0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 What is included in a purchases ledger control account? discount allowed cash purchases goods returned to credit suppliers debts written off as irrecoverable 2 / 35 17 members 8 members 2 members 6 members 3 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? overcast by $200 undercast by $200 overcast by $200 overcast by $130 4 / 35 $12 100 $12 500 $10 900 $11 200 5 / 35 D C A B 6 / 35 A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform? preparing a monthly report that analyses the profitability of the company making entries in the general journal to adjust a provision for doubtful debts extracting balances from the ledger accounts to produce a trial balance recording sales and purchase invoices in the books of prime entry 7 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? decrease $11 600 increase $800 increase $11 600 decrease $800 8 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $670 $660 $600 $640 9 / 35 What is recorded in the sales journal? all money received from sales all sales transactions cash sales transactions credit sales transactions 10 / 35 B A C D 11 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to show the transactions which took place during the year to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities to summarise what the business owns and what it owes to calculate the profit for the year 12 / 35 $72 400 $67 900 $71 000 $70 200 13 / 35 There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account? $7800 $7200 $6960 $6600 14 / 35 Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account? provision for doubtful debts contra entry cash discount interest on overdue account 15 / 35 A B C D 16 / 35 Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years 1 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 only 17 / 35 What is recorded in a petty cash book? small cash transactions purchases of all small value items all cash transactions cash purchases and expenses only 18 / 35 C A B D 19 / 35 Which transaction is recorded in the general journal? correction of an error in recording sales returns purchase of goods on credit drawings in cash by the owner purchase of a motor vehicle by cheque 20 / 35 $31 545 $31 195 $32 445 $32 095 21 / 35 B D A C 22 / 35 Which statements about capital expenditure are correct? 1 It is money spent on day-to-day business operations. 2 It is money spent on purchasing non-current assets. 3 It is recorded in the statement of financial position. 4 It includes expenses relating to non-current assets. 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 23 / 35 $57 300 $55 700 $62 700 $58 700 24 / 35 What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement? A customer’s cheque dishonoured by the bank appeared only on the bank statement. Payment by a customer directly into the bank was not recorded in the cash book. A cheque received from a customer was not recorded in the bank statement. Payment of insurance by standing order was not recorded in the cash book. 25 / 35 Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice? $3880 $3400 $3298 $4000 26 / 35 What does not affect the total equity of a limited company? profit for the year ordinary share dividend paid issue of ordinary shares transfer from retained earnings to general reserve 27 / 35 Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month? debit purchases returns account credit purchases returns account credit sales returns account debit sales returns account 28 / 35 $16 500 $20 500 $18 250 $18 500 29 / 35 The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year? increase $11 600 decrease $800 decrease $11 600 increase $800 30 / 35 $26 000 $6000 $16 000 $1000 31 / 35 At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply? prudence matching materiality money measurement 32 / 35 B C A D 33 / 35 Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer? factory overheads, raw materials, direct expenses direct expenses, depreciation of factory machinery, royalties direct wages, factory supervisor’s wages, factory insurance raw materials, royalties, direct labour 34 / 35 Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets? to retain cash in the business for replacement of non-current assets to ensure that non-current assets appear at book value in the statement of financial position to charge the cost of non-current assets against profit in the year of purchase to ensure that the matching principle is applied when preparing financial statements 35 / 35 Which statement is not true about a trial balance? It can assist in finding arithmetical errors. It is a list of ledger account balances at a certain date. It is useful in preparing financial statements. It is part of the double entry system. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
What is included in a purchases ledger control account?
2 / 35
3 / 35
The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?
4 / 35
5 / 35
6 / 35
A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform?
7 / 35
The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the year it was valued at $5400. What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?
8 / 35
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
9 / 35
What is recorded in the sales journal?
10 / 35
11 / 35
John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position?
12 / 35
13 / 35
There are 120 members of a sports club. The annual subscription is $60. At the beginning of the year, no members had paid in advance and no members had subscriptions outstanding. At the end of the year, 7 members had not paid and 3 members had paid in advance. Which amount was shown for subscriptions in the income and expenditure account?
14 / 35
Which item is debited in a sales ledger control account?
15 / 35
16 / 35
Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years
17 / 35
What is recorded in a petty cash book?
18 / 35
19 / 35
Which transaction is recorded in the general journal?
20 / 35
21 / 35
22 / 35
Which statements about capital expenditure are correct? 1 It is money spent on day-to-day business operations. 2 It is money spent on purchasing non-current assets. 3 It is recorded in the statement of financial position. 4 It includes expenses relating to non-current assets.
23 / 35
24 / 35
What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement?
25 / 35
Tumelo sells on credit. The terms of trade are listed. list price: $200 per unit credit period: 60 days trade discount 15% if 10 units or more are purchased cash discount 3% if the debt is paid within one month A credit customer purchased 20 units and paid the debt within 15 days. What was the total of the invoice?
26 / 35
What does not affect the total equity of a limited company?
27 / 35
Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month?
28 / 35
29 / 35
30 / 35
31 / 35
At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply?
32 / 35
33 / 35
Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer?
34 / 35
Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets?
35 / 35
Which statement is not true about a trial balance?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 $29 500 $17 000 $15 000 $7000 2 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance 3 / 35 9.2 times 8 times 14.4 times 6 times 4 / 35 A farmer sold a piece of land at market value. How should the proceeds of this sale be treated? as a revenue receipt as capital expenditure as revenue expenditure as a capital receipt 5 / 35 decrease by $6000 increase by $6000 decrease by $2000 increase by $2000 6 / 35 B D C A 7 / 35 Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year? 1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account 2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers 3 drawings made by the owner during the year 4 wages paid to employees during the year 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 8 / 35 C D B A 9 / 35 $3400 credit $3800 debit $3800 credit $3400 debit 10 / 35 What is recorded in a petty cash book? cash purchases and expenses only all cash transactions small cash transactions purchases of all small value items 11 / 35 Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner 3 and 4 3 and 5 2 and 5 1 and 2 12 / 35 B A D C 13 / 35 D C B A 14 / 35 James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader. Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position? 1 long-term loan 2 retained earnings 3 trade payables 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 only 15 / 35 What is an example of a compensating error? A purchase of goods from C Jones was credited to the account of C Johns The wages account was undercast by $100 and the rent account was overcast by $100. A payment for office equipment repairs was debited to the office equipment account. The sale of goods, $65, to A Aziz was entered in the books as $56. 16 / 35 Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month. Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this? liquid (acid test) ratio trade payables turnover current ratio trade receivables turnover 17 / 35 What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business? royalties wages of factory supervisors wages of factory supervisors raw material 18 / 35 A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements. What is the effect of this on the interested parties? They can identify similarities with the financial statements of other businesses. They can understand the financial statements easily. They can use the financial statements in decision-making They can be sure that information in the financial statements is up to date. 19 / 35 Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction? sales journal purchases journal general journal cash book 20 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $1200 $2500 $1100 $2400 21 / 35 A D C B 22 / 35 C D B A 23 / 35 How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements? to calculate the amount of cash drawings taken to compare the business performance over a number of years to check the balance shown on a bank statement to calculate the amount that is owed by trade receivables 24 / 35 A B D C 25 / 35 How should inventory be valued? higher of cost and net realisable value cost net realisable value lower of cost and net realisable value 26 / 35 John maintains a full set of accounting records. Why does he also prepare a statement of financial position? to summarise what the business owns and what it owes to calculate the profit for the year to check if assets equal capital plus liabilities to show the transactions which took place during the year 27 / 35 The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show? Y has fewer current assets than X. Y has more inventory than X. X has fewer liabilities than Y X has more liquidity than Y. 28 / 35 What is recorded in the sales journal? all money received from sales credit sales transactions all sales transactions cash sales transactions 29 / 35 The discount column on the debit side of a trader’s cash book totalled $1300 and the discount column on the credit side totalled $700. How much discount did the trader receive? $700 $2000 $1300 $600 30 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? overcast by $130 overcast by $200 undercast by $200 overcast by $200 31 / 35 Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business? to know the total expenses of the business to calculate the provision for doubtful debts to know whether drawings are at a reasonable level to calculate the interest payable on a loan 32 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $600 $670 $660 $640 33 / 35 $605 $613 $595 $623 34 / 35 the recovery of a debt previously written off the balance carried down discount allowed an irrecoverable debt 35 / 35 $6000 $32 000 $13 000 $17 000 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
A farmer sold a piece of land at market value. How should the proceeds of this sale be treated?
