0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 31 days 34 days 62 days 48 days 2 / 35 D A C B 3 / 35 C B A D 4 / 35 What is a cheque counterfoil used for? to record a cheque received in the cash book to pay a cheque into the bank account to pay a cheque into the bank account to record a cheque payment in the cash book 5 / 35 increase by $6000 increase by $2000 decrease by $6000 decrease by $2000 6 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $5000 $68 000 $3000 $83 000 7 / 35 $10 300 $10 500 $1000 $800 8 / 35 Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account? to have an accurate forecast of debts which will be uncollectible to avoid profit for the year being understated to apply the accounting principle of prudence to reduce the expense of irrecoverable debts in the future 9 / 35 Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book? $2800 credit $2400 credit $2800 debit $2400 debit 10 / 35 D C A B 11 / 35 Jamal’s bank statement at 1 May 2021 showed a bank overdraft of $1460. At that date there were unpresented cheques of $385 and uncredited deposits of $255. What was the cash book balance on 1 May 2021? $1590 credit $1330 debit $1590 debit $1330 credit 12 / 35 Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 3 2 only 13 / 35 $16 000 $6000 $11 000 $14 000 14 / 35 On 31 January Abdul allowed Hanif $8 trade discount. On 1 January Abdul owed Hanif $400. On 31 January Hanif owed Abdul $150. On 4 January Hanif purchased goods, $250, from Abdul. 15 / 35 What is recorded in the sales journal? all money received from sales cash sales transactions credit sales transactions all sales transactions 16 / 35 Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied? prudence money measurement matching duality 17 / 35 Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner 1 and 2 3 and 4 3 and 5 2 and 5 18 / 35 AB Stores had the following transactions. 1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital. 2 $2000 was paid to trade payables. 3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid. By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions? $20 000 $13 000 $27 000 $15 000 19 / 35 The cost of sales of Company X was lower than that of Company Y. Company X had a better gross margin than Company Y. Both companies earned the same amount of profit for the year. Company Y had a larger proportion of expenses than Company X. 20 / 35 B D C A 21 / 35 Which item is an asset? rent received in advance from tenant an amount owing by credit customers an amount owing to credit suppliers interest accrued on bank loan 22 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $2400 $1100 $2500 $1200 23 / 35 What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business? working capital liquid (acid test) ratio return on capital employed current ratio 24 / 35 Jameel’s financial year ends on 31 December. On 1 January 2021 he brought down a debit balance on his stationery account. What does this balance represent? inventory of stationery on 1 January 2021 amount owing for stationery on 1 January 2021 amount paid for stationery during 2020 cost of stationery used during 2020 25 / 35 A manufacturer calculated the cost of production for the year at $57 000. It was found that lighting and heating, $2000, had been omitted from the financial statements. Lighting and heating is allocated 75% to the factory and 25% to the offices. What was the correct cost of production? $56 500 $55 500 $58 500 $57 500 26 / 35 A B C D 27 / 35 Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month. Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this? current ratio trade payables turnover liquid (acid test) ratio trade receivables turnover 28 / 35 Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded? $3774 on the credit side $3774 on the debit side $2606 on the credit side $2606 on the debit side 29 / 35 Jake had current liabilities of trade payables and had current assets of inventory, trade receivables and cash at bank. Which measure would improve his current ratio? revaluing non-current assets decreasing drawings buying additional inventory and paying in cash selling inventory on credit rather than for cash 30 / 35 Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year? 1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account 2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers 3 drawings made by the owner during the year 4 wages paid to employees during the year 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 31 / 35 The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year? $28 500 $23 500 $33 500 $18 500 32 / 35 James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader. Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position? 1 long-term loan 2 retained earnings 3 trade payables 2 and 3 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 33 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper? comparison of financial statements between years provision of information for decision-making recording financial transactions preparation of financial statements 34 / 35 $15 675 profit $15 675 loss $7875 profit $7875 loss 35 / 35 The discount column on the debit side of a trader’s cash book totalled $1300 and the discount column on the credit side totalled $700. How much discount did the trader receive? $700 $2000 $1300 $600 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
3 / 35
4 / 35
What is a cheque counterfoil used for?
5 / 35
6 / 35
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
7 / 35
8 / 35
Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account?
9 / 35
Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book?
10 / 35
11 / 35
Jamal’s bank statement at 1 May 2021 showed a bank overdraft of $1460. At that date there were unpresented cheques of $385 and uncredited deposits of $255. What was the cash book balance on 1 May 2021?
12 / 35
Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years
13 / 35
14 / 35
15 / 35
What is recorded in the sales journal?
16 / 35
Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied?
17 / 35
Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner
18 / 35
AB Stores had the following transactions. 1 The owner invested a further $20 000 capital. 2 $2000 was paid to trade payables. 3 A long-term loan of $5000 was repaid. By how much would the working capital increase after these transactions?
19 / 35
20 / 35
21 / 35
Which item is an asset?
22 / 35
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
23 / 35
What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?
24 / 35
Jameel’s financial year ends on 31 December. On 1 January 2021 he brought down a debit balance on his stationery account. What does this balance represent?
25 / 35
A manufacturer calculated the cost of production for the year at $57 000. It was found that lighting and heating, $2000, had been omitted from the financial statements. Lighting and heating is allocated 75% to the factory and 25% to the offices. What was the correct cost of production?
26 / 35
27 / 35
Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month. Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this?
28 / 35
Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded?
29 / 35
Jake had current liabilities of trade payables and had current assets of inventory, trade receivables and cash at bank. Which measure would improve his current ratio?
30 / 35
Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year? 1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account 2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers 3 drawings made by the owner during the year 4 wages paid to employees during the year
31 / 35
The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year?
32 / 35
James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader. Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position? 1 long-term loan 2 retained earnings 3 trade payables
33 / 35
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper?
34 / 35
35 / 35
The discount column on the debit side of a trader’s cash book totalled $1300 and the discount column on the credit side totalled $700. How much discount did the trader receive?
