40 The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool. seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases? There will be fewer whelks. fewer crabs. fewer seagulls. less seaweed. 31 / 40 Which cells produce mucus? nerve cells ciliated cells white blood cells goblet cells 32 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? phagocytosis antibody formation blood clotting oxygen transport 33 / 40 Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple? Benedict’s solution iodine solution biuret solution ethanol 34 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 35 / 40 Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems? decomposition photosynthesis respiration ingestion 36 / 40 Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion? Fats are digested by lipase to form amino acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by lipase to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form amino acids. 37 / 40 After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes? mesophyll xylem epidermis cortex 38 / 40 Which is an example of a transmissible disease? liver damage due to drinking alcohol lung cancer due to inhaling tobacco smoke cholera after drinking contaminated water coronary heart disease due to eating high fat food 39 / 40 Which cell contains a haploid nucleus? neurone red blood cell skin cell sperm cell 40 / 40 A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak that was adapted to extract small insects from the water. Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak? natural selection genetic engineering fossilisation selective breeding NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
Which statement about meiosis is correct?
Which description of cross-pollination is correct?
Sensory neurones conduct impulses from
What is an example of sexual reproduction?
Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response?
Pea plants produce either yellow or green seeds. Yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). What are the most likely phenotypes of the offspring of a cross between YY and Yy plants?
Which statement about a function of xylem tissue is correct?
What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?
A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins. What is the reason for this?
Which element is found in proteins but is absent from fats?
After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water passes?
According to the binomial system, how should a human be named?
The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are?
What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs?
When damaged tissues are repaired cells undergo division by
In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?
Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism?
Asexual reproduction can be used to produce crops. Why might a disease be likely to spread throughout the whole crop?
What are the products when proteins are broken down?
In which part of a cell does photosynthesis take place?
Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?
The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool. seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases? There will be
Which cells produce mucus?
Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple?
Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?
Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems?
Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion?
Which is an example of a transmissible disease?
Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?
A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak that was adapted to extract small insects from the water. Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction? Check 2 / 40 What is meant by the symbol ⇌? Combination reaction Decomposition reaction Reversible reaction Neutralization reaction 3 / 40 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared to? an atom of carbon-12 an atom of hydrogen-1 a neutron a proton 4 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 5 / 40 In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction gains electron(s) Both loss electron(s) 6 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They conduct electricity. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. They form acidic oxides. 7 / 40 Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct? Molecules in kerosene are larger than molecules in fuel oil. Hydrocarbons in diesel have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons in gasoline. Gas oil is used to make bottled gas for heating. All petroleum fractions are used as fuels. 8 / 40 D C A B 9 / 40 Some properties of metal J are listed. ● J does not react with cold water. ● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. ● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon. What is J? copper magnesium iron sodium 10 / 40 Which processes produce methane? 1) complete combustion of carbon-containing compounds 2) decomposition of vegetation 3) digestion in animals 4) respiration in animals 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 11 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 12 / 40 This question is about iron and iron compounds In a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron, carbon reacts with oxygen from the air to form carbon monoxide. Complete the chemical equation for this reaction. …….C + ……… 2CO 2C and O2 2C and Cl Hcl and O2 13 / 40 C D B A 14 / 40 State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime Check 15 / 40 Which statement about ethene is correct? It has the chemical formula C2H6. It reacts with oxygen to form ethanol. It reacts with Br2to produce an orange solution. It burns in excess oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water. 16 / 40 Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water? It boils at 100 °C. It turns white copper(II) sulfate blue. It has a pH value of 7. It turns blue cobalt(II) chloride pink. 17 / 40 When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one electron. Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction? Transition elements are oxidising agents. Transition elements can act as catalysts. Transition elements form a stable 1+ ion. Transition elements have variable oxidation states. 18 / 40 A D B C 19 / 40 Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct? Carbon reacts with oxygen and heats the furnace. Carbon monoxide removes the silicon dioxide impurity forming slag. Iron(III) oxide is oxidised to iron. Limestone reduces iron(III) oxide to iron. 20 / 40 Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct? 1) They contain both single and double bonds. 2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown. 3) They can be manufactured by cracking. 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 21 / 40 Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct? It is used in the manufacture of cement. It is used as a food preservative. It is used as a bleach in the manufacture of paper. It is used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid. 22 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They conduct electricity. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon. They form acidic oxides. They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. 23 / 40 Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant? The layers in graphite can slide over each other. All of the atoms in graphite are carbon. Graphite has a macromolecular structure. Each carbon atom forms three bonds. 