Which items are deducted from the gross profit when calculating the profit for the year? 1 balance on the provision for doubtful debts account 2 carriage paid on goods supplied to customers 3 drawings made by the owner during the year 4 wages paid to employees during the year
Which businesses do not prepare a trading account section of an income statement? 1 furniture store 2 insurance company 3 newsagent 4 toy shop 5 window-cleaner
James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader. Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position? 1 long-term loan 2 retained earnings 3 trade payables
What is an example of a compensating error?
Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month. Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this?
What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business?
A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements.
What is the effect of this on the interested parties?
Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction?
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements?
How should inventory be valued?
The current ratio of X is 2 : 1. The current ratio of Y is 1.3 :1. What does a comparison of these ratios show?
The discount column on the debit side of a trader’s cash book totalled $1300 and the discount column on the credit side totalled $700. How much discount did the trader receive?
Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine. In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine. To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890? 204% 49% 51% 104% 2 / 40 A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population? all the red deer in the forest all the plants in the forest all the organisms in the forest all the animals in the forest 3 / 40 What is a function of some white blood cells? to carry glucose to produce antibodies to produce antibiotics to carry oxygen 4 / 40 B A C D 5 / 40 What happens when deforestation takes place? The number of habitats is increased. The number of species becoming extinct is increased. The possibility of flooding is decreased. The volume of soil present is increased. 6 / 40 What is a chemical barrier to pathogens? stomach acid skin white blood cells nose hairs 7 / 40 Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration? 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 3 8 / 40 Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct? It requires only one parent. It produces genetically different offspring. It requires two parents. It produces gametes. 9 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen? Salt left the plant tissue by osmosis. Water entered the plant tissue by active transport. Water left the plant tissue by osmosis. Salt entered the plant tissue by active transport. 10 / 40 Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes? hairs present on the upper and lower surfaces thick cuticle present on the upper and lower surfaces contain large air spaces stomata present on the lower surface only 11 / 40 How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis? They act as a store of oxygen. They let rainwater enter the leaf tissues. They allow carbon dioxide gas to diffuse through the leaf more rapidly. They increase the surface area for absorption of light energy. 12 / 40 A B D C 13 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → alcohol glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid 14 / 40 Which statement about fertilisation is correct? Two haploid gamete nuclei fuse to form a diploid zygote Two diploid gamete nuclei fuse to form a haploid zygote One diploid gamete nucleus divides to form a haploid zygote One haploid gamete nucleus divides to form a diploid zygote 15 / 40 D C A B 16 / 40 C B A D 17 / 40 Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant? root hair cells → root cortex cells → xylem → mesophyll cells → stomata root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root hair cells → xylem → root cortex cells → mesophyll cells → stomata 18 / 40 Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released condom monitoring body temperature vasectomy contraceptive pill 19 / 40 Some fish populations have greatly reduced in size as a result of overfishing. What are the effects on a species of having a very small population size? better adapted to environmental changes reduced genetic variation more competition for resources fewer genetic diseases 20 / 40 Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct? It has less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and more carbon dioxide. 21 / 40 Which type of molecule are enzymes made of? carbohydrate protein DNA fat 22 / 40 Changes occur in a boy’s body at puberty; his height increases, more muscle develops and body hair grows. Which hormone stimulates these changes? oestrogen insulin testosterone adrenaline 23 / 40 D B A C 24 / 40 Some fruit flies have orange eyes and others have red eyes. If two orange-eyed fruit flies are crossed, their offspring always have orange eyes. If two red-eyed fruit flies are crossed, their offspring can have orange eyes or red eyes. What can be concluded from these observations? The alleles for orange and red eyes are codominant. The allele for orange eyes is recessive The allele for orange eyes is dominant. This is an example of sex linkage. 25 / 40 Which process is part of the carbon cycle? evaporation precipitation combustion transpiration 26 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. The disorder is sex-linked. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. 27 / 40 The diagram shows a simple food chain. grass → gazelle → lion The arrows show the energy flow through the food chain. Where does the grass obtain its energy? water oxygen from air the Sun minerals in soil 28 / 40 Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container? glucose → lactic acid glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose + oxygen → alcohol 29 / 40 The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier? skin mucus hairs in the nose white blood cells 30 / 40 Which statements describe how an oxygen debt is removed after vigorous exercise? 1) Lactic acid is transported to the liver. 2) Lactic acid is respired aerobically. 3) Heart rate stays high to remove lactic acid from the muscles 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 31 / 40 Which element is found in proteins but is absent from fats? nitrogen hydrogen oxygen carbon 32 / 40 What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein? mRNA molecules DNA molecules alleles ribosomes 33 / 40 Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering? trypsin DNA ligase restriction enzyme lipase 34 / 40 the Sun the sea green sea urchins kelp 35 / 40 By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation? mitosis meiosis inheritance variation 36 / 40 What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans? to provide energy for growth and repair of cells to maintain strong bones and teeth to help food move through the alimentary canal 37 / 40 Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response? insulin testosterone oestrogen adrenaline 38 / 40 What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’? environment community trophic level habitat 39 / 40 Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct? It has more oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. 40 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine. In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine. To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890?
2 / 40
A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population?
3 / 40
What is a function of some white blood cells?
4 / 40
5 / 40
What happens when deforestation takes place?
6 / 40
What is a chemical barrier to pathogens?
7 / 40
Substances involved in aerobic respiration are listed. 1 carbon dioxide 2 glucose 3 oxygen 4 water Which substances are used during aerobic respiration?
8 / 40
Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct?
9 / 40
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen?
10 / 40
Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?
11 / 40
How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis?
12 / 40
13 / 40
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
14 / 40
Which statement about fertilisation is correct?
15 / 40
16 / 40
17 / 40
Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant?
18 / 40
Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released
19 / 40
Some fish populations have greatly reduced in size as a result of overfishing. What are the effects on a species of having a very small population size?
20 / 40
Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct?
21 / 40
Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?
22 / 40
Changes occur in a boy’s body at puberty; his height increases, more muscle develops and body hair grows. Which hormone stimulates these changes?
23 / 40
24 / 40
Some fruit flies have orange eyes and others have red eyes. If two orange-eyed fruit flies are crossed, their offspring always have orange eyes. If two red-eyed fruit flies are crossed, their offspring can have orange eyes or red eyes. What can be concluded from these observations?
25 / 40
Which process is part of the carbon cycle?
26 / 40
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
27 / 40
The diagram shows a simple food chain. grass → gazelle → lion The arrows show the energy flow through the food chain. Where does the grass obtain its energy?
28 / 40
Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?
29 / 40
The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier?
30 / 40
Which statements describe how an oxygen debt is removed after vigorous exercise? 1) Lactic acid is transported to the liver. 2) Lactic acid is respired aerobically. 3) Heart rate stays high to remove lactic acid from the muscles
31 / 40
Which element is found in proteins but is absent from fats?
32 / 40
What carries a copy of the gene to the cytoplasm to make a protein?
33 / 40
Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering?
34 / 40
35 / 40
By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation?
36 / 40
What is the dietary importance of fibre in humans?
37 / 40
Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response?
38 / 40
What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’?