Your score is
Restart quiz
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 B A D C 2 / 35 C D B A 3 / 35 $10 754 $10 666 $10 934 $10 514 4 / 35 A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance? $5100 $13 100 $3700 $11 700 5 / 35 B D C A 6 / 35 partnership salaries limit on annual drawings interest on capital interest on drawings 7 / 35 Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir. Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two accounts was agreed. Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account? credit $200 credit $100 debit $100 debit $200 8 / 35 48 days 34 days 62 days 31 days 9 / 35 $9500 $5000 $8500 $7000 10 / 35 A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 only 11 / 35 D B A C 12 / 35 C D B A 13 / 35 Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer? statement of account credit note invoice debit note 14 / 35 D B A C 15 / 35 Sumit does not maintain a full set of accounting records. What does Sumit not need to calculate his credit sales? customer’s dishonoured cheque discounts received returns from credit customers discounts allowed 16 / 35 B C A D 17 / 35 The issued share capital of CD Limited consists of ordinary shares. Retained earnings were $86 000 on 1 September 2020 and $88 500 on 31 August 2021. The company made a profit during the year of $26 000 and made a transfer to general reserve of $5000. What was the total ordinary share dividend paid during the year? $18 500 $33 500 $28 500 $23 500 18 / 35 A D B C 19 / 35 B D A C 20 / 35 The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year? $16 140 $14 900 $17 100 $15 860 21 / 35 27.62% 25.22% 22.66% 29.29% 22 / 35 Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct? It records cash discounts. It is a ledger account for bank transactions only. It is a ledger account for cash transactions only. It is a book of prime entry. 23 / 35 Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied? money measurement duality matching prudence 24 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to summarise what the business owns and what it owes to show the transactions which took place during the year to calculate the profit for the year to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities 25 / 35 The discount column on the debit side of a trader’s cash book totalled $1300 and the discount column on the credit side totalled $700. How much discount did the trader receive? $700 $2000 $1300 $600 26 / 35 Shula’s financial year ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021 there was a credit balance of $100 on Yasmin’s account in Shula’s purchases ledger. What does this mean? Shula had paid $100 to Yasmin. Shula owed $100 to Yasmin. Yasmin owed $100 to Shula. Yasmin had paid $100 to Shula. 27 / 35 What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business? office equipment work in progress trade receivables cash 28 / 35 Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020? $5000 $2000 $6000 $4000 29 / 35 The cash book balance was $190 higher than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 higher than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $190 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 lower than the bank statement balance. 30 / 35 Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $24 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 1 January 2020 amounted to $2000. Subscriptions relating to the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $29 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 31 December 2020 amounted to $3000. 31 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance 32 / 35 Which item would not appear in the appropriation account of a partnership? interest paid on loans from partners interest paid on partners’ capital interest charged on partners’ drawings salaries paid to partners 33 / 35 Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover? 1 increase the selling prices of all clothing 2 offer discounts on last year’s designs 3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 34 / 35 $351 000 $336 000 $366 000 $324 000 35 / 35 D B C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10% per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal amounting to $700. A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash. What was the net decrease in the cash balance?
Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir. Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two accounts was agreed. Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account?
A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises
Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer?
Sumit does not maintain a full set of accounting records. What does Sumit not need to calculate his credit sales?
The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year?
Which statement about a two-column cash book is correct?
John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?
Shula’s financial year ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021 there was a credit balance of $100 on Yasmin’s account in Shula’s purchases ledger. What does this mean?
What would be included in the statement of financial position of a manufacturing business but not a wholesale business?
Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020?
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
Which item would not appear in the appropriation account of a partnership?
Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover? 1 increase the selling prices of all clothing 2 offer discounts on last year’s designs 3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2 / 40 Which cells produce mucus? goblet cells ciliated cells nerve cells white blood cells 3 / 40 Which process uses energy released in respiration? diffusion evaporation growth osmosis 4 / 40 producer heat consumer the Sun 5 / 40 Which tissues are found in vascular bundles? phloem and xylem spongy mesophyll and xylem palisade mesophyll and phloem palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll 6 / 40 In which part of the alimentary canal does ingestion take place? stomach liver anus mouth 7 / 40 Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology? Bacteria reproduce slowly. Bacteria are found inside the human body Bacteria do not become resistant to antibiotics. Bacteria can make complex molecules. 8 / 40 Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only? fats, cellulose and proteins proteins, oils and glycogen cellulose, glycogen and starch starch, fats and oils 9 / 40 Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle. Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria? the conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia the conversion of nitrates to nitrogen the conversion of ammonia to nitrates the conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrates 10 / 40 Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment? small roots many stomata thick waxy cuticle large leaves 11 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only 12 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? starvation scurvy constipation obesity 13 / 40 C B A D 14 / 40 Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata? oxygen water glucose carbon dioxide 15 / 40 With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code? animal, plant, fungus and protoctist animal, plant and fungus only animal only animal and plant only 16 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one banana plant being divided into two banana plants one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells 17 / 40 protein and sugar starch and sugar protein and starch starch and fat 18 / 40 Which statement about selective breeding is correct? It involves a struggle for survival. It does not involve humans. It always involves only one parent It involves parents that possess desirable features. 19 / 40 The hormones from the female contraceptive pill can pollute water courses. What effect do they have? increase the number of decomposers decrease the sperm count of men decrease the amount of oxygen for fish increase the growth of producers 20 / 40 All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells. What is the name of this characteristic? respiration growth sensitivity nutrition 21 / 40 By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood? active transport osmosis breathing diffusion 22 / 40 X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetic variation in the offspring. Y shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. X shows asexual reproduction, which produces genetically identical offspring. 23 / 40 What is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation called? reproduction fertilisation inheritance meiosis 24 / 40 What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation? cell → organ → tissue → organ system cell → tissue → organ → organ system tissue → cell → organ → organ system organ → tissue → cell → organ system 25 / 40 Which is an example of an undesirable effect of deforestation? increased flooding decreased carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere decreased soil erosion the variety of organisms is maintained 26 / 40 Some fish populations have greatly reduced in size as a result of overfishing. What are the effects on a species of having a very small population size? reduced genetic variation fewer genetic diseases better adapted to environmental changes more competition for resources 27 / 40 What is the cause of the start of dental decay? Sugars dissolve dentine. Acid dissolves enamel. Acid dissolves dentine. Sugars dissolve enamel. 28 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. 29 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 30 / 40 Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct? It produces gametes. It requires two parents. It produces genetically different offspring. It requires only one parent. 31 / 40 Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis? 6 48 24 12 32 / 40 air carbon dioxide water vapour oxygen 33 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants? All of the crop plants have the same risk of disease. Desirable qualities are shown throughout the crop. Only one parent plant is required so growth is rapid. No pollinators are required. 34 / 40 fertilisation pollination meiosis mitosis 35 / 40 RR and rr Rr and rr R and r RR and Rr 36 / 40 respiration sensitivity growth nutrition 37 / 40 Some terms used to describe enzyme-controlled reactions are listed. 1 catalyst 2 product 3 protein 4 substrate Which terms describe an enzyme? 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3 38 / 40 Which type of organism causes tooth decay? virus arachnid producer bacterium 39 / 40 What occurs as a result of artificial selection? antibiotic resistance in bacteria presence of roots in cactus plants disease resistant crops sickle cell anaemia 40 / 40 What is an example of a population? all the plants in a wood all the crocodiles in a river all the arthropods in a pond all the zebras that lived from 1990–2010 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
Which cells produce mucus?
3 / 40
Which process uses energy released in respiration?
4 / 40
5 / 40
Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?
6 / 40
In which part of the alimentary canal does ingestion take place?
7 / 40
Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology?
8 / 40
Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only?
9 / 40
Bacteria are active in the nitrogen cycle. Which process in the nitrogen cycle is carried out by nitrifying bacteria?
10 / 40
Which feature would help a plant to survive in a dry environment?
11 / 40
The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?
12 / 40
Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?
13 / 40
14 / 40
Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata?
15 / 40
With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code?
16 / 40
What is an example of sexual reproduction?
17 / 40
18 / 40
Which statement about selective breeding is correct?
19 / 40
The hormones from the female contraceptive pill can pollute water courses. What effect do they have?
20 / 40
All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.
What is the name of this characteristic?
21 / 40
By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood?
22 / 40
23 / 40
What is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation called?
24 / 40
What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation?
25 / 40
Which is an example of an undesirable effect of deforestation?
26 / 40
Some fish populations have greatly reduced in size as a result of overfishing. What are the effects on a species of having a very small population size?