24 / 40 When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns. Which process describes these changes? corrosion combustion neutralisation reversible reaction 25 / 40 Which statement about homologous series is not correct? Members of a homologous series have the same functional group. Members of a homologous series have similar chemical properties. The alkanes are an example of a homologous series. All homologous series are hydrocarbons. 26 / 40 A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 27 / 40 Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation? iron phosphoric acid platinum yeast 28 / 40 Which statement about pure water is not correct? It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue. It freezes at 0 °C It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue. It condenses at 100 °C. 29 / 40 Ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Which statements are correct? 1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions. 2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid. 3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid. 4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor. 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 30 / 40 Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air? nitrogen and oxygen argon and nitrogen carbon dioxide and nitrogen carbon dioxide and oxygen 31 / 40 A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown. 2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O What is the value of z? 6 3 4 2 32 / 40 Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI 2 -1 1+ 1 33 / 40 Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid. Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt Check 34 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon. They form acidic oxides. They conduct electricity. 35 / 40 C D B A 36 / 40 methyl propanoate ethyl propanoate propyl methanoate propyl ethanoate 37 / 40 Which statement describes a disadvantage of sulfur dioxide? It can be used as a bleach when making wood pulp. It can be used to manufacture sulfuric acid. It dissolves in water to form acid rain. It can be used to kill bacteria in food. 38 / 40 What term is used to describe atoms of the same element, such as 1224Mg and 1226Mg? Check 39 / 40 Which statements about hydrogen are correct? 1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product. 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 only 40 / 40 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct? 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction?
What is meant by the symbol ⇌?
The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared to?
A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct?
In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction
Which property is shown by all metals?
Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?
Some properties of metal J are listed. ● J does not react with cold water. ● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. ● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon. What is J?
Which processes produce methane? 1) complete combustion of carbon-containing compounds 2) decomposition of vegetation 3) digestion in animals 4) respiration in animals
This question is about iron and iron compounds In a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron, carbon reacts with oxygen from the air to form carbon monoxide. Complete the chemical equation for this reaction. …….C + ……… 2CO
State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime
Which statement about ethene is correct?
Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water?
When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one electron. Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction?
Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?
Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct? 1) They contain both single and double bonds. 2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown. 3) They can be manufactured by cracking.
Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct?
Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant?
When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns. Which process describes these changes?
Which statement about homologous series is not correct?
A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3. 1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101. 2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth. 3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser. Which statements are correct?
Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation?
Which statement about pure water is not correct?
Ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Which statements are correct? 1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions. 2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid. 3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid. 4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor.
Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air?
A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown. 2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O What is the value of z?
Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI
Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid. Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt
Which statement describes a disadvantage of sulfur dioxide?
What term is used to describe atoms of the same element, such as 1224Mg and 1226Mg?
Which statements about hydrogen are correct?
1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.
Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 One of the fractions obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum is naphtha. What is a major use of the naphtha fraction? as a fuel for jet aircraft as a lubricant for moving machine parts as a smooth surface covering for roads as a starting material to make other chemicals 2 / 40 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z? calcium oxide calcium calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate 3 / 40 Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P. What is P? ethane methane yeast ethene 4 / 40 What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed? 2Br– → Br2 + 2e– Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– Pb → Pb2+ + 2e– Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb 5 / 40 The particles in a substance are far apart, randomly arranged and moving. The substance changes state and the particles are now close together. The particles are still randomly arranged and able to move. What is the change of state of the substance? liquid to gas liquid to solid gas to liquid solid to gas 6 / 40 Element M forms both M+ and M2+ ions. In which part of the Periodic Table is M placed? Group II Group I Group III transition elements 7 / 40 Which statement about fuels is correct? Uranium is burned in air to produce energy. Methane is a good fuel because it produces only water when burned. Heat energy is only produced by burning fuels. Hydrogen is used as a fuel although it is difficult to store 8 / 40 Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X? calcium carbonate lead(II) bromide anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride hydrated copper(II) sulfate 9 / 40 Which reactions produce carbon dioxide? 1 heating a carbonate 2 reacting a carbonate with dilute acid 3 burning methane 4 cracking a hydrocarbon 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 10 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? ammonia, NH3 water, H2O methane, CH4 chlorine, Cl2 11 / 40 Which statements about hydrogen are correct? 