39 / 40
40 / 40
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant body temperature? They are examples of homeostasis. They require carbon dioxide. They are controlled by hormones. They require energy. 2 / 40 What is defined as a length of DNA that codes for a protein? amino acid gene nucleus chromosome 3 / 40 By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood? diffusion breathing active transport osmosis 4 / 40 Enzymes function best at their optimum temperature. Which statement describes the effect on an enzyme of increasing the temperature to the enzyme’s optimum temperature? The enzymes begin to lose their complementary shape. The rate at which enzyme-substrate complexes form is reduced There are more frequent successful collisions. The kinetic energy of the enzymes decreases. 5 / 40 Which level of organisation is shown by the heart of a mammal? a tissue a cell an organ an organ system 6 / 40 D A C B 7 / 40 Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only 8 / 40 Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum? chemical digestion mechanical digestion ingestion egestion 9 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. 10 / 40 D C A B 11 / 40 C B A D 12 / 40 Coat colour in cattle is controlled by two codominant alleles. The genotype CRCRresults in cattle with a red coloured coat. The genotype CwCw results in cattle with a white coloured coat. The genotype CRCw results in a roan coat; these cattle have a mixture of red hairs and white hairs in their coat. A mating occurs between a red cow and a roan bull. What is the expected ratio of coat colour in the offspring? 50% red, 50% white 50% red, 50% roan 100% roan 100% red 13 / 40 Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called? mutation evolution selective breeding genetic engineering 14 / 40 Desert plants have evolved to survive in places where very little water is available. Which process is reduced to enable them to retain as much water as possible? translocation digestion respiration transpiration 15 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → alcohol glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide 16 / 40 Some functions of blood are listed. 1 antibody production 2 blood clotting 3 oxygen transport 4 phagocytosis What are functions of white blood cells? 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 17 / 40 C B A D 18 / 40 What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus? gametes → embryo → zygote embryo → zygote → gametes gametes → zygote → embryo embryo → gametes → zygote 19 / 40 A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population? all the plants in the forest all the red deer in the forest all the organisms in the forest all the animals in the forest 20 / 40 What will happen if a woman smokes during pregnancy? Nicotine can cause COPD in the lungs of the fetus. Carbon monoxide can cause cancer in the lungs of the fetus The woman can become addicted to carbon monoxide. Nicotine can cross the placenta and affect the fetus. 21 / 40 B C A D 22 / 40 Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant? root hair cells → root cortex cells → xylem → mesophyll cells → stomata root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root hair cells → xylem → root cortex cells → mesophyll cells → stomata root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells 23 / 40 biuret DCPIP Benedict’s limewater 24 / 40 What is a function of the lymphatic system? absorption of glucose blood clotting temperature regulation circulation of body fluids 25 / 40 How does blood enter the heart? through arteries into the atria through veins into the atria through veins into the ventricles through arteries into the ventricles 26 / 40 Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct? Females have two Y chromosomes. Males and females have at least one X chromosome. Females have an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. Males and females have at least one Y chromosome. 27 / 40 D C B A 28 / 40 The list contains statements about sexual and asexual reproduction in plants. 1 It promotes genetic variation. 2) It requires self-pollination. 3) It requires meiosis. 4) It produces offspring that are identical to the parent. 5) It allows the population to increase rapidly. Which statements describe asexual reproduction in plants? 1 and 2 only 4 and 5 1, 2 and 5 3 and 4 29 / 40 In which molecule are cross-links formed between bases? fat glycogen DNA carbohydrate 30 / 40 Which statement about respiration is correct? The energy in ethanol molecules is released by muscle cells. The energy in lactic acid is released by anaerobic respiration Deep breathing after exercise reduces an oxygen debt. Lactic acid produced by aerobic respiration causes an oxygen debt 31 / 40 Which endocrine gland produces insulin? testes adrenal gland pancreas ovary 32 / 40 A food chain is shown. potato plant → slug → hedgehog By which process is energy transferred from the slug to the hedgehog? photosynthesis excretion ingestion egestion 33 / 40 Which type of organism causes tooth decay? arachnid bacterium producer virus 34 / 40 B A D C 35 / 40 Scientists discover a new species of animal. It has a segmented body with two pairs of legs on each segment. To which group of animals does this new species belong? myriapods crustaceans arachnids insects 36 / 40 What is a chemical barrier to pathogens? white blood cells stomach acid nose hairs skin 37 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? new blood vessel growth breaks down implantation of embryo repair and thickening 38 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 39 / 40 Which statements describe how an oxygen debt is removed after vigorous exercise? 1) Lactic acid is transported to the liver. 2) Lactic acid is respired aerobically. 3) Heart rate stays high to remove lactic acid from the muscles 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 40 / 40 A chromosome was analysed and found to have 6125 pairs of bases. The type of each base was identified and 2345 of the bases were G. How many of the bases in this chromosome are T? 3780 1435 7560 6125 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
What is the link between muscle contraction, protein synthesis and the maintenance of a constant body temperature?
What is defined as a length of DNA that codes for a protein?
By which process does oxygen move from a region of higher concentration in the alveoli to a region of lower concentration in the blood?
Enzymes function best at their optimum temperature. Which statement describes the effect on an enzyme of increasing the temperature to the enzyme’s optimum temperature?
Which level of organisation is shown by the heart of a mammal?
Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?
Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?
Coat colour in cattle is controlled by two codominant alleles. The genotype CRCRresults in cattle with a red coloured coat. The genotype CwCw results in cattle with a white coloured coat. The genotype CRCw results in a roan coat; these cattle have a mixture of red hairs and white hairs in their coat. A mating occurs between a red cow and a roan bull. What is the expected ratio of coat colour in the offspring?
Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called?
Desert plants have evolved to survive in places where very little water is available. Which process is reduced to enable them to retain as much water as possible?
Some functions of blood are listed.
1 antibody production 2 blood clotting 3 oxygen transport 4 phagocytosis What are functions of white blood cells?
What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?
What will happen if a woman smokes during pregnancy?
What is a function of the lymphatic system?
How does blood enter the heart?
Which statement about the human sex chromosomes is correct?
The list contains statements about sexual and asexual reproduction in plants. 1 It promotes genetic variation. 2) It requires self-pollination. 3) It requires meiosis. 4) It produces offspring that are identical to the parent. 5) It allows the population to increase rapidly. Which statements describe asexual reproduction in plants?
In which molecule are cross-links formed between bases?
Which statement about respiration is correct?
Which endocrine gland produces insulin?
A food chain is shown. potato plant → slug → hedgehog By which process is energy transferred from the slug to the hedgehog?
Which type of organism causes tooth decay?
Scientists discover a new species of animal. It has a segmented body with two pairs of legs on each segment. To which group of animals does this new species belong?
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?