27 / 40
What is the cause of the start of dental decay?
28 / 40
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
29 / 40
Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?
30 / 40
Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct?
31 / 40
Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis?
32 / 40
33 / 40
Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants?
34 / 40
35 / 40
36 / 40
37 / 40
Some terms used to describe enzyme-controlled reactions are listed. 1 catalyst 2 product 3 protein 4 substrate Which terms describe an enzyme?
38 / 40
Which type of organism causes tooth decay?
39 / 40
What occurs as a result of artificial selection?
40 / 40
What is an example of a population?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are? compare evolutionary relationships of other species compare their morphology compare the base sequences of their DNA compare their anatomy 2 / 40 The body has different types of defences against pathogens. The list shows some of these defences. 1 antibodies 2 hairs in the nose 3 mucus 4 skin Which defences help to prevent pathogens reaching the alveoli when breathing in? 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 4 / 40 Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish? heart → body → gills → body heart → gills → body → heart gills → heart → body → gills body → gills → heart → body 5 / 40 In which molecule are cross-links formed between bases? carbohydrate glycogen fat DNA 6 / 40 D A C B 7 / 40 pancreas testes adrenal glands ovaries 8 / 40 Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct? It is produced by the pancreas and raises blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the liver and raises blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the liver and lowers blood sugar concentration. 9 / 40 What is a characteristic of all living organisms? circulation egestion breathing sensitivity 10 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? antibody formation oxygen transport phagocytosis blood clotting 11 / 40 What is not affected by the environment? skin colour height blood group weight 12 / 40 Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering? restriction enzyme lipase trypsin DNA ligase 13 / 40 What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material? consumer decomposer herbivore carnivore 14 / 40 What is defined as ‘a thread-like structure of DNA, carrying genetic information in the form of genes’? chromosome zygote protein allele 15 / 40 What is an example of a population? all the zebras that lived from 1990–2010 all the crocodiles in a river all the arthropods in a pond all the plants in a wood 16 / 40 C B D A 17 / 40 Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in? diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases diaphragm relaxes → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs increases diaphragm contracts → volume of thorax increases → pressure in lungs decreases 18 / 40 What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome? DNA only mRNA only mRNA and amino acids DNA and amino acids 19 / 40 Beak shape in birds is controlled by genes passed from the parent birds to their offspring. What is this an example of? inheritance fertilisation mitosis selection 20 / 40 Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration? 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 21 / 40 Which statement about variation is correct? Discontinuous variation results in few phenotypes with no intermediates. Phenotypic variation is caused by genetic factors only. Continuous variation results in few phenotypes with no intermediates. Phenotypic variation is caused by environmental factors only. 22 / 40 Uncooked pieces of potato of identical size were placed in different liquids for one hour and then measured. Which liquid will cause a decrease in the size of the piece of potato? sugar solution more concentrated than the potato cell contents pure water sugar solution less concentrated than the potato cell contents sugar solution with the same concentration as the potato cell contents 23 / 40 What is a function of phloem? transports sugar to the roots transports water to the roots transports minerals to the roots transports starch to the roots 24 / 40 Which cell contains a haploid nucleus? sperm cell red blood cell neurone skin cell 25 / 40 excretion, nutrition and sensitivity movement, reproduction and sensitivity excretion, movement and nutrition movement, nutrition and sensitivity 26 / 40 The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool. seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases? There will be less seaweed. fewer whelks. fewer crabs. fewer seagulls. 27 / 40 C B D A 28 / 40 digestion chewing absorption secretion 29 / 40 The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity? mouth and duodenum colon and stomach stomach and mouth colon and duodenum 30 / 40 Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering? 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2 and 3 only 31 / 40 The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably? 1, 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 32 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? constipation obesity scurvy starvation 33 / 40 A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC? It increased and then decreased. It decreased steadily. t increased steadily. It remained the same. 34 / 40 In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules? water glucose urea salts 35 / 40 What is a function of some white blood cells? to produce antibodies to produce antibiotics to carry oxygen to carry glucose 36 / 40 What is part of the definition of transpiration? the loss of water vapour from plant leaves by evaporation of water at the surfaces of the mesophyll cells the transport of mineral ions from the roots into the stem and leaves the movement of molecules into the cells of the organism where they are used the movement of particles through a cell membrane from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration 37 / 40 Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs to the heart? pulmonary vein pulmonary artery aorta renal vein 38 / 40 Some fish populations have greatly reduced in size as a result of overfishing. What are the effects on a species of having a very small population size? reduced genetic variation better adapted to environmental changes more competition for resources fewer genetic diseases 39 / 40 What is an example of passive immunity? vaccination against measles where a harmless version of the virus is given the formation of memory cells in response to a cholera infection immunity against influenza after an individual has been infected with the influenza virus giving chickenpox antibodies to people at risk of developing a severe infection 40 / 40 R and r Rr and rr RR and Rr RR and rr NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species. What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are?
The body has different types of defences against pathogens. The list shows some of these defences. 1 antibodies 2 hairs in the nose 3 mucus 4 skin Which defences help to prevent pathogens reaching the alveoli when breathing in?
Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish?
In which molecule are cross-links formed between bases?
Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct?
What is a characteristic of all living organisms?
Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?
What is not affected by the environment?
Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering?
What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material?
What is defined as ‘a thread-like structure of DNA, carrying genetic information in the form of genes’?
Which sequence of changes takes place when we breathe in?
What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome?
Beak shape in birds is controlled by genes passed from the parent birds to their offspring. What is this an example of?
Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?
Which statement about variation is correct?
Uncooked pieces of potato of identical size were placed in different liquids for one hour and then measured. Which liquid will cause a decrease in the size of the piece of potato?
What is a function of phloem?
Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?
The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool. seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases? There will be
The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity?
Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?
The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably?
A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC?
In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules?
What is a function of some white blood cells?
What is part of the definition of transpiration?
Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs to the heart?