1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released. 2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated. 3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product. 1, 2 and 3 3 only 1 only 1 and 2 only 12 / 40 The equations for two reactions are shown. 1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2) 2H2 + O2 →2H2O Which statement about the reactions is correct? Heat energy is released during reaction 1 but absorbed during reaction 2. Heat energy is released during reaction 2 but absorbed during reaction 1. Heat energy is released during both these reactions. Heat energy is absorbed during both these reactions. 13 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? methane, CH4 chlorine, Cl2 ammonia, NH3 water, H2O 14 / 40 Which statement about ethene is correct? It reacts with Br2to produce an orange solution. It reacts with oxygen to form ethanol. It burns in excess oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water. It has the chemical formula C2H6. 15 / 40 Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes? gasoline fuel oil kerosene /paraffin naphtha 16 / 40 Which molecule contains more than one pair of shared electrons? hydrogen hydrogen chloride water chlorine 17 / 40 Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together? calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid calcium hydroxide and ammonium chloride zinc and dilute sulfuric acid copper(II) oxide and dilute nitric acid 18 / 40 Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C. A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours. What happens to the sample of decane? It sublimes. It melts. It boils. It evaporates. 19 / 40 Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct? They are all radioactive. They have the same mass. They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell. They have the same number of neutrons 20 / 40 Copper(II) oxide reacts with iron. The equation for the reaction is shown. 3CuO + 2Fe → 3Cu + Fe2O3 Why can this reaction be described as the reduction of copper(II) oxide? The copper(II) oxide weighs less after the reaction than before. The copper(II) oxide loses oxygen. There are fewer substances on the right of the equation. Iron gains oxygen. 21 / 40 Some properties of element E are listed. It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E? lithium bromine aluminium iron 22 / 40 Which three elements are needed in fertilisers? potassium, phosphorus and carbon carbon, potassium and nitrogen calcium, nitrogen and phosphorus potassium, nitrogen and phosphorus 23 / 40 Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct? Sodium ions have an equal number of protons and electrons. Caesium atoms gain electrons to form negatively charged caesium ions. Ionic bonding involves sharing of pairs of electrons. Potassium ions and chloride ions have the same number of outer-shell electrons. 24 / 40 Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct? All petroleum fractions are used as fuels. Hydrocarbons in diesel have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons in gasoline. Gas oil is used to make bottled gas for heating. Molecules in kerosene are larger than molecules in fuel oil. 25 / 40 Petrol burns in a car engine to produce waste gases which leave through the car exhaust. One of these waste gases is an oxide of nitrogen. Which statement describes how this oxide of nitrogen is formed? Nitrogen reacts with oxygen in the car engine. Petrol combines with nitrogen in the car engine Carbon dioxide reacts with nitrogen in the catalytic converter. Nitrogen reacts with oxygen in the catalytic converter. 26 / 40 Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite. Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made? The ore of aluminium undergoes thermal decomposition. Carbon is burned in the blast furnace to release heat energy. Carbon monoxide reduces aluminium oxide forming carbon dioxide and aluminium. Oxygen made in the process reacts with the carbon electrode. 27 / 40 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out? 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 28 / 40 What are uses of sulfur dioxide? 1 as a bleach in the manufacture of wood pulp 2 as a food preservative 3 in the conversion of iron to steel 4 to kill bacteria in water treatment 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 29 / 40 Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas? methane ethane propane butane 30 / 40 The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous hydrogen iodide is shown. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) The reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic? The products are at a higher energy level than the reactants. More energy is released when two HI bonds are formed than is used when the H–H and I–I bonds are broken. Energy is released when H–H and I–I bonds are broken. The bond energies of the reactants are larger than the bond energies of the products. 31 / 40 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture? filtration → evaporation → crystallisation evaporation → crystallisation → filtration crystallisation → evaporation → filtration filtration → crystallisation → evaporation 32 / 40 The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 33 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? The baseline should be drawn in pencil. The solvent should cover the baseline. Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. 34 / 40 Which statements about the uses of metals are correct? 1) Iron is used to make aircraft because iron has a low density. 2) Copper is used to make electric cables because copper is a good conductor of electricity. 3) Aluminium is used to make brass because aluminium is strong and hard. 4) Iron is mixed with additives to make an alloy used in chemical plant. 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 35 / 40 Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia? air limestone water petroleum 36 / 40 Aqueous ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is a strong base. Aqueous ethanoic acid is neutralised by aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which statements are correct? 1 Aqueous ethanoic acid accepts protons from hydroxide ions. 2 The aqueous ethanoic acid used is fully dissociated into ions. 3 The aqueous sodium hydroxide used is fully dissociated into ions. 4 The reaction produces a salt and water. 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 37 / 40 A piece of aluminium is dropped into dilute hydrochloric acid. No immediate reaction is observed. Which statement explains this observation? Aluminium does not neutralise acids. Aluminium is below hydrogen in the reactivity series. Aluminium is covered in an unreactive oxide layer Aluminium is a non-metal so does not react with acids. 38 / 40 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly? calcium oxide and carbon monoxide calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide calcium oxide and carbon dioxide 39 / 40 In which state does 1 dm3 of methane contain the most particles? liquid gas at 100 degree Celsius gas at room temperature solid 40 / 40 X is produced when petrol burns completely in air. What is X? carbon dioxide hydrogen carbon monoxide argon NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
One of the fractions obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum is naphtha. What is a major use of the naphtha fraction?