A chromosome was analysed and found to have 6125 pairs of bases. The type of each base was identified and 2345 of the bases were G. How many of the bases in this chromosome are T?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime Check 2 / 40 Silver chloride, AgCl, is insoluble. It can be made by a precipitation reaction between aqueous barium chloride and a suitable aqueous silver salt. (i) What is meant by the term precipitate? Gas Liquid Solid 3 / 40 Why is helium used to fill balloons? Helium has a full outer electron shell. Helium is in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Helium is monoatomic. Helium is less dense than air. 4 / 40 B D C A 5 / 40 Which statement about an alloy is correct? It is a mixture of a metal with other elements. It is a compound made of two or more elements, one of which is a metal It is a layer of a metal plated onto another metal It is a single element. 6 / 40 Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant? The layers in graphite can slide over each other. Each carbon atom forms three bonds. Graphite has a macromolecular structure. All of the atoms in graphite are carbon. 7 / 40 Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation? The product is very pure. The rate of reaction is very high. A non-renewable raw material is used. A continuous production process is used. 8 / 40 State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ………………………………………………………. Blue to White Only White Only Blue White to Blue 9 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1 manufacture of cement 2 manufacture of iron 3 treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 10 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? chlorine, Cl2 methane, CH4 water, H2O ammonia, NH3 11 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. They form acidic oxides. They conduct electricity. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon 12 / 40 Nitrogen(I) oxide, N2O, nitrogen(II) oxide, NO, and carbon monoxide, CO, are all non-metal oxides. They do not react with acids or bases. Which statement is correct? They are amphoteric oxides They are basic oxides. They are neutral oxides. They are acidic oxides. 13 / 40 Aluminium oxide has the formula Al2O3. Which statement about aluminium oxide is correct? Aluminium oxide has a relative formula mass of 102. 2 g of aluminium atoms are combined with 3 g of oxygen atoms. Pure aluminium oxide contains a higher mass of oxygen than of aluminium. 2 g of aluminium atoms are combined with 3 g of oxygen molecules. 14 / 40 Coal gas is made by heating coal in the absence of air. The list shows the main gases present in coal gas. carbon dioxide carbon monoxide ethene hydrogen methane nitrogen Which one of these gases is an alkane? nitrogen ethene hydrogen methane 15 / 40 Some properties of an organic compound J are listed. ● It is a liquid at room temperature. ● It is soluble in water. ● A solution of J reacts with calcium carbonate to form carbon dioxide. ● A solution of J has a pH of 3. In which homologous series does J belong? alkane carboxylic acid alcohol alkene 16 / 40 Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene? CH3CH2OH CH2BrCH2Br CH3CH3 CH3CH2CH3 17 / 40 2.00 g of powdered calcium carbonate is added to 50.0 cm3 of hydrochloric acid. Which apparatus is used to measure the calcium carbonate and the hydrochloric acid? Calcium carbonate balance – Hydrochloric acid thermometer Calcium carbonate pipette – Hydrochloric acid thermometer Calcium carbonate pipette – Hydrochloric acid burette Calcium carbonate balance – Hydrochloric acid burette 18 / 40 Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite. Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made? Carbon monoxide reduces aluminium oxide forming carbon dioxide and aluminium. Carbon is burned in the blast furnace to release heat energy. Oxygen made in the process reacts with the carbon electrode. The ore of aluminium undergoes thermal decomposition. 19 / 40 The list shows four methods that were suggested for the formation of carbon dioxide. 1) cracking methane using steam 2) action of heat on a carbonate 3) complete combustion of methane 4) reaction of a carbonate with oxygen Which methods would result in the production of carbon dioxide? 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 4 20 / 40 Which change in reaction conditions increases both the collision rate and the proportion of molecules with sufficient energy to react? increasing the temperature of the reaction increasing the surface area of a reactant increasing the concentration of a reactant addition of a catalyst 21 / 40 Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser? ammonium phosphate and potassium chloride potassium carbonate and ammonium nitrate potassium nitrate and ammonium chloride ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate 22 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used:to separate nitrogen from liquid air Check 23 / 40 When aqueous ammonia is added to aqueous iron(II) sulfate a green precipitate is seen. This green precipitate turns red-brown at the surface. Name the green precipitate. Check 24 / 40 What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation? The ethanol requires no separation. The process is very fast There are no other products formed. The raw materials used are renewable. 25 / 40 Different methods of separation rely on substances having different properties. Which property does distillation make use of? particle size solubility in different solvents colour boiling point 26 / 40 C A B D 27 / 40 B C A D 28 / 40 Which fuel does not rely on combustion to release energy? methane gasoline hydrogen uranium 29 / 40 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion? Aluminium has a protective oxide layer Aluminium does not react with water or air. Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series. Aluminium does not form ions easily. 30 / 40 State the empirical formula of the polymer. Check 31 / 40 Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air? carbon dioxide and nitrogen nitrogen and oxygen carbon dioxide and oxygen argon and nitrogen 32 / 40 Which statement is correct? When hydrated copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. When water is added to blue cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns pink. When anhydrous copper(II) sulfate is heated its colour changes to a deeper blue. When water is added to pink cobalt(II) chloride paper it turns blue. 33 / 40 A C B D 34 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms an oxide which leads to acid rain Check 35 / 40 Why is aluminium metal unreactive with air? It is covered with a layer of oxide. It melts at a high temperature. It is produced by electrolysis of its oxide. It is low in the reactivity series. 36 / 40 Rock salt is a mixture of sand and sodium chloride. Sodium chloride is soluble in water but not in hexane. Sand is insoluble in both water and hexane. What is required to separate the sand from the sodium chloride? 1 filter paper 2 fractionating column 3 hexane 4 water 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 37 / 40 Which statement describes how a flame test is done? A wooden splint is lit, blown out and the glowing splint put into a test-tube of the gas being tested. A wooden splint is lit and is placed above a test-tube containing the gas being tested. The tip of a clean wire is dipped into the substance and the wire is placed in a blue Bunsen burner flame. The tip of a clean wire is dipped into the substance and the wire is placed in a yellow Bunsen burner flame. 38 / 40 Nitrogen, N2, and hydrogen, H2, can be converted into ammonia, NH3, using a catalyst. What is the purpose of the catalyst? to increase the amount of ammonia produced to reduce the amount of reactants needed to increase the rate of reaction to reduce the rate of reaction 39 / 40 A D B C 40 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime
Silver chloride, AgCl, is insoluble. It can be made by a precipitation reaction between aqueous barium chloride and a suitable aqueous silver salt. (i) What is meant by the term precipitate?
Why is helium used to fill balloons?
Which statement about an alloy is correct?
Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant?
Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?
State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ……………………………………………………….
A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1 manufacture of cement 2 manufacture of iron 3 treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct?
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
Which property is shown by all metals?
Nitrogen(I) oxide, N2O, nitrogen(II) oxide, NO, and carbon monoxide, CO, are all non-metal oxides. They do not react with acids or bases. Which statement is correct?
Aluminium oxide has the formula Al2O3. Which statement about aluminium oxide is correct?
Coal gas is made by heating coal in the absence of air. The list shows the main gases present in coal gas. carbon dioxide carbon monoxide ethene hydrogen methane nitrogen
Which one of these gases is an alkane?
Some properties of an organic compound J are listed. ● It is a liquid at room temperature. ● It is soluble in water. ● A solution of J reacts with calcium carbonate to form carbon dioxide. ● A solution of J has a pH of 3. In which homologous series does J belong?
Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene?
2.00 g of powdered calcium carbonate is added to 50.0 cm3 of hydrochloric acid. Which apparatus is used to measure the calcium carbonate and the hydrochloric acid?
Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite. Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made?
The list shows four methods that were suggested for the formation of carbon dioxide. 1) cracking methane using steam 2) action of heat on a carbonate 3) complete combustion of methane 4) reaction of a carbonate with oxygen Which methods would result in the production of carbon dioxide?
Which change in reaction conditions increases both the collision rate and the proportion of molecules with sufficient energy to react?
Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser?
Give the name of the process that is used:to separate nitrogen from liquid air
When aqueous ammonia is added to aqueous iron(II) sulfate a green precipitate is seen. This green precipitate turns red-brown at the surface. Name the green precipitate.
What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation?
Different methods of separation rely on substances having different properties. Which property does distillation make use of?
Which fuel does not rely on combustion to release energy?
Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?
State the empirical formula of the polymer.
Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air?
Which statement is correct?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms an oxide which leads to acid rain
Why is aluminium metal unreactive with air?
Rock salt is a mixture of sand and sodium chloride. Sodium chloride is soluble in water but not in hexane. Sand is insoluble in both water and hexane. What is required to separate the sand from the sodium chloride? 1 filter paper 2 fractionating column 3 hexane 4 water
Which statement describes how a flame test is done?
Nitrogen, N2, and hydrogen, H2, can be converted into ammonia, NH3, using a catalyst. What is the purpose of the catalyst?