What is an example of passive immunity?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C D A B 2 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? respiration combustion decomposition photosynthesis 3 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an element which is used as a fuel Check 4 / 40 Graphite is a macromolecule. Which statements about graphite are correct? 1) Carbon atoms form four covalent bonds with neighbouring atoms. 2) There are free electrons between layers of carbon atoms. 3) Graphite is a useful lubricant. 4) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. 1 and 2 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 5 / 40 State the electronic structure of the following atom and ion S2- 2 8 8 8 8 2 8 2 8 6 / 40 Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation? A continuous production process is used. A non-renewable raw material is used. The product is very pure. The rate of reaction is very high. 7 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used: to separate an undissolved solid from an aqueous solution Check 8 / 40 How could crystals of a pure salt be prepared from dilute sulfuric acid? add an excess of copper(II) carbonate, filter, evaporate the filtrate to dryness add an excess of copper metal, filter, evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation point add an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide, filter, evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation point add an excess of zinc oxide, filter, evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation point 9 / 40 Which statement about the hydrogen fuel cell is not correct? Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. The reaction that takes place is endothermic Water is the only product. Hydrogen is oxidised. 10 / 40 The equations for two reactions of iodide ions are shown. reaction 1) 2I–(aq) + H2O2(aq) → I2(aq) + 2OH–(aq) reaction 2) I–(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgI(s) Which statement is correct? Both reactions are redox reactions. Only reaction 2 is a redox reaction. Only reaction 1 is a redox reaction. Neither reaction is a redox reaction. 11 / 40 Which statement describes methane? It contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms only. It is an alcohol. Each molecule contains four single covalent bonds. It is an unsaturated molecule. 12 / 40 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z? calcium oxide calcium calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate 13 / 40 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct? 2, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 14 / 40 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z? calcium oxide calcium calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate 15 / 40 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 4 only 16 / 40 Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction? Check 17 / 40 One element in the first 36 elements is used as the fuel in a fuel cell. Name this element Check 18 / 40 Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation? platinum iron phosphoric acid yeast 19 / 40 Four substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes the electrode products? substance(molten lead bromide), anode product (lead), cathode product (bromine) substance(dilute sulfuric acid ), anode product (oxygen), cathode product (hydrogen) substance(concentrated hydrochloric acid ), anode product (chlorine), cathode product (oxygen) substance(concentrated aqueous sodium chloride), anode product (hydrogen), cathode product (chlorine) 20 / 40 D C B A 21 / 40 subtraction addition No Change 22 / 40 Check 23 / 40 Methane burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. What is the balanced equation for this reaction? CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 2O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + O2 → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + H2O 24 / 40 Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct? Molecules in kerosene are larger than molecules in fuel oil. Hydrocarbons in diesel have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons in gasoline. All petroleum fractions are used as fuels. Gas oil is used to make bottled gas for heating. 25 / 40 calcium sulfate calcium carbonate calcium oxide calcium hydroxide 26 / 40 Sodium chloride is a liquid at 900 °C. How are the particles arranged and how do the particles move in sodium chloride at 900 °C? Arrangement of particles regular – Motion of particles vibrate about a fixed point Arrangement of particles regular – Motion of particles move randomly. Arrangement of particles random- Motion of particles vibrate about a fixed point. Arrangement of particles random- Motion of particles move randomly. 27 / 40 Large hydrocarbons can be cracked to form smaller hydrocarbons. Complete the chemical equation for cracking tridecane, C13H28, to form an alkene and one other hydrocarbon. C13H28 → C3H6 + ………….. Check 28 / 40 Which element forms ions with a charge of 2+ containing 10 electrons Check 29 / 40 Which statement about aqueous sodium hydroxide is correct? When it is added to a solution containing sulfate ions, a white precipitate is formed. When it is added to a solution of copper(II) ions, a blue precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess to give deep blue solution. When it is added to ammonium chloride, a gas is produced which turns blue litmus red. When it is added to a solution of iron(II) ions, a green precipitate is formed which does not dissolve in excess. 30 / 40 Calcium oxide is used to treat acidic industrial waste. State the type of chemical reaction that occurs Check 31 / 40 Which element forms an acidic oxide? lithium magnesium calcium sulfur 32 / 40 Which statement about alkanes is correct? They burn in oxygen. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They contain ionic bonds. They contain double bonds. 33 / 40 Which process, used to prevent iron from rusting, involves sacrificial protection? electroplating alloying galvanising painting 34 / 40 Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water? It turns blue cobalt(II) chloride pink. It has a pH value of 7. It turns white copper(II) sulfate blue. It boils at 100 °C. 35 / 40 Define the term proton number. number of protons number of electrons Above all number of neutrons 36 / 40 Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene? CH3CH3 CH3CH2OH CH3CH2CH3 CH2BrCH2Br 37 / 40 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant? It conducts electricity. Layers in the structure can slide over each other. All bonds between the atoms are weak. It has a low melting point. 38 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They form acidic oxides. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon. They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. They conduct electricity. 39 / 40 This question is about elements X, Y and Z. An atom of element X is represented as 3416X. What is the term for the total number of particles in the nucleus of an atom? Check 40 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a blue precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide Check NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Which process in the carbon cycle is responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an element which is used as a fuel
Graphite is a macromolecule. Which statements about graphite are correct? 1) Carbon atoms form four covalent bonds with neighbouring atoms. 2) There are free electrons between layers of carbon atoms. 3) Graphite is a useful lubricant. 4) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
State the electronic structure of the following atom and ion S2-
Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?
Give the name of the process that is used: to separate an undissolved solid from an aqueous solution
How could crystals of a pure salt be prepared from dilute sulfuric acid?
Which statement about the hydrogen fuel cell is not correct?
The equations for two reactions of iodide ions are shown. reaction 1) 2I–(aq) + H2O2(aq) → I2(aq) + 2OH–(aq) reaction 2) I–(aq) + Ag+(aq) → AgI(s) Which statement is correct?
Which statement describes methane?
A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z?
Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct?
Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction?
One element in the first 36 elements is used as the fuel in a fuel cell. Name this element
Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation?
Four substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes the electrode products?
Methane burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. What is the balanced equation for this reaction?
Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?
Sodium chloride is a liquid at 900 °C. How are the particles arranged and how do the particles move in sodium chloride at 900 °C?
Large hydrocarbons can be cracked to form smaller hydrocarbons. Complete the chemical equation for cracking tridecane, C13H28, to form an alkene and one other hydrocarbon. C13H28 → C3H6 + …………..
Which element forms ions with a charge of 2+ containing 10 electrons
Which statement about aqueous sodium hydroxide is correct?
Calcium oxide is used to treat acidic industrial waste. State the type of chemical reaction that occurs
Which element forms an acidic oxide?
Which statement about alkanes is correct?
Which process, used to prevent iron from rusting, involves sacrificial protection?
Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water?
Define the term proton number.
Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene?
Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?
Which property is shown by all metals?