A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z?
Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P. What is P?
What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?
The particles in a substance are far apart, randomly arranged and moving. The substance changes state and the particles are now close together. The particles are still randomly arranged and able to move. What is the change of state of the substance?
Element M forms both M+ and M2+ ions. In which part of the Periodic Table is M placed?
Which statement about fuels is correct?
Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X?
Which reactions produce carbon dioxide? 1 heating a carbonate 2 reacting a carbonate with dilute acid 3 burning methane 4 cracking a hydrocarbon
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
The equations for two reactions are shown. 1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2) 2H2 + O2 →2H2O Which statement about the reactions is correct?
Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes?
Which molecule contains more than one pair of shared electrons?
Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together?
Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C. A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours. What happens to the sample of decane?
Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?
Copper(II) oxide reacts with iron. The equation for the reaction is shown. 3CuO + 2Fe → 3Cu + Fe2O3 Why can this reaction be described as the reduction of copper(II) oxide?
Some properties of element E are listed.
It has a high density. It has a high melting point. What is E?
Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?
Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct?
Petrol burns in a car engine to produce waste gases which leave through the car exhaust. One of these waste gases is an oxide of nitrogen. Which statement describes how this oxide of nitrogen is formed?
Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite. Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made?
Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out?
What are uses of sulfur dioxide? 1 as a bleach in the manufacture of wood pulp 2 as a food preservative 3 in the conversion of iron to steel 4 to kill bacteria in water treatment
Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas?
The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous hydrogen iodide is shown. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) The reaction is exothermic. Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic?
An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed.
How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?
The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3.
Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?
Which statements about the uses of metals are correct? 1) Iron is used to make aircraft because iron has a low density. 2) Copper is used to make electric cables because copper is a good conductor of electricity. 3) Aluminium is used to make brass because aluminium is strong and hard. 4) Iron is mixed with additives to make an alloy used in chemical plant.
Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?
Aqueous ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is a strong base. Aqueous ethanoic acid is neutralised by aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which statements are correct? 1 Aqueous ethanoic acid accepts protons from hydroxide ions. 2 The aqueous ethanoic acid used is fully dissociated into ions. 3 The aqueous sodium hydroxide used is fully dissociated into ions. 4 The reaction produces a salt and water.
A piece of aluminium is dropped into dilute hydrochloric acid. No immediate reaction is observed. Which statement explains this observation?
What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?
In which state does 1 dm3 of methane contain the most particles?