A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables. Which statement explains why these cables are used? Aluminium conducts electricity only when it surrounds a steel core. Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium because aluminium is an insulator. Steel conducts electricity and is surrounded by aluminium to stop the steel from corroding. Aluminium conducts electricity and the steel core makes the cable stronger. 2 / 40 Copper is used to make saucepans. Which properties of copper make it suitable for this use? 1 Copper has a relatively high melting point. 2 Copper has a low density. 3 Copper is a good conductor of electricity. 4 Copper is a good conductor of heat. 1 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 / 40 Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct? All petroleum fractions are used as fuels. Molecules in kerosene are larger than molecules in fuel oil. Gas oil is used to make bottled gas for heating. Hydrocarbons in diesel have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons in gasoline. 4 / 40 The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3. What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3? 74.5 52.0 223.5 106.5 5 / 40 What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation? There are no other products formed. The process is very fast The ethanol requires no separation. The raw materials used are renewable. 6 / 40 What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate? manufacture of aluminium cracking of hydrocarbons manufacture of cement purification of water 7 / 40 Which methods of salt preparation are suitable for copper(II) chloride? 1 Add copper(II) carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid. 2 Add copper to dilute hydrochloric acid. 3 Warm copper(II) oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid. and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 8 / 40 Which gas is released when slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is added to a field that has previously been treated with ammonium sulfate fertiliser? nitrogen ammonia carbon dioxide sulfur dioxide 9 / 40 Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture? distillation fractional distillation crystallisation filtration 10 / 40 Which statement about fuels is correct? Uranium is burned in air to produce energy. Heat energy is only produced by burning fuels. Methane is a good fuel because it produces only water when burned. Hydrogen is used as a fuel although it is difficult to store 11 / 40 Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide They are malleable, with a high melting point, and are electrical conductors. They are hard, with a high melting point, and are electrical insulators. They are brittle, with a low melting point, and are insoluble in water. They are soft, with a low melting point, and are electrical insulators. 12 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? chlorine, Cl2 ammonia, NH3 water, H2O methane, CH4 13 / 40 How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH? 5 10 8 6 14 / 40 The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct? Iron(III) oxide is oxidised. Iron is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is reduced. Carbon monoxide is oxidised. 15 / 40 Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 16 / 40 Which air pollutants can cause damage to buildings made of limestone? 1 carbon monoxide 2 lead compounds 3 oxides of nitrogen 4 sulfur dioxide 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 17 / 40 When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of a metal ion, a grey-green precipitate forms, which dissolves in excess to form a dark green solution. What is the identity of the metal ion? chromium(III) iron(III) iron(II) copper(II) 18 / 40 Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Potassium has the lowest melting point and the least violent reaction with water. Lithium has the highest melting point and the lowest density. Lithium has the highest density and the most violent reaction with water. Potassium has the highest melting point and the highest density. 19 / 40 Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct? 1) They contain both single and double bonds. 2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown. 3) They can be manufactured by cracking. 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 20 / 40 Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes? fuel oil naphtha kerosene /paraffin gasoline 21 / 40 A farmer moves his cows into a concrete shelter for protection. There is little access to fresh air once the door is closed. Which gases would increase in amount in the shelter? methane and oxygen carbon dioxide and methane carbon monoxide and oxygen carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide 22 / 40 Three properties of element X are listed. ● It contains atoms with a full outer shell of electrons. ● It is monoatomic. ● It is unreactive. In which part of the Periodic Table is the element placed? Group I Group VII transition elements Group VIII 23 / 40 Element X is in Group II of the Periodic Table. Which statements about X are correct? 1) X is a metal. 2) X has two electrons in its outer shell. 3) X is a liquid at room temperature. 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 24 / 40 Which three elements are needed in fertilisers? carbon, potassium and nitrogen calcium, nitrogen and phosphorus potassium, nitrogen and phosphorus potassium, phosphorus and carbon 25 / 40 P, Q, R and S are organic compounds. P is formed by reacting ethene with steam. Q decolourises bromine water. R is a hydrocarbon; all of its bonds are single covalent bonds. S is a waste product from digestion in animals. Which compounds are alkanes? R and S P and S Q and R P and Q 26 / 40 Which property is shown by transition elements? low density white compounds low melting point variable oxidation state 27 / 40 Which statements about strong acids are correct? 1 They have a high concentration of OH– ions. 2 They have a pH value of 1. 3 They completely ionise in water. 4 They turn red litmus blue. 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 28 / 40 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules? They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together. They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice. They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together. They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules. 29 / 40 Lithium and sodium are in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statements about the properties of lithium and sodium are correct? 1 Lithium has a lower melting point than sodium. 2 They both produce hydrogen when they react with water. 3 Lithium is less dense than sodium. 4 Lithium is more reactive than sodium. 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 30 / 40 Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas? digestion in cows acid rain on limestone buildings zinc reacting with sulfuric acid combustion of wood 31 / 40 Iron rusts when exposed to air. Which two substances in air cause iron to rust? carbon dioxide and oxygen oxygen and water nitrogen and oxygen carbon dioxide and water 32 / 40 Which statement describes a transition element? It can act as a catalyst and some of its compounds can also act as catalysts. It is a very poor conductor of electricity. It forms white compounds with sulfur, oxygen, chlorine and bromine. It has a low density and a piece of it will float on water. 33 / 40 Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia? petroleum limestone air water 34 / 40 Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide? It turns universal indicator green. It has a pH less than pH 7. It produces a gas when it is warmed with ammonium chloride. It turns blue litmus red. 35 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O 36 / 40 Which catalyst is used in the Contact process? vanadium(V) oxide manganese(II) oxide iron calcium oxide 37 / 40 Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct? They have the same number of neutrons They have the same mass. They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell. They are all radioactive. 38 / 40 Which statements about the uses of metals are correct? 1) Iron is used to make aircraft because iron has a low density. 2) Copper is used to make electric cables because copper is a good conductor of electricity. 3) Aluminium is used to make brass because aluminium is strong and hard. 4) Iron is mixed with additives to make an alloy used in chemical plant. 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 39 / 40 Which substance is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process? nickel vanadium(V) oxide iron phosphoric acid 40 / 40 Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets and is also used in hydrogen fuel cells. Which statements are correct? 1 Both uses produce water vapour. 2 Burning hydrogen produces polluting gases. 3 A fuel cell produces electricity. 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Steel core aluminium cables are used for overhead electricity cables. Which statement explains why these cables are used?
Copper is used to make saucepans. Which properties of copper make it suitable for this use? 1 Copper has a relatively high melting point. 2 Copper has a low density. 3 Copper is a good conductor of electricity. 4 Copper is a good conductor of heat.
Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?
The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3. What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3?
What is an industrial use of calcium carbonate?
Which methods of salt preparation are suitable for copper(II) chloride? 1 Add copper(II) carbonate to dilute hydrochloric acid. 2 Add copper to dilute hydrochloric acid. 3 Warm copper(II) oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Which gas is released when slaked lime, Ca(OH)2, is added to a field that has previously been treated with ammonium sulfate fertiliser?
Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture?
Which statement about fuels is correct?
Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide
How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?
The equation for the extraction of iron from its ore is shown. Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 Which statement is correct?
Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct?
Which air pollutants can cause damage to buildings made of limestone? 1 carbon monoxide 2 lead compounds 3 oxides of nitrogen 4 sulfur dioxide
When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of a metal ion, a grey-green precipitate forms, which dissolves in excess to form a dark green solution. What is the identity of the metal ion?
Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct? 1) They contain both single and double bonds. 2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown. 3) They can be manufactured by cracking.
Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation. Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes?
A farmer moves his cows into a concrete shelter for protection. There is little access to fresh air once the door is closed. Which gases would increase in amount in the shelter?
Three properties of element X are listed. ● It contains atoms with a full outer shell of electrons. ● It is monoatomic. ● It is unreactive. In which part of the Periodic Table is the element placed?
Element X is in Group II of the Periodic Table. Which statements about X are correct? 1) X is a metal. 2) X has two electrons in its outer shell. 3) X is a liquid at room temperature.
Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?
P, Q, R and S are organic compounds. P is formed by reacting ethene with steam. Q decolourises bromine water. R is a hydrocarbon; all of its bonds are single covalent bonds. S is a waste product from digestion in animals. Which compounds are alkanes?
Which property is shown by transition elements?
Which statements about strong acids are correct? 1 They have a high concentration of OH– ions. 2 They have a pH value of 1. 3 They completely ionise in water. 4 They turn red litmus blue.
Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?
Lithium and sodium are in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statements about the properties of lithium and sodium are correct? 1 Lithium has a lower melting point than sodium. 2 They both produce hydrogen when they react with water. 3 Lithium is less dense than sodium. 4 Lithium is more reactive than sodium.