This question is about elements X, Y and Z. An atom of element X is represented as 3416X. What is the term for the total number of particles in the nucleus of an atom?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a blue precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of a metal ion, a grey-green precipitate forms, which dissolves in excess to form a dark green solution. What is the identity of the metal ion? chromium(III) copper(II) iron(II) iron(III) 2 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 1 and 4 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 / 40 Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature? carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide chlorine and fluorine nitrogen and oxygen carbon monoxide and nitrogen 4 / 40 Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct? Structural isomers have different molecular formulae. Butane and butene are structural isomers. Compounds in the same homologous series have the same molecular formula. Compounds in the same homologous series have the same general formula. 5 / 40 2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M? 96 192 128 48 6 / 40 Which statement about acids is correct? A weak acid is a proton donor. A weak acid is fully ionised in aqueous solution. A strong acid has a higher pH than a weak acid of the same concentration. A strong acid is a proton acceptor. 7 / 40 Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron. Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting. Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting? The magnesium reacts with rust as soon as it is formed. Magnesium oxidises instead of iron. The magnesium forms an alloy with iron which does not corrode. Magnesium stops air and water getting to the iron. 8 / 40 An NPK fertiliser is made by mixing two compounds. The first compound has the formula (NH4)2HPO4. What is the formula of the second compound? NaCl KNO3 (NH4)2SO4 CaCO3 9 / 40 Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 and 3 3 only 10 / 40 Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace? Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 CO2 + C → 2CO C + O2 → CO2 CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 11 / 40 Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct? Aluminium is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis. Aluminium is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis. Iron is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis. Iron is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis. 12 / 40 Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L? hexane hexene ethanoic acid ethanol 13 / 40 Which statement about elements in the Periodic Table is correct? Elements are arranged in order of increasing nucleon number Elements in Group VII are diatomic non-metals. Transition elements are a collection of metals and non-metals. Elements with similar properties are in the same period. 14 / 40 Which equation for the decomposition of calcium nitrate is correct? Ca(NO3)2 → CaO + 2NO2 + O2 2Ca(NO3)2→ 2CaO + 2NO2 + O2 2Ca(NO3)2→ 2CaO + 4NO2+ O2 Ca(NO3)2 → CaO + NO2 + O 15 / 40 In which lists are the compounds in the same homologous series? 1) CH4, C2H4, C3H8 2) CH3OH, C2H5OH, C3H7OH 3) CH3CO2H, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH 1 and 2 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 16 / 40 Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic character. Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period? The atoms more readily gain electrons to form negative ions. The atoms more readily lose electrons to form positive ions The charge on the nucleus of each atom gets larger. The atoms have more electrons in their outer shells. 17 / 40 Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting? 1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal. 2 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 18 / 40 Which method produces a pure sample of copper(II) sulfate crystals? Add an excess of copper(II) carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid, filter and evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to appear. Add an excess of copper(II) carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid, filter off the remaining solid and dry it in an oven at 100 C. Warm an excess of copper(II) oxide with dilute sulfuric acid and evaporate the mixture to dryness. Warm an excess of copper(II) oxide with dilute sulfuric acid and filter off the crystals formed. 19 / 40 Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air? carbon dioxide and oxygen argon and nitrogen carbon dioxide and nitrogen nitrogen and oxygen 20 / 40 An isotope of chromium is represented by 5224Cr. Which statement about an atom of this isotope of chromium is correct? It contains 52 neutrons. It contains 24 electrons. It contains 24 neutrons It contains 28 protons. 21 / 40 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis? Al3+ → Al + 3e– Al3+ + 3e– → Al 2O2- → O2 + 4e– 2O2- + 2e– → O2 22 / 40 Which property explains why methane is used as a fuel? It releases heat energy when it burns It is a gas at room temperature. It is an alkane It forms carbon dioxide when it burns. 23 / 40 Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 24 / 40 Which statement about the trends shown by the elements of Period 3 in the Periodic Table is not correct? The elements become less metallic across the period. The number of electron shells increases across the period. The number of outer electrons increases across the period. The group number increases across the period. 25 / 40 Which molecule contains only single covalent bonds? propyl propanoate propene propanoic acid propane 26 / 40 What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1? It gains an electron. It gains a proton. It loses an electron. It loses a proton. 27 / 40 The surface of magnesium ribbon reacts with the air to form magnesium oxide. Which statement explains why the layer of magnesium oxide is removed by dilute hydrochloric acid? Magnesium oxide is an acid Magnesium oxide is a base. Magnesium is a base. Magnesium ribbon reacts with hydrochloric acid. 28 / 40 What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate? cracking of hydrocarbons purification of water manufacture of cement manufacture of aluminium 29 / 40 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture? evaporation → crystallisation → filtration filtration → crystallisation → evaporation crystallisation → evaporation → filtration filtration → evaporation → crystallisation 30 / 40 Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables. Which statement explains why these cables are used? Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium to stop the steel from corroding. Aluminium conducts electricity only when it surrounds a steel core. Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium because aluminium is an insulator. Aluminium conducts electricity and the steel core makes the cable stronger. 31 / 40 Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium? cryolite and zinc blende hematite and zinc blende bauxite and cryolite bauxite and hematite 32 / 40 When the colourless gas N2O4 is heated, it forms the brown gas NO2. When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless. Which type of reaction is described by these observations? decomposition reduction reversible displacement 33 / 40 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? photosynthesis respiration combustion of fossil fuels fermentation 34 / 40 Which statement about metals and their uses is correct? Iron is used to make cooking utensils because it is easily recycled. Iron is used to make electrical wires because it is a good insulator of electricity. Aluminium is used to make food containers because it is resistant to corrosion. Aluminium is used to make aircraft wings because it is strong and has a high density. 35 / 40 Pure iron is a soft metal. When mixed with small amounts of tungsten it produces a hard alloy called tungsten steel. Which statements are correct? 1 Pure iron is a transition element. 2 The particles in pure iron are arranged in ordered layers. 3 Tungsten steel is a compound. 1, 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 36 / 40 Some properties of copper are listed. 1 It conducts electricity. 2 It conducts heat. 3 It is ductile. 4 It has a high melting point. Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 37 / 40 Which process does not produce carbon dioxide? photosynthesis combustion of a hydrocarbon reaction between an acid and a metal carbonate respiration 38 / 40 Which statement about the Periodic Table is not correct? It can be used to predict the properties of elements. Non-metals are found on the right side of the table. There are more metals than non-metals. Elements in the same period have similar properties. 39 / 40 A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment? 1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 1 and 2 only 40 / 40 Which description of the bonding in alkanes is correct? ionic bonding covalent bonding, with both single and double bonds covalent bonding, all bonds are double bonds covalent bonding, all bonds are single bonds NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of a metal ion, a grey-green precipitate forms, which dissolves in excess to form a dark green solution. What is the identity of the metal ion?
Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation
Which two gases will diffuse at the same rate, at the same temperature?
Which statement about homologous series and isomerism is correct?
2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M?
Which statement about acids is correct?
Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron. Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting. Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting?
An NPK fertiliser is made by mixing two compounds. The first compound has the formula (NH4)2HPO4. What is the formula of the second compound?
Which fuels release carbon dioxide when burned? 1 gasoline 2 hydrogen 3 methane
Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace at a temperature of about 1550 °C. Which equation shows the main reaction that increases the temperature in the furnace?
Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct?
Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L?
Which statement about elements in the Periodic Table is correct?
Which equation for the decomposition of calcium nitrate is correct?
In which lists are the compounds in the same homologous series? 1) CH4, C2H4, C3H8 2) CH3OH, C2H5OH, C3H7OH 3) CH3CO2H, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Moving from right to left across the Periodic Table the elements show increasing metallic character. Why does metallic character increase from right to left across a period?
Which statements explain why zinc is used to protect iron from rusting?
1 Zinc is more reactive than iron. 2 Zinc is less reactive than iron. 3 Zinc can form alloys with iron. 4 Zinc acts as a sacrificial metal.
Which method produces a pure sample of copper(II) sulfate crystals?
Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air?
An isotope of chromium is represented by 5224Cr. Which statement about an atom of this isotope of chromium is correct?
Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis?
Which property explains why methane is used as a fuel?
Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct?
Which statement about the trends shown by the elements of Period 3 in the Periodic Table is not correct?
Which molecule contains only single covalent bonds?
What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1?
The surface of magnesium ribbon reacts with the air to form magnesium oxide. Which statement explains why the layer of magnesium oxide is removed by dilute hydrochloric acid?
What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate?
An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?
Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables. Which statement explains why these cables are used?
Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium?
When the colourless gas N2O4 is heated, it forms the brown gas NO2. When the reaction mixture is cooled, the brown colour fades and turns back to colourless. Which type of reaction is described by these observations?
Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
Which statement about metals and their uses is correct?
Pure iron is a soft metal. When mixed with small amounts of tungsten it produces a hard alloy called tungsten steel. Which statements are correct? 1 Pure iron is a transition element. 2 The particles in pure iron are arranged in ordered layers. 3 Tungsten steel is a compound.
Some properties of copper are listed. 1 It conducts electricity. 2 It conducts heat. 3 It is ductile. 4 It has a high melting point. Which properties of copper make it useful as a cooking pan?
Which process does not produce carbon dioxide?
Which statement about the Periodic Table is not correct?
A student measures the time taken for 2.0 g of magnesium to dissolve in 50 cm3 of dilute sulfuric acid. Which apparatus is essential to complete the experiment?
1 stop-clock 2 measuring cylinder 3 thermometer 4 balance
Which description of the bonding in alkanes is correct?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 An economy has a high rate of inflation. In response to this, its government increases income tax. What is the most likely reason for this increase? to redistribute income to raise money for government spending to discourage the consumption of harmful goods to reduce total demand 2 / 30 the use of previously unemployed resources a recession a change in what consumers want to buy more investment 3 / 30 Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information? their level of development their distribution of income and wealth their type of economic system their stages of production 4 / 30 What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday? the price paid for an air ticket to the holiday destination the rubbish created during the holiday which affects the local community the potential interest earned if the holiday money had been saved the satisfaction that the consumer gains from the holiday 5 / 30 A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer? the cost of installing wind turbines the reduced cost of producing renewable energy the loss of revenue from crops that grow on the land the profit made from selling the land 6 / 30 What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country? acting as lender of last resort issuing notes and coins setting the government’s budget operating the government’s monetary policy 7 / 30 What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right? an increase in the costs of production an increase in demand for the product an increase in government subsidies to producers an increase in indirect taxes on the product 8 / 30 Which type of business is always in the public sector? monopoly public corporation public limited company multinational corporation 9 / 30 Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it rises? regressive proportionate indirect progressive 10 / 30 What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation? Resources may be used less efficiently as domestic firms face less competition Domestic firms may be uncompetitive leading to structural unemployment Domestic firms may experience rising costs as they pay more for imports Consumers pay higher prices for goods and services reducing their welfare. 11 / 30 Which components, in addition to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per head, are included in the Human Development Index (HDI)? average earnings and inequalities of incomes size of population and age structure of population life expectancy at birth and expected years of schooling balance of trade and balance of payments 12 / 30 D C B A 13 / 30 What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker? Earnings are related to the level of skill. It may be difficult to find work locally. Career opportunities are abundant. Labour supply is elastic and plentiful. 14 / 30 Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run? a reduction in the standard rate of income tax a programme of privatisation grants to firms to research new technology removal of all restrictions on imports into the country 15 / 30 What is included in the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? population size level of net immigration rate of population growth life expectancy at birth 16 / 30 In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation? Girls do not favour heavy manual work. It costs more for girls to be trained as design engineers. Girls are only interested in low-wage jobs Girls have fewer opportunities to complete higher education. 17 / 30 What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? an increase in life expectancy at birth a rise in the number of years of schooling an increase in the level of car ownership a rise in the GDP per head 18 / 30 Y → X → Z Y → Z → X Z → Y → X Z → X → Y 19 / 30 There are 20 people able to buy the product. Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue. The product is one with many substitutes Producers are unable to respond to a price rise. 20 / 30 B A D C 21 / 30 A manufacturer of medical supplies benefits from improved road links to its main markets. What benefit definitely occurs as a result? increased internal economies of scale increased external economies of scale increased market share increased average revenue 22 / 30 What is an example of a fiscal policy measure? reducing the power of trade unions setting a lower interest rate increasing the exchange rate reducing the rate of corporation tax 23 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 24 / 30 What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation? an increase in the balance of payments surplus an increase in household consumption an increase in wages and salaries an increase in government spending on education 25 / 30 What could discourage women from seeking employment? More flexible and part-time jobs are available. There are fewer promotion opportunities for women. There is a shift in employment to the services sector More education and training are provided. 26 / 30 What is the most likely effect of a government reducing the money supply? Inflation will increase. Employment will decrease. Tax rates will decrease Growth will increase. 27 / 30 Two car manufacturers agree to merge. Which outcome would be a disadvantage for customers? lower average costs through economies of scale use of a wider range of marketing information increased capital for research and development reduced range of vehicles produced 28 / 30 A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers? land and capital labour and land enterprise and labour capital and enterprise 29 / 30 A C D B 30 / 30 A C D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
An economy has a high rate of inflation. In response to this, its government increases income tax. What is the most likely reason for this increase?
2 / 30
3 / 30
Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and Russia are of state-owned enterprises. Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information?
4 / 30
What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday?
5 / 30
A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce electric power. What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?
6 / 30
What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country?
7 / 30
What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right?
8 / 30
Which type of business is always in the public sector?
9 / 30
Which form of taxation always takes an increasing percentage of the taxpayer’s income as it rises?
10 / 30
What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation?
11 / 30
Which components, in addition to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per head, are included in the Human Development Index (HDI)?
12 / 30
13 / 30
What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker?
14 / 30
Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run?
15 / 30
What is included in the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?
16 / 30
In low-income countries, fewer girls than boys become skilled design engineers. What might explain this situation?
17 / 30
What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?
18 / 30
19 / 30
20 / 30
21 / 30
A manufacturer of medical supplies benefits from improved road links to its main markets. What benefit definitely occurs as a result?
22 / 30
What is an example of a fiscal policy measure?
23 / 30
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
24 / 30
What might cause prices to rise because of cost-push inflation?
25 / 30
What could discourage women from seeking employment?
26 / 30
What is the most likely effect of a government reducing the money supply?
27 / 30
Two car manufacturers agree to merge. Which outcome would be a disadvantage for customers?
28 / 30
A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?