X is produced when petrol burns completely in air. What is X?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 D B C A 2 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. Prices are falling. The rate of price increases is falling. The real rate of interest is negative. 3 / 30 What is the definition of diseconomies of scale? the decrease in fixed cost as output increases the decrease in average revenue as output increases the increase in total costs as output increases the increase in average total costs as output increases 4 / 30 What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy? The inflation rate will fall. A trade in goods surplus will fall. Export prices will rise. Import prices will rise. 5 / 30 An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs? $150 000 $100 000 $220 000 $370 000 6 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the reliability of banks the level of taxation the income of the family the rate of inflation 7 / 30 What is an advantage of a market economy? The government has no need to intervene in markets. Equilibrium market price clears the market. The lowest price possible is always charged. Producers and consumers have the same aims. 8 / 30 What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country? acting as lender of last resort operating the government’s monetary policy setting the government’s budget issuing notes and coins 9 / 30 The number of workers unemployed in manufacturing has fallen. Resources have moved from the production of services to the production of goods. The workers in the production of goods have become less efficient. The producers of services have introduced better technology. 10 / 30 Which government policy will increase productivity? decreasing the number of training programmes encouraging labour-intensive production reducing private sector investment promoting good industrial relations 11 / 30 What could discourage women from seeking employment? There are fewer promotion opportunities for women. More education and training are provided. There is a shift in employment to the services sector More flexible and part-time jobs are available. 12 / 30 In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government. Which argument for protectionism was the EU using? the strategic industry argument the sunset industry argument the anti-dumping argument the infant industry argument 13 / 30 What is an advantage of competitive markets? The right quantity of merit goods is guaranteed. Competition encourages the efficient use of resources. Competition causes inequalities of wealth. The economic problem of scarcity is eliminated. 14 / 30 The demand for gas in a country becomes price-inelastic. What will happen as a result? Gas workers will be less likely to be successful in obtaining wage increases. Gas workers will be more likely to be successful in obtaining wage increases. Total expenditure on gas by consumers will rise when its price falls. Total expenditure on gas by consumers will fall when its price rises. 15 / 30 U + X U + V U + V + W U + V + X + Y 16 / 30 A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices? competition from public road transport government policy encouraging monopoly power barriers to entry into rail services high costs of maintaining rail tracks 17 / 30 A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer? the cost of installing wind turbines the profit made from selling the land the reduced cost of producing renewable energy the loss of revenue from crops that grow on the land 18 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. Introduce a tax on all food. 19 / 30 A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate? It produces a good that has close substitutes. It can increase revenue by reducing the price. It can quickly respond to changes in price. It keeps very low volumes of product in stock. 20 / 30 What is an example of expansionary monetary policy? a decrease in the budget deficit a decrease in the money supply a decrease in income tax rates a decrease in the rate of interest 21 / 30 A C B D 22 / 30 What is classified as one of the four economic resources? production trade enterprise consumption 23 / 30 B C A D 24 / 30 What is included in microeconomics? the effects of an increase in the price of a good or service the calculation of national income and expenditure the effects of a change in exchange rates on the trade balance of an economy the factors leading to demand-pull inflation 25 / 30 A B D C 26 / 30 D B A C 27 / 30 What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate? the level of trade protection the level of national debt the price of imports the price of exports 28 / 30 What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure? There are no external costs. A monopolist’s product has many substitutes. There is easy entry into the market. A monopolist may determine the price of its product. 29 / 30 Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession? an increase in interest rates and an increase in income tax a reduction in interest rates and an increase in income tax a reduction in interest rates and a reduction in income tax an increase in interest rates and a reduction in income tax 30 / 30 Y only X only X and Z Y and Z NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
2 / 30
A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information?
3 / 30
What is the definition of diseconomies of scale?
4 / 30
What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy?
5 / 30
An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs?
6 / 30
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
7 / 30
What is an advantage of a market economy?
8 / 30
What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country?
9 / 30
10 / 30
Which government policy will increase productivity?
11 / 30
What could discourage women from seeking employment?
12 / 30
In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government. Which argument for protectionism was the EU using?
13 / 30
What is an advantage of competitive markets?
14 / 30
The demand for gas in a country becomes price-inelastic. What will happen as a result?
15 / 30
16 / 30
A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices?
17 / 30
A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?
18 / 30
One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim?
19 / 30
A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate?
20 / 30
What is an example of expansionary monetary policy?
21 / 30
22 / 30
What is classified as one of the four economic resources?
23 / 30
24 / 30
What is included in microeconomics?
25 / 30
26 / 30
27 / 30
What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate?
28 / 30
What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure?
29 / 30
Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession?