Which process does not produce a greenhouse gas?
Iron rusts when exposed to air. Which two substances in air cause iron to rust?
Which statement describes a transition element?
Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?
Which property is shown by the alkali sodium hydroxide?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?
Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?
Which statements about the uses of metals are correct? 1) Iron is used to make aircraft because iron has a low density. 2) Copper is used to make electric cables because copper is a good conductor of electricity. 3) Aluminium is used to make brass because aluminium is strong and hard. 4) Iron is mixed with additives to make an alloy used in chemical plant.
Which substance is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?
Hydrogen is used as a fuel in rockets and is also used in hydrogen fuel cells. Which statements are correct? 1 Both uses produce water vapour. 2 Burning hydrogen produces polluting gases. 3 A fuel cell produces electricity.
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is a characteristic of tertiary industries? They tend to be labour-intensive. They transform raw materials into goods. They do not sell to the final consumer. They are located away from centres of population 2 / 30 What will cause the demand curve for a good to shift to the right? a decrease in the price of a complement good a decrease in the disposable income of consumers a decrease in the price of the good a decrease in the price of a substitute good 3 / 30 What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment? Sunjeev decided to stop working and claim benefits when the government increased unemployment benefits. Aneesha lost her job as an engineer when her firm had to make redundancies in a recession. Sunjit lost his job as a bank worker when the bank replaced his job with a new computer system. Jamie lost his job as an ice cream seller during the winter months when little ice cream was sold. 4 / 30 Which firm is most likely to be classified as a small firm in the tertiary sector? a supermarket a farm a hairdresser a steelworks 5 / 30 What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation? Resources may be used less efficiently as domestic firms face less competition Consumers pay higher prices for goods and services reducing their welfare. Domestic firms may be uncompetitive leading to structural unemployment Domestic firms may experience rising costs as they pay more for imports 6 / 30 A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate? It can quickly respond to changes in price. It keeps very low volumes of product in stock. It produces a good that has close substitutes. It can increase revenue by reducing the price. 7 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. The US government’s revenue will decline. There will be less of the good imported into the US. 8 / 30 A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information? The real rate of interest is negative. The rate of price increases is falling. There is increased purchasing power for those on fixed incomes. Prices are falling. 9 / 30 What is most likely to increase as a country becomes more developed? average household income the proportion of income spent on food average size of family infant mortality rate 10 / 30 What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy? decreased budget deficit higher interest rates increased money supply reduced tax rates 11 / 30 B A C D 12 / 30 a change in what consumers want to buy a recession more investment the use of previously unemployed resources 13 / 30 B C D A 14 / 30 B D A C 15 / 30 Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement? excess demand, resource allocation demand and supply, government subsidy public sector, factors of production opportunity cost, private monopoly 16 / 30 A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to increase economic growth. Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims? It could cause uncertainty and lead to lower demand. It could encourage more savings and lead to higher unemployment. It could stimulate consumer demand and lead to inflation. It could lead to lower prices of consumer goods and result in deflation. 17 / 30 What may result from a balance of payments trade surplus? The exchange rate depreciates and causes export prices to fall The exchange rate depreciates and causes export prices to rise The exchange rate appreciates and causes export prices to fall The exchange rate appreciates and causes export prices to rise. 18 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? diseconomies of scale elastic demand for the product high number of substitutes for the product barriers to entry 19 / 30 What could discourage women from seeking employment? More flexible and part-time jobs are available. More education and training are provided. There is a shift in employment to the services sector There are fewer promotion opportunities for women. 20 / 30 A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve? profit maximisation efficiency growth social welfare 21 / 30 OT RS OR RT 22 / 30 The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform? investing in transport infrastructure projects employing workers to collect taxes producing goods in public corporations distributing dividends from profits of state-owned enterprises 23 / 30 A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation? an increase in income tax rates an increase in imports an increase in government spending an increase in sales tax 24 / 30 $33 940 million $5050 million $7440 million $2390 million 25 / 30 The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this? The geographical mobility of labour has increased. Costs of employing workers are lower when there is unemployment. It is more expensive to live in the area where the retail jobs are available. Retailing demands the same skills everywhere. 26 / 30 Which government policy will increase productivity? encouraging labour-intensive production reducing private sector investment decreasing the number of training programmes promoting good industrial relations 27 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? cost of water wages of golf course staff loss of farmland sales of golf equipment 28 / 30 Two car manufacturers agree to merge. Which outcome would be a disadvantage for customers? increased capital for research and development lower average costs through economies of scale reduced range of vehicles produced use of a wider range of marketing information 29 / 30 How is the rate of inflation measured? by calculating the total number of people willing and able to work but cannot find work by calculating the total value of exports minus the total value of imports by calculating the real value of all output of goods and services in an economy by calculating the change in the price of goods and services from one year to the next 30 / 30 Why would standards of living fall when there is a recession? There would be a rise in the level of immigration. The government would increase taxes to combat the recession The value of the domestic currency would increase. The purchasing power of households would fall. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?
2 / 30
What will cause the demand curve for a good to shift to the right?
3 / 30
What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?
4 / 30
Which firm is most likely to be classified as a small firm in the tertiary sector?
5 / 30
What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation?
6 / 30
A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate?
7 / 30
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
8 / 30
A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1. Three years later it was 0.8%. What can be concluded from this information?
9 / 30
What is most likely to increase as a country becomes more developed?
10 / 30
What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy?
11 / 30
12 / 30
13 / 30
14 / 30
15 / 30
Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement?
16 / 30
A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to increase economic growth. Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims?
17 / 30
What may result from a balance of payments trade surplus?
18 / 30
What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market?
19 / 30
What could discourage women from seeking employment?
20 / 30
A bank continues to operate loss-making branches. Which objective is the bank trying to achieve?
21 / 30
22 / 30
The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform?
23 / 30
A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation?
24 / 30
25 / 30
The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this?
26 / 30
Which government policy will increase productivity?
27 / 30
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
28 / 30
Two car manufacturers agree to merge. Which outcome would be a disadvantage for customers?
29 / 30
How is the rate of inflation measured?