29 / 30
30 / 30
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What causes market failure? the existence of perfect competition the existence of external benefits government provision of services social costs equal private costs 2 / 30 Economic growth can be defined as an increase in a country’s productive capacity. a reduction in a country’s rate of inflation. an increase in a country’s population. an increase in a country’s exports. 3 / 30 Which type of business is always in the public sector? multinational corporation public corporation public limited company monopoly 4 / 30 What is a macroeconomic aim of a government? unemployment balance of payments stability deflation income inequality 5 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? social welfare profit maximisation growth efficiency 6 / 30 B A C D 7 / 30 In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government. Which argument for protectionism was the EU using? the infant industry argument the strategic industry argument the sunset industry argument the anti-dumping argument 8 / 30 D A B C 9 / 30 A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to increase economic growth. Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims? It could lead to lower prices of consumer goods and result in deflation. It could stimulate consumer demand and lead to inflation. It could cause uncertainty and lead to lower demand. It could encourage more savings and lead to higher unemployment. 10 / 30 What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy? reduced tax rates higher interest rates increased money supply decreased budget deficit 11 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? bank lending interest rates the budget deficit the money supply 12 / 30 $60 $80 $30 $20 13 / 30 An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary? Its own dollar no longer acted as a store of value. Consumers only used credit cards rather than paper money. The central bank controlled the issue of money too tightly. Commercial banks restricted their lending. 14 / 30 What can be found in a market economy? tax rates and commercial banks externalities and monopolies public corporations and market prices interest rates and public goods 15 / 30 An economy has a high rate of inflation. In response to this, its government increases income tax. What is the most likely reason for this increase? to redistribute income to raise money for government spending to discourage the consumption of harmful goods to reduce total demand 16 / 30 Which combination of characteristics describes a public good? non-excludable and rival in consumption excludable and non-rival in consumption non-excludable and non-rival in consumption excludable and rival in consumption 17 / 30 What is an opportunity cost for a consumer spending money on a holiday? the price paid for an air ticket to the holiday destination the rubbish created during the holiday which affects the local community the potential interest earned if the holiday money had been saved the satisfaction that the consumer gains from the holiday 18 / 30 Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics? the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate the relationship between the wage rate of workers and demand for labour in an occupation the relationship between the output of a firm and its costs of production the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity demanded by a consumer 19 / 30 A country imposes tariffs and quotas on imported goods. What will citizens of that country experience? higher prices wider consumer choice higher welfare higher unemployment 20 / 30 What describes frictional unemployment? unemployment caused by the time of year unemployment caused by wages being too high unemployment caused by a general fall in economic activity unemployment caused by workers searching for jobs 21 / 30 What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy? a rise in the level of government spending a rise in the level of unemployment a fall in wage rates a fall in import prices 22 / 30 What is the definition of foreign exchange rate? the difference between the values of imports and exports the difference between emigration and immigration the price of one good in terms of another the price of one currency in terms of another 23 / 30 What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? an increase in life expectancy at birth a rise in the number of years of schooling an increase in the level of car ownership a rise in the GDP per head 24 / 30 In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this? no change in migration but the death rate rose the death rate fell with no change in migration a fall in infant mortality but no change in the death rate a rise in net immigration but no change in the death rate 25 / 30 Which type of business organisation is necessarily in the public sector of the economy? multinational company sole trader public limited company public corporation 26 / 30 Which policy would be most likely to reduce unemployment in the short run? a programme of privatisation removal of all restrictions on imports into the country a reduction in the standard rate of income tax grants to firms to research new technology 27 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the rate of inflation the reliability of banks the income of the family the level of taxation 28 / 30 A C D B 29 / 30 What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right? an increase in the costs of production an increase in indirect taxes on the product an increase in government subsidies to producers an increase in demand for the product 30 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developing, exporting services developing, exporting primary commodities developed, exporting services developed, exporting manufactured goods NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
What causes market failure?
Economic growth can be defined as
What is a macroeconomic aim of a government?
A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?
In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government. Which argument for protectionism was the EU using?
A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to increase economic growth. Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims?
What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy?
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
An African government has abandoned its own dollar and now uses the US dollar as its currency. Why would such a policy have been necessary?
What can be found in a market economy?
Which combination of characteristics describes a public good?
Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics?
A country imposes tariffs and quotas on imported goods. What will citizens of that country experience?
What describes frictional unemployment?
What is most likely to cause a rise in the rate of inflation in an economy?
What is the definition of foreign exchange rate?
In a country the birth rate increased but the population decreased. What could have happened to other factors to cause this?
Which type of business organisation is necessarily in the public sector of the economy?
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens? P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q. P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q. P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air. 2 / 40 Q and R only P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright P only S, T and U only 3 / 40 A D C B 4 / 40 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations? nuclear energy energy from tides hydroelectric energy energy from waves 5 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The current in each lamp is different. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. 6 / 40 A B C D 7 / 40 48V 12V 2.0V 4400V 8 / 40 A D C B 9 / 40 A C D B 10 / 40 A B C D 11 / 40 Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct? The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water. Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying The decay always produces poisonous gases. It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay. 12 / 40 C A D B 13 / 40 A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12V across it and a current of 0.60A in it. What is the resistance of the resistor? 7.2Ω 20Ω 0.050 2.0Ω 14 / 40 A D C B 15 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 5.0 m 0.20 m 18 000 m 300 m 16 / 40 A C B D 17 / 40 D A C B 18 / 40 D A B C 19 / 40 Put the bulb in a beaker of ice and salt. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling sea water. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water. Put the bulb in a beaker of pure melting ice. 20 / 40 Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)? A/Ω J /C W/C J / s 21 / 40 D C A B 22 / 40 D B C A 23 / 40 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring? gravitational potential energy elastic potential energy gravitational potential energy chemical energy 24 / 40 Which statement about mass is correct? Mass is a gravitational force. The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface. 25 / 40 3.0 minutes 2.0 minutes 1.5 minutes 4.0 minutes 26 / 40 In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope. The smoke particles move about with short random movements. Which of the following statements is correct? Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions. Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions. Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only. Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only. 27 / 40 B A D C 28 / 40 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave? 100 Hz 4.0 Hz 15 Hz 0.25 Hz 29 / 40 D A C B 30 / 40 D A C B 31 / 40 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train? 60 m / s 50 m / s 3.0 m / s 5.0 m / s 32 / 40 Cool the aluminium and heat the iron. Cool the aluminium and cool the iron. Heat the aluminium and heat the iron. Heat the aluminium and cool the iron. 33 / 40 B C A D 34 / 40 B A C D 35 / 40 The image is bigger than the object The image is closer to the lens than the object. The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens The image is inverted. 36 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from chemical to kinetic from kinetic to thermal from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from chemical to therma 37 / 40 D B A C 38 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.0 m / s 0.31 m / s 0.19 m / s 0.50 m / s 39 / 40 B C A D 40 / 40 Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track? to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?
Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct?
A resistor has a potential difference (p.d.) of 12V across it and a current of 0.60A in it. What is the resistance of the resistor?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
Which unit is equivalent to a volt (V)?
In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?
Which statement about mass is correct?
In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope. The smoke particles move about with short random movements. Which of the following statements is correct?
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train?