30 / 30
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015. All occupations were better off in 2015 than in 1985 Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985. Professionals received higher percentage increases in income than manual workers. 2 / 30 Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies? offering retraining to unemployed workers encouraging the modernisation of factories reducing taxes to provide incentives to work replacing government enterprises with private enterprises 3 / 30 A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this? horizontal conglomerate vertical forwards vertical backwards 4 / 30 Dimitry owns a firm that produces and sells bottles of lemonade. He only sells one size of bottle. How would Dimitry calculate the total revenue of the firm? multiply the quantity sold by the price per bottle multiply the quantity sold by the profit per bottle multiply the quantity sold by the cost per bottle multiply the quantity sold by the tax per bottle 5 / 30 Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information? their level of development their stages of production their distribution of income and wealth their type of economic system 6 / 30 B C A D 7 / 30 A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to increase economic growth. Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims? It could encourage more savings and lead to higher unemployment. It could cause uncertainty and lead to lower demand. It could lead to lower prices of consumer goods and result in deflation. It could stimulate consumer demand and lead to inflation. 8 / 30 What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production? decrease in the price of an alternative factor of production decrease in the efficiency of the factor of production increase in the price of the factor of production increase in the demand for the good or service produced 9 / 30 Price elasticity of supply is 0.4. Price elasticity of supply is 2.5 There is unit elasticity. Supply is perfectly elastic. 10 / 30 C A B D 11 / 30 A multinational company (MNC) wishes to invest in a low-income country to expand its palm oil production. What is most likely to make this investment possible? increased demand for palm oil shortages of labour in the rural economy the removal of subsidies for palm oil production high cost of clearing forests to increase land for plantations 12 / 30 $1000 $1100 $800 $900 13 / 30 What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy? increased money supply reduced tax rates higher interest rates decreased budget deficit 14 / 30 B C D A 15 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting primary commodities developed, exporting manufactured goods developing, exporting services developed, exporting services 16 / 30 When will a firm maximise its profits? when it produces where average cost and average revenue are equal when it excludes a rival supplier from the market when the difference between total cost and total revenue is greatest when it sells as many products in as many different markets as it can 17 / 30 A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers? capital and enterprise enterprise and labour labour and land land and capital 18 / 30 D C A B 19 / 30 What is a fiscal policy measure? regulation interest rates direct tax exchange rates 20 / 30 Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate? Interest rate changes have no impact on the level of production. A rise in interest rates will raise the level of investment in a country. A rise in interest rates may increase cost-push inflation A fall in interest rates will always increase inflation. 21 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. Prices are falling. The real rate of interest is negative. The rate of price increases is falling. 22 / 30 What suggests that there is market failure? high producer profits low levels of investment high retail prices lack of competition 23 / 30 What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods and services? more tax revenue from imports more exports by domestic firms more choice for domestic consumers more employment in declining industries 24 / 30 What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account? A Zambian company increases its exports to Kenya. A Kenyan trade delegation promoting coffee sales visits India. A Kenyan tea company increases its exports. A Kenyan company wins a contract to transport exports from Uganda. 25 / 30 What is a characteristic of tertiary industries? They do not sell to the final consumer. They tend to be labour-intensive. They transform raw materials into goods. They are located away from centres of population 26 / 30 Some resources will be unemployed. Opportunity cost changes Resources are unlimited in supply. International free trade exists. 27 / 30 a change in what consumers want to buy a recession more investment the use of previously unemployed resources 28 / 30 Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy? hyperinflation income taxes interest rates investment 29 / 30 What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)? a reduction in expenditure on education an increase in the rate of income tax an increase in the labour force a fall in unemployment 30 / 30 In Uganda, the rate of inflation fell from 5% in 2014 to 2% in 2015. Which conclusion can be drawn from this information? Prices were higher in 2015 than in 2014. The standard of living fell between 2014 and 2015. The cost of living fell between 2014 and 2015. Ugandan citizens were better off in 2015 than 2014. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies?
A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this?
Dimitry owns a firm that produces and sells bottles of lemonade. He only sells one size of bottle. How would Dimitry calculate the total revenue of the firm?
Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information?
A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to increase economic growth. Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims?
What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production?
A multinational company (MNC) wishes to invest in a low-income country to expand its palm oil production. What is most likely to make this investment possible?
What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy?
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
When will a firm maximise its profits?
A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?
What is a fiscal policy measure?
Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate?
What suggests that there is market failure?
What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods and services?
What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account?
What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?
Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy?
What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)?