30 / 30
Why would standards of living fall when there is a recession?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy? investment hyperinflation interest rates income taxes 2 / 30 What is a fiscal policy measure? exchange rates regulation interest rates direct tax 3 / 30 What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure? A monopolist may determine the price of its product. There is easy entry into the market. A monopolist’s product has many substitutes. There are no external costs. 4 / 30 Fork-lift truck drivers earned the lowest wages in 2015. Doctors have earned more than lawyers since 1985. Professionals received higher percentage increases in income than manual workers. All occupations were better off in 2015 than in 1985. 5 / 30 A government retrains unemployed industrial workers to increase employment opportunities. The policy may have adverse effects on other government macroeconomic aims. What illustrates this situation? Near full employment may result in a more stable balance of payments. Increased wage-earning capacity may lead to demand-pull inflation. Better skilled workers may increase productivity and improve economic growth. More employed workers may reduce government expenditure on benefit payments. 6 / 30 Which government action will not add directly to the quantity or quality of human resources? reclamation of land from the sea provision of better food and nutrition improvement in health facilities investment in education and training 7 / 30 What is an economist’s definition of a market? a system that enables individuals and firms to buy and sell goods the existence of consumer demand for a good a collection of informal retail outlets run by small firms a place where traders gather regularly for short periods 8 / 30 Which statement about factors of production is correct? Profit is the reward for enterprise. Capital is the amount of money borrowed from a bank. Land includes commercially grown rice crops. Labour is output made by an employee 9 / 30 C B D A 10 / 30 Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this? Incomes earned from trading decline. The average cost of production decreases. The production possibility of an economy expands. Incomes earned from trading decline. 11 / 30 What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy? A trade in goods surplus will fall. Import prices will rise. Export prices will rise. The inflation rate will fall. 12 / 30 A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this? It leads to more people paying income taxes. It changes the distribution of income. It reduces the level of unemployment. It ensures the equality of incomes. 13 / 30 What is meant by the equilibrium price in the market for a good? the price at which the supply and demand curves intersect the average price paid by consumers the price at which the producer breaks even the price at which maximum profit is made 14 / 30 What is a likely cause of economic growth? decreased investment decreased taxation decreased productivity decreased employment 15 / 30 Changes in the foreign exchange rate of a country resulted in a depreciation of its currency. What is not likely to happen? The country’s residents will find it more expensive to take holidays abroad. The current account deficit will be unchanged. The costs of imported raw materials will fall. The country’s export trading position will become more competitive. 16 / 30 The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this? The price of capital will fall. The costs of production will increase. The supply of capital will decrease. The demand for capital will increase. 17 / 30 An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs? $150 000 $220 000 $370 000 $100 000 18 / 30 A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers? labour and land enterprise and labour capital and enterprise land and capital 19 / 30 A student has nothing to do on a Friday evening. She withdraws $5 from the $100 she has in a savings account and buys a present to take to a party, to which admission is free. What does this involve? an opportunity cost equal to $95 an opportunity cost equal to other goods she could have bought for $5 no opportunity cost, as entrance to the party is free no opportunity cost, as she had no better way of using the time 20 / 30 What is meant by equilibrium in a market? where total costs equal total revenue where products offered for sale equal consumer demand where profit is at the expected level where the quantity of inputs equals the quantity of output 21 / 30 What is an advantage of a market economy? The lowest price possible is always charged. Equilibrium market price clears the market. The government has no need to intervene in markets. Producers and consumers have the same aims. 22 / 30 What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker? a low price of the product that they make the opportunity to undertake training boredom due to repetition of the same task higher quality of the good 23 / 30 What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production? increase in the demand for the good or service produced decrease in the price of an alternative factor of production decrease in the efficiency of the factor of production increase in the price of the factor of production 24 / 30 What is identified as economic growth? the economy enters a period of recession a fall in labour productivity an increase in the Consumer Prices Index (CPI) an increase in the productive capacity of the economy 25 / 30 Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection? reducing the range of products supplied to the market preventing mergers which result in high monopoly prices reducing shop opening hours discouraging economies of scale that lead to lower costs 26 / 30 Economies have become increasingly linked through globalisation. What would discourage this? expansion of trade in financial services creation of a single world market direct foreign investment by multinational companies protectionist policies by trading groups 27 / 30 What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation? The real value of money falls. The level of imports increases. Consumers delay spending. Governments raise interest rates. 28 / 30 What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments? a fall in the value of imported manufactured goods into the country a rise in the revenue earned from tourism in the country a fall in foreign direct investment into the country a fall in interest earned on overseas investment by the country 29 / 30 The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called? appreciation depreciation devaluation revaluation 30 / 30 What is an immediate effect for a country of a fall in its foreign exchange rate? more competitive exports cheaper imports a fall in the money supply an increase in purchasing power NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy?
What is a fiscal policy measure?
What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure?
A government retrains unemployed industrial workers to increase employment opportunities. The policy may have adverse effects on other government macroeconomic aims. What illustrates this situation?
Which government action will not add directly to the quantity or quality of human resources?
What is an economist’s definition of a market?
Which statement about factors of production is correct?
Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this?
What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy?
A government increases the rate of income tax in order to pay for extra transfer payments, including cash benefits to the poor. What must occur as a result of this?
What is meant by the equilibrium price in the market for a good?
What is a likely cause of economic growth?
Changes in the foreign exchange rate of a country resulted in a depreciation of its currency. What is not likely to happen?
The development of artificial intelligence in machines raises the productivity of capital. What will be the effect of this?
An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs?
A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?
A student has nothing to do on a Friday evening. She withdraws $5 from the $100 she has in a savings account and buys a present to take to a party, to which admission is free. What does this involve?
What is meant by equilibrium in a market?
What is an advantage of a market economy?
What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker?
What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production?
What is identified as economic growth?
Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection?
Economies have become increasingly linked through globalisation. What would discourage this?
What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation?
What would cause a rise in the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments?
The price of a currency in a fixed exchange rate system is reduced. What is this called?
What is an immediate effect for a country of a fall in its foreign exchange rate?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C B A D 2 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. 3 / 40 more than 8Ω 8Ω 4Ω less than 4Ω 4 / 40 2.0 minutes 1.0 minute 2.5 minutes 4.0 minutes 5 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? Radioactive decay is a random process. γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum The radiation given out is ionising. Radioactive materials have a half-life. 6 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 2 and 3 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 7 / 40 D C A B 8 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 40W 40 000W 4000W 400W 9 / 40 C D A B 10 / 40 A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit? connecting a second identical length of wire in parallel with the original wire decreasing the thickness of the wire increasing the length of the wire connecting a second identical length of wire in series with the original wire 11 / 40 F × q F × t F × s F × r 12 / 40 72 cm / s 48 cm / s 12 cm / s 3.0 cm / s 13 / 40 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor? light-dependent resistor thermistor relay motor 14 / 40 10N 14N 2.0 N 7.0 N 15 / 40 A B C D 16 / 40 D B C A 17 / 40 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction? plastic steel copper rubber 18 / 40 S, T and U only P only P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright Q and R only 19 / 40 A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct? There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus. There are 6 protons in the nucleus. There are 6 electrons in the nucleus. There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus. 20 / 40 A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom? on the orbiting particles spread throughout the atom in the nucleus in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles 21 / 40 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours. A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second. Background radiation can be ignored. What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later? 3000 counts per second 1500 counts per second 750 counts per second 2000 counts per second 22 / 40 B D A C 23 / 40 C B A D 24 / 40 A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall. A boy looks at the image of himself in the mirror. Which statement describes the image formed? virtual and upright real and upside down real and upright virtual and upside down 25 / 40 mass volume length weight 26 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? visible light rays ultraviolet rays infrared rays gamma rays 27 / 40 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays? Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. 28 / 40 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 29 / 40 C A B D 30 / 40 D A C B 31 / 40 C D B A 32 / 40 A D C B 33 / 40 B C D A 34 / 40 thermistor relay coil light-dependent resistor variable resistor 35 / 40 Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations? energy from tides energy from waves nuclear energy hydroelectric energy 36 / 40 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit? to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs to prevent the current becoming too large so that the current can have only one value to save electrical energy 37 / 40 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 38 / 40 The speed of the object is decreasing with constant deceleration. The speed of the object is increasing with an acceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is decreasing with a deceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is increasing with constant acceleration. 39 / 40 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring? chemical energy gravitational potential energy elastic potential energy gravitational potential energy 40 / 40 Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank? 4000 N/ m2 2.5 × 10-3N/ m2 400 N/ m2 2.5 × 10-4N/ m2 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?
An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor?
Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?
A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?
A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom?
A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours. A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second. Background radiation can be ignored. What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?
A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall. A boy looks at the image of himself in the mirror. Which statement describes the image formed?
Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum?
Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?
A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct?
Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?
Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?
A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect. Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given. 1 Increase the number of turns on the coil. 2 Increase the current in the coil. 3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field. Which suggestions are correct?
In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?