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 R only P and Q P only Q and R 2 / 40 What is meant by the power of an engine? the total energy that the engine transfers the maximum weight that the engine can lift the maximum force that the engine can exert the energy that the engine transfers per unit time 3 / 40 Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object? changing the surface texture from dull to shiny changing the surface colour from white to black increasing the surface area increasing the surface temperature 4 / 40 A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail? 39 mm2 350 mm2 0.56 mm2 11 mm2 5 / 40 C D B A 6 / 40 A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat? 500 m / s2 5.0 m / s2 100 m / s2 1.0 m / s2 7 / 40 B C D A 8 / 40 Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank? 400 N/ m2 2.5 × 10-4N/ m2 4000 N/ m2 2.5 × 10-3N/ m2 9 / 40 C B A D 10 / 40 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this? Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. 11 / 40 A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field. Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct? β-particles deflect, but α-particles do not deflect. Both α-particles and β-particles deflect in the same direction. α-particles deflect, but β-particles do not deflect. α-particles deflect in the opposite direction to β-particles. 12 / 40 A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit? decreasing the thickness of the wire increasing the length of the wire connecting a second identical length of wire in parallel with the original wire connecting a second identical length of wire in series with the original wire 13 / 40 the length of the reservoir the surface area of the water the depth of the water at X the thickness of the dam wall 14 / 40 The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current? P and Q R only Q and R P only 15 / 40 A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3. When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g. What is the density of the liquid? 0.50 g / cm3 2.0 g / cm3 13 g / cm3 15 g / cm3 16 / 40 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens? P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air. P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q. P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q. 17 / 40 When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated. What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom? The atom is mostly empty space. The atom has a dense nucleus. The atom is very small. The nucleus of the atom is positively charged. 18 / 40 All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer? pressure volume mass electrical resistance 19 / 40 D B A C 20 / 40 2.0 minutes 3.0 minutes 1.5 minutes 4.0 minutes 21 / 40 C B D A 22 / 40 C B A D 23 / 40 Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure? thermal expansion thermal capacity thermal energy thermal conduction 24 / 40 A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m. What is the average braking force acting on the car? 6.8 N 0.15 N 6800 N 56 000N 25 / 40 P has a greater reading than S P has a greater reading than Q P has a greater reading than R. P has a greater reading than T. 26 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The speed of the light changes. The amplitude of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. The colour of the light changes. 27 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. 28 / 40 D B C A 29 / 40 D C A B 30 / 40 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 31 / 40 B D A C 32 / 40 D C B A 33 / 40 A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations? gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and elastic energy internal energy and elastic energy gravitational potential energy, kinetic energy and internal energy gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy only 34 / 40 the length of the steel bar the thickness of the roller the length of the roller the length of the pointer 35 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. 36 / 40 D A C B 37 / 40 Both X and Y are repelled by the coil. Both X and Y are attracted to the coil. X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled. X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted. 38 / 40 When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this? The comb and the foil have charges of the same sign. The comb and the foil have charges of opposite sign. The comb is uncharged and the foil is charged. The comb is charged and the foil is uncharged. 39 / 40 The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller. The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly. The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly. The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more frequently. 40 / 40 An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct? A resultant force acts on the object outwards from the centre of the circle. There is no resultant force acting on the object because it is moving at constant speed. A resultant force acts on the object towards the centre of the circle. A resultant force acts on the object in the direction it is travelling. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
What is meant by the power of an engine?
Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object?
A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail?
A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?
Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?
The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this?
A beam of α-particles and β-particles is incident at right angles to an electric field. Which statement about the deflection of the particles in the field is correct?
A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?
The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current?
A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3. When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g. What is the density of the liquid?
When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated. What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?
All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer?
Which name is given to the change in volume of a gas when it is heated at constant pressure?
A car has 620 kJ of kinetic energy. The car brakes and stops in a distance of 91 m. What is the average braking force acting on the car?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct?
A mass hangs vertically from a spring. The mass is raised to a point P and is then released. The mass oscillates repeatedly between point P and a lower point Q. Which energies alternately increase and decrease throughout the oscillations?
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
When a plastic comb is placed next to a small piece of aluminium foil hanging from a nylon thread, the foil is repelled by the comb. Why is this?
An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them? carnivores decomposers producers herbivores 2 / 40 0.050 Hz 3.0 Hz 20Hz 0.33 Hz 3 / 40 Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right? They change from non-metals to metals. They change from elements to compounds. They change from metals to non-metals. They change from gases to solids. 4 / 40 cool the nut and heat the bolt heat the nut and the bolt through the same temperature rise heat the bolt only heat the nut only 5 / 40 Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct? They become more reactive down the group. They are hard solids. They change from metallic to non-metallic down the group. They react with water to form oxygen. 6 / 40 Copper is below both carbon and hydrogen in the reactivity series. How is copper extracted? Heat copper oxide with carbon. Heat copper sulfate crystals. Heat copper oxide with carbon dioxide. Heat copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid. 7 / 40 B D C A 8 / 40 A student has 50 identical sheets of paper. Which procedure is used to find the thickness of one sheet of paper? Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then divide by 50. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then add the thickness of 49 sheets. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then multiply by 50. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then multiply by the thickness of 49 sheets. 9 / 40 R only Q only P only P and Q 10 / 40 What is the definition of diffusion? the movement of particles down a concentration gradient the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient the movement of particles from a hotter to a cooler region the downward movement of particles in the atmosphere 11 / 40 graph 2 only neither graph graph 1 only both graphs 12 / 40 B C A D 13 / 40 B D C A 14 / 40 A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed? ruler thermometer balance clock 15 / 40 A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time. When does he develop the greatest power? lifting a box of mass 20 kg in 4.0 s lifting a box of mass 30 kg in 4.0 s lifting a box of mass 20 kg in 3.0 s lifting a box of mass 30 kg in 3.0 s 16 / 40 C D A B 17 / 40 A fixed mass of argon gas in a sealed container is heated. The pressure inside the container increases. Which statement explains why the pressure increases? There is an increase in the number of collisions per second between the particles of gas and the walls of the container. The particles of gas have less energy and collide with the wall of the container more frequently. There is a decrease in the space that the particles have to move in. There is an increase in the number of gaseous particles inside the container. 18 / 40 In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed? adding hydrochloric acid to calcium burning coal in air burning methane in air adding hydrochloric acid to calcium carbonate 19 / 40 C B D A 20 / 40 B D A C 21 / 40 Where does sound travel at the greatest speed? in a vacuum in a solid in a liquid in a gas 22 / 40 A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced? chlorine carbon dioxide ammonia hydrogen chloride 23 / 40 Which substances conduct electricity when molten? sodium chloride naphtha brass 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 24 / 40 D B A C 25 / 40 B C D A 26 / 40 A D C B 27 / 40 wheat dove cat fox 28 / 40 B A C D 29 / 40 Which words describe a noble gas? element, colourless, does not burn in air element, colourless, burns in air element, green, does not burn in air compound, colourless, does not burn in air 30 / 40 B C D A 31 / 40 D C A B 32 / 40 D B C A 33 / 40 D B A C 34 / 40 Which route does inspired air take to reach the alveoli? trachea → larynx → bronchioles → bronchi larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles trachea → larynx → bronchi → bronchioles larynx → trachea → bronchioles → bronchi 35 / 40 mq mgp mgq mp 36 / 40 A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2. The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg? 50 000Pa 5000Pa 200 000Pa 20 000Pa 37 / 40 A C B D 38 / 40 A B D C 39 / 40 What describes a solvent? the amount of solid that dissolves in a liquid a solid that dissolves in a liquid the mixture formed when a solid dissolves in a liquid the liquid in which a solid dissolves 40 / 40 D A C B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them?
Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right?
Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct?
Copper is below both carbon and hydrogen in the reactivity series. How is copper extracted?
A student has 50 identical sheets of paper. Which procedure is used to find the thickness of one sheet of paper?
What is the definition of diffusion?
A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed?
A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time. When does he develop the greatest power?
A fixed mass of argon gas in a sealed container is heated. The pressure inside the container increases. Which statement explains why the pressure increases?
In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed?
Where does sound travel at the greatest speed?
A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced?
Which substances conduct electricity when molten?
Which words describe a noble gas?
Which route does inspired air take to reach the alveoli?
A table of mass 20 kg is supported on four legs. The area of contact between each leg and the ground is 1.0 × 10–3 m2. The value of the gravitational field strength g is 10 N/ kg. How much pressure is exerted on the ground by each leg?
What describes a solvent?