In Uganda, the rate of inflation fell from 5% in 2014 to 2% in 2015. Which conclusion can be drawn from this information?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat? 1.0 m / s2 500 m / s2 100 m / s2 5.0 m / s2 2 / 40 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2 angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 3 / 40 8Ω more than 8Ω 4Ω less than 4Ω 4 / 40 Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 5 / 40 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar? the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar the lattice vibrations of copper ions only the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only 6 / 40 B D C A 7 / 40 A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it. The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000N. The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000N. What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant speed? 180 000N upwards 20 000N downwards 20 000N upwards 180 000N downwards 8 / 40 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object? 0.080 N 3.2 N 4.8 N 0.053 N 9 / 40 A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall. A boy looks at the image of himself in the mirror. Which statement describes the image formed? real and upright virtual and upside down real and upside down virtual and upright 10 / 40 A C B D 11 / 40 The speed of the object is increasing with constant acceleration. The speed of the object is decreasing with constant deceleration. The speed of the object is increasing with an acceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is decreasing with a deceleration that is not constant. 12 / 40 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring? chemical energy elastic potential energy gravitational potential energy gravitational potential energy 13 / 40 Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement? The temperature of the water is lower than that of the pollen particles. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the heavier particles of the water. The temperature of the water is higher than that of the pollen particles. The pollen particles are being bombarded by the lighter particles of the water. 14 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 2 and 3 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 15 / 40 light-dependent resistor variable resistor thermistor relay coil 16 / 40 A D C B 17 / 40 3.0 minutes 4.0 minutes 2.0 minutes 1.5 minutes 18 / 40 B A D C 19 / 40 The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current? P only R only P and Q Q and R 20 / 40 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this? Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. 21 / 40 A C D B 22 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. 23 / 40 a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter a wire of the same length with a larger diameter a wire of greater length with the same diameter 24 / 40 D C B A 25 / 40 The image is inverted. The image is bigger than the object The image is closer to the lens than the object. The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens 26 / 40 neither bar 1 nor bar 2 bar 1 only bar 2 only bar 1 and bar 2 27 / 40 D B C A 28 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.0 m / s 0.31 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.19 m / s 29 / 40 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction? rubber plastic copper steel 30 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? radio waves visible light ultraviolet waves infrared waves 31 / 40 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 32 / 40 D A B C 33 / 40 D C B A 34 / 40 C D A B 35 / 40 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television? infrared waves visible light radio waves microwaves 36 / 40 In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer? air only air, water and wood water only air and water only 37 / 40 more than 3 years more than 1 year but less than 2 years more than 2 years but less than 3 years less than 1 year 38 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The colour of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The amplitude of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. 39 / 40 A D C B 40 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of protons only. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?
Three students are describing the structure of an atom. student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus. student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus. student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus. Which students are making a correct statement?
One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar?
A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it. The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000N. The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000N. What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant speed?
An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object?
A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall. A boy looks at the image of himself in the mirror. Which statement describes the image formed?
In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?
Small pollen particles are suspended in water. When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly. What causes this movement?
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current?
The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this?
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?
Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?
A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct?
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television?
In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C B D A 2 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? visible light rays gamma rays infrared rays ultraviolet rays 3 / 40 The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 4 / 40 D C B A 5 / 40 1.0 minute 2.0 minutes 2.5 minutes 4.0 minutes 6 / 40 Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo? reflection refraction dispersion diffraction 7 / 40 D B A C 8 / 40 A D C B 9 / 40 The particles collide with each other. When the particles hit the wall, their average kinetic energy increases. The particles expand when they hit the wall. When the particles hit the wall, their momentum changes, which causes a force. 10 / 40 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this? Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. 11 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 2.0N 7.0N 4.0N 6.0N 12 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum Radioactive decay is a random process. Radioactive materials have a half-life. The radiation given out is ionising. 13 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of protons only. They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons 14 / 40 It is smaller and inverted. It is smaller and the same way up. It is larger and inverted. It is larger and the same way up. 15 / 40 A C B D 16 / 40 Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element. What is this process called? convection electromagnetic induction radioactive decay the motor effect 17 / 40 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature. Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper bar? the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only the lattice vibrations of copper ions only the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar 18 / 40 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations? energy from tides nuclear energy energy from waves hydroelectric energy 19 / 40 C D A B 20 / 40 B A D C 21 / 40 face Y face Z face X The pressure is the same for all the faces. 22 / 40 P, Q, R and S Q, R and S only Q and S only R only 23 / 40 D C A B 24 / 40 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection? 38º 142º 52º 76º 25 / 40 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave? 0.25 Hz 4.0 Hz 100 Hz 15 Hz 26 / 40 less than IX and greater than IY greater than IX and less than IY greater than IX and greater than IY less than IX and less than IY 27 / 40 A C D B 28 / 40 1.5 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.60 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.67 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.7 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 29 / 40 A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker. The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot hear the sound. What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker? increase the frequency decrease the amplitude decrease the frequency increase the amplitude 30 / 40 A C D B 31 / 40 A C B D 32 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured? joule watt coulomb ampere 33 / 40 D A B C 34 / 40 A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct? There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus. There are 6 protons in the nucleus. There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus. There are 6 electrons in the nucleus. 35 / 40 bar 2 only bar 1 only bar 1 and bar 2 neither bar 1 nor bar 2 36 / 40 Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller? infrared waves ultraviolet waves radio waves visible light 37 / 40 A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described? a solid cooling a gas cooling a gas being heated a liquid being heated 38 / 40 B C D A 39 / 40 D C B A 40 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from kinetic to thermal from chemical to kinetic from chemical to therma NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum?