Liquid of mass 92 kg is contained in a rectangular tank. The area of the base of the tank is 0.23 m2. What is the pressure exerted by the liquid on the base of the tank?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 40 000W 400W 4000W 40W 2 / 40 A B C D 3 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? ultraviolet rays infrared rays visible light rays gamma rays 4 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from chemical to kinetic from chemical to therma from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from kinetic to thermal 5 / 40 I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3. I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2. I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3 All three readings are the same. 6 / 40 A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct? There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus. There are 6 protons in the nucleus. There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus. There are 6 electrons in the nucleus. 7 / 40 C D A B 8 / 40 1 N to the right 7 N to the right 7 N to the left 1 N to the left 9 / 40 A C B D 10 / 40 C D B A 11 / 40 10N 2.0 N 7.0 N 14N 12 / 40 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection? 38º 142º 52º 76º 13 / 40 D C A B 14 / 40 A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave? 0.25 Hz 100 Hz 15 Hz 4.0 Hz 15 / 40 m1 is less than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 m1 is equal to m2 and m2 is equal to m3. m1 is greater than m2 and m2 is greater than m3 m1 is less than m2 and m2 is less than m3 16 / 40 D A C B 17 / 40 A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity? The skydiver’s speed is zero. The skydiver’s speed is increasing. The skydiver’s speed is decreasing. The skydiver is moving with constant speed. 18 / 40 10 min 14 min 12 min 40 min 19 / 40 Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested. Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction? steel rubber plastic copper 20 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured? watt ampere coulomb joule 21 / 40 D A C B 22 / 40 C D A B 23 / 40 A model of an atom consists of small particles orbiting a central nucleus. Where is the positive charge in an atom? on the orbiting particles in the space between the nucleus and the orbiting particles in the nucleus spread throughout the atom 24 / 40 WY XZ ZY XY 25 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. 26 / 40 face X face Y The pressure is the same for all the faces. face Z 27 / 40 It can slow down the spaceship, or speed it up, but not change its direction. It can change the direction of the spaceship, slow it down, or speed it up. It can change the direction of the spaceship, or speed it up, but not slow it down. It can change the direction of the spaceship, or slow it down, but not speed it up. 28 / 40 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 29 / 40 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 30 / 40 P only Q and R only P, Q, R, S, T and U are equally bright S, T and U only 31 / 40 Which statement about mass is correct? Mass is a gravitational force. A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface. The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases 32 / 40 C B A D 33 / 40 A D B C 34 / 40 The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 35 / 40 A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described? a liquid being heated a solid cooling a gas being heated a gas cooling 36 / 40 Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens? P reads lower than Q because the wet gauze insulates bulb Q. P reads lower than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and warms bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because water evaporates from the gauze and cools bulb Q. P reads higher than Q because bulb P absorbs energy from the air. 37 / 40 A C D B 38 / 40 1.5 minutes 4.0 minutes 2.0 minutes 3.0 minutes 39 / 40 the thickness of the dam wall the surface area of the water the depth of the water at X the length of the reservoir 40 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 7.0N 4.0N 2.0N 6.0N NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection?
A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete wavelengths pass her in 20 s. What is the frequency of this wave?
A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane and falls towards the Earth. Which statement is correct when the skydiver has reached terminal velocity?
There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V. A student calculates the product IVt. In which unit is the student’s answer measured?
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?
Which statement about mass is correct?
The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids?
A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing. Which state of matter is being described?
Two thermometers, P and Q, give the same reading at room temperature. The bulb of thermometer Q is wrapped in gauze and dipped in a beaker of water at room temperature. Air at room temperature is blown over the two thermometer bulbs. Which statement correctly describes and explains what happens?
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C D B A 2 / 40 Some statements about adrenaline are listed. It has one target organ. It is a hormone. It is produced by a gland. It is transported in the blood. Which statements are correct? 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 3 / 40 Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue? in the opposite direction to its original direction into the glass in its original direction along the surface of the glass into the glass in a new direction 4 / 40 Barium hydroxide is an alkali. Which statement about barium hydroxide is correct? It reacts with metal carbonates. It turns Universal Indicator red It has a pH greater than 7 in aqueous solution. It reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide. 5 / 40 C D A B 6 / 40 A B D C 7 / 40 A C B D 8 / 40 Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them? carnivores herbivores decomposers producers 9 / 40 D B A C 10 / 40 B C D A 11 / 40 Which statement about ethene is not correct? It is used to make an addition polymer. It decolourises aqueous bromine. It is formed by cracking larger alkanes. It is a saturated hydrocarbon 12 / 40 C B D A 13 / 40 Which substances conduct electricity when molten? sodium chloride naphtha brass 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 14 / 40 A B D C 15 / 40 What is the function of the cell membrane? to store nutrients or waste products to hold the chlorophyll of the cell to hold the DNA of the cell to control which substances move in and out of the cell 16 / 40 The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth. This stops when the food reaches the stomach. Why does this happen? The shape of the substrate molecules is changed. The acid in the stomach slows down all reactions. The kinetic energy of molecules is reduced by acids. The shape of the active site of the enzyme is altered by the low pH. 17 / 40 A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced? hydrogen chloride chlorine carbon dioxide ammonia 18 / 40 Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood? carbohydrate and vitamin D carbohydrate and iron calcium and vitamin D calcium and iron 19 / 40 B D C A 20 / 40 A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water? conduction evaporation convection radiation 21 / 40 heat the nut and the bolt through the same temperature rise heat the bolt only heat the nut only cool the nut and heat the bolt 22 / 40 Which statement about hydrocarbons is correct? Alkanes decolourise bromine water. Alkenes contain a double bond. Alkanes are produced by cracking alkenes. Alkenes are saturated hydrocarbons. 23 / 40 Which statement about the treatment of the water supply is correct? Water is filtered to remove dissolved impurities. Chlorine is added to remove dissolved impurities. After filtration and chlorination, the water contains no impurities. Water is filtered and chlorinated to remove solids and kill bacteria. 24 / 40 What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans? increased rate of breathing and increased pulse rate slower pulse rate and narrower pupils increased rate of breathing and narrower pupils slower pulse rate and wider pupils 25 / 40 cat wheat fox dove 26 / 40 A C D B 27 / 40 Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series. What are the general properties of a homologous series? same general formula same melting point similar chemical properties 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 28 / 40 Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z? a mixture a compound a noble gas an element 29 / 40 Methane, ethane and propane are all alkanes. Their formulae are shown. methane, CH4 ethane, C2H6 propane, C3H8 Which statement is not correct? Methane is the main constituent of natural gas All three compounds are hydrocarbons. All three compounds burn. Propane burns completely to form carbon dioxide and hydrogen. 30 / 40 Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct? Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white. Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns white. Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns blue. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns blue. 31 / 40 C A D B 32 / 40 Which large molecules are made from smaller molecules of glucose? glycerol and fatty acids starch and glycogen amino acids and fatty acids glycogen and glycerol 33 / 40 B D A C 34 / 40 Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct? They are hard. They have low densities. They are malleable. They conduct electricity. 35 / 40 A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean. A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is received back at the boat. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. How deep is the ocean under the boat? 680 m 340 m 6600 m 3300 m 36 / 40 Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station? It is the only power station that does not use a renewable form of energy. It is the only power station that does not use steam as part of the process. It is the only power station that uses a renewable form of energy. It is the only power station that uses steam as part of the process. 37 / 40 carnivorous insects and voles spiders and stoats kestrels and stoats foxes and lizards 38 / 40 Dilute sulfuric acid breaks down when electricity is passed through it. What is the name of this process? crystallisation distillation electrolysis cracking 39 / 40 A C B D 40 / 40 A C D B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Some statements about adrenaline are listed.
Which statements are correct?
Light in air hits a plane glass surface at an angle of incidence of 45. In which direction does the light continue?
Barium hydroxide is an alkali. Which statement about barium hydroxide is correct?
Some organisms obtain their energy from dead or waste organic matter. Which term describes them?
Which statement about ethene is not correct?
Which substances conduct electricity when molten?
What is the function of the cell membrane?
The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth. This stops when the food reaches the stomach. Why does this happen?
A mixture of ammonium carbonate and ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which gas is produced?
Which two nutrients does a pregnant woman need in greater amounts to help her baby develop bones and blood?
A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water?
Which statement about hydrocarbons is correct?
Which statement about the treatment of the water supply is correct?
What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans?
Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series. What are the general properties of a homologous series?
Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom. What is Z?
Methane, ethane and propane are all alkanes. Their formulae are shown. methane, CH4 ethane, C2H6 propane, C3H8 Which statement is not correct?
Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct?
Which large molecules are made from smaller molecules of glucose?
Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct?
A boat uses sound to find the depth of the ocean. A sound wave is directed from the boat towards the ocean floor, and 4.4 s later an echo is received back at the boat. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s. How deep is the ocean under the boat?
Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear fission or geothermal resources. How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station?
Dilute sulfuric acid breaks down when electricity is passed through it. What is the name of this process?