The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids?
Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?
Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element. What is this process called?
Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?
Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection?
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker. The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot hear the sound. What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker?
There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured?
A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?
A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described?
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C B D A 2 / 40 C A B D 3 / 40 In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed? burning methane in air burning coal in air adding hydrochloric acid to calcium carbonate adding hydrochloric acid to calcium 4 / 40 44 ºC 98 ºC 28 ºC 232 ºC 5 / 40 A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase? lying flat on the ground lifting one foot off the ground wearing skis to stand on the ground removing the load 6 / 40 D C A B 7 / 40 Which statement about forces is always correct? A resultant force is needed to keep an object moving at constant speed in a straight line. Air resistance acting on an object falling in still air causes its speed to increase. No forces act on any object that is at rest. Friction on an object sliding along rough ground acts in the opposite direction to its motion. 8 / 40 C A B D 9 / 40 A fixed mass of argon gas in a sealed container is heated. The pressure inside the container increases. Which statement explains why the pressure increases? The particles of gas have less energy and collide with the wall of the container more frequently. There is an increase in the number of gaseous particles inside the container. There is a decrease in the space that the particles have to move in. There is an increase in the number of collisions per second between the particles of gas and the walls of the container. 10 / 40 A C D B 11 / 40 A D C B 12 / 40 A D C B 13 / 40 C A D B 14 / 40 A B D C 15 / 40 A C D B 16 / 40 C A D B 17 / 40 In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers? increased oxygen availability increased decomposition increased carbon dioxide availability increased nitrate ion availability 18 / 40 D B C A 19 / 40 Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series. What are the general properties of a homologous series? same general formula same melting point similar chemical properties 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 20 / 40 Which type of substance undergoes electrolysis? molten covalent compounds aqueous solutions of ionic compounds solid ionic compounds gaseous covalent compounds 21 / 40 Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z? an element a noble gas a mixture a compound 22 / 40 A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule? 1.2 kg 1200 kg 1.2 N 1200N 23 / 40 A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes. How much useful power does the motor produce? 1000W 9000W 60 000W 240 000W 24 / 40 C A B D 25 / 40 What is a property of infra-red radiation? It can only travel in liquids and gases. It can only travel in a gas. It can only travel in a metal. It can travel through a vacuum. 26 / 40 B C D A 27 / 40 A D B C 28 / 40 Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station? It is the only power station that uses steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that uses a renewable form of energy. It is the only power station that does not use steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that does not use a renewable form of energy. 29 / 40 What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans? slower pulse rate and wider pupils increased rate of breathing and narrower pupils slower pulse rate and narrower pupils increased rate of breathing and increased pulse rate 30 / 40 What are properties of transition elements? They can act as catalysts. They only form white compounds. They have high densities. 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 31 / 40 Which statement about enzymes is correct? Enzymes are biological catalysts. Enzymes are not affected by changes in temperature. Enzymes are not affected by changes in pH. Enzymes are made of glycerol. 32 / 40 During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina? testes → urethra → sperm ducts → vagina sperm ducts → testes → urethra → vagina testes → sperm ducts → urethra → vagina urethra → testes → sperm ducts → vagina 33 / 40 2 5 4 3 34 / 40 D B A C 35 / 40 What is used to identify chlorine? damp litmus paper a lighted splint a glowing splint limewater 36 / 40 Which two energy resources are both non-renewable? coal and wind coal and tides oil and coal oil and tides 37 / 40 D A C B 38 / 40 Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is correct? Lead ions lose electrons at the anode. Bromide ions gain electrons at the anode Bromide ions lose electrons at the anode. Lead ions gain electrons at the anode. 39 / 40 a variable resistor a lamp a fixed resistor a fuse 40 / 40 Which substances conduct electricity when molten? sodium chloride naphtha brass 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed?
A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase?
Which statement about forces is always correct?
A fixed mass of argon gas in a sealed container is heated. The pressure inside the container increases. Which statement explains why the pressure increases?
In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers?
Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series. What are the general properties of a homologous series?
Which type of substance undergoes electrolysis?
Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z?
A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg. What is the weight of the metre rule?
A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes. How much useful power does the motor produce?
What is a property of infra-red radiation?
Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station?
What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans?
What are properties of transition elements?
Which statement about enzymes is correct?
During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina. What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?
What is used to identify chlorine?
Which two energy resources are both non-renewable?
Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is correct?
Which substances conduct electricity when molten?
