0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 B A D C 2 / 35 Which statements about capital expenditure are correct? 1 It is money spent on day-to-day business operations. 2 It is money spent on purchasing non-current assets. 3 It is recorded in the statement of financial position. 4 It includes expenses relating to non-current assets. 2 and 4 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 3 / 35 Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct? It acts as a check on the balance of the purchases account. It provides proof of the arithmetical accuracy of the purchases ledger It is prepared using information from the books of prime entry. It includes transactions relating to all the credit suppliers. 4 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $3000 $5000 $68 000 $83 000 5 / 35 C B A D 6 / 35 C A B D 7 / 35 Subscriptions prepaid on 31 December 2020 amounted to $3000. Subscriptions relating to the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $29 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 1 January 2020 amounted to $2000. Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $24 000. 8 / 35 Jameel sold goods on credit. Where did he first record the invoice he issued? sales ledger sales journal general ledger general journal 9 / 35 The bank statement of a business had a credit balance of $2690 on 1 October 2021. At that date cheques totalling $850 had not yet been presented for payment. What was the bank balance in the cash book on 1 October 2021? $3540 debit $1840 credit $3540 credit $1840 debit 10 / 35 A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises 1, 2 and 4 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 11 / 35 $1800 $5750 $2950 $3450 12 / 35 Which statement is correct? The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. 13 / 35 6 times 9.2 times 14.4 times 8 times 14 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? overcast by $200 undercast by $200 overcast by $130 overcast by $200 15 / 35 Why would a business record the amount owing by a credit customer as an irrecoverable debt? The customer is making a loss. The customer has liquidity problems The customer is not satisfied with the goods The customer has gone out of business. 16 / 35 Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020? $2000 $6000 $4000 $5000 17 / 35 The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year? $15 860 $16 140 $17 100 $14 900 18 / 35 Goods sold to Samir had been debited to Samuel. Goods bought from Samir had been credited to Samuel. Cash received from Samuel had been debited to Samir. Cash paid to Samir had been credited to Samuel. 19 / 35 A B C D 20 / 35 What is an example of a compensating error? A purchase of goods from C Jones was credited to the account of C Johns The wages account was undercast by $100 and the rent account was overcast by $100. The sale of goods, $65, to A Aziz was entered in the books as $56. A payment for office equipment repairs was debited to the office equipment account. 21 / 35 $2070 credit $870 debit $2070 debit $870 credit 22 / 35 Why would a supplier be interested in the financial statements of a credit customer? to know the value of the inventory to know the profit for the year to know if the customer can pay what he owes to know the amount owed by trade receivables 23 / 35 B D C A 24 / 35 What is the purpose of a partnership appropriation account? to record partners’ drawings to show the movement on partners’ capital accounts to show the distribution of profits between partners to calculate partners’ salaries 25 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper? preparation of financial statements provision of information for decision-making recording financial transactions comparison of financial statements between years 26 / 35 What are advantages of operating as a sole trader? 1 The owner can keep all the profit. 2 The owner can raise finance by issuing debentures. 3 The owner can make decisions independently. 4 The owner is protected by limited liability. 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 only 2 and 3 27 / 35 D B C A 28 / 35 John’s rate of inventory turnover was 10 times in year 1 and 8 times in year 2. What may have caused the change in the rate of inventory turnover? fall in demand higher sales lower inventory levels lower selling price 29 / 35 What is included in a purchases ledger control account? goods returned to credit suppliers cash purchases discount allowed debts written off as irrecoverable 30 / 35 D C A B 31 / 35 What is shown in a trial balance? ledger balances on a particular date financial transactions for a particular period receipts and payments for a particular period capital and profit on a particular date 32 / 35 B A D C 33 / 35 What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement? Payment by a customer directly into the bank was not recorded in the cash book. A customer’s cheque dishonoured by the bank appeared only on the bank statement. Payment of insurance by standing order was not recorded in the cash book. A cheque received from a customer was not recorded in the bank statement. 34 / 35 A B C D 35 / 35 Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer? direct wages, factory supervisor’s wages, factory insurance direct expenses, depreciation of factory machinery, royalties raw materials, royalties, direct labour factory overheads, raw materials, direct expenses NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
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TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
Which statements about capital expenditure are correct? 1 It is money spent on day-to-day business operations. 2 It is money spent on purchasing non-current assets. 3 It is recorded in the statement of financial position. 4 It includes expenses relating to non-current assets.
3 / 35
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?
4 / 35
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
5 / 35
6 / 35
7 / 35
8 / 35
Jameel sold goods on credit. Where did he first record the invoice he issued?
9 / 35
The bank statement of a business had a credit balance of $2690 on 1 October 2021. At that date cheques totalling $850 had not yet been presented for payment. What was the bank balance in the cash book on 1 October 2021?
10 / 35
A trader has purchased new business premises. What are examples of capital expenditure? 1 cost of heating and lighting the new premises 2 cost of purchasing the new premises 3 legal costs of purchasing the new premises 4 office furniture purchased for use in the new premises
11 / 35
12 / 35
Which statement is correct?
13 / 35
14 / 35
The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?
15 / 35
Why would a business record the amount owing by a credit customer as an irrecoverable debt?
16 / 35
Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020?
17 / 35
The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year?
18 / 35
19 / 35
20 / 35
What is an example of a compensating error?
21 / 35
22 / 35
Why would a supplier be interested in the financial statements of a credit customer?
23 / 35
24 / 35
What is the purpose of a partnership appropriation account?
25 / 35
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper?
26 / 35
What are advantages of operating as a sole trader? 1 The owner can keep all the profit. 2 The owner can raise finance by issuing debentures. 3 The owner can make decisions independently. 4 The owner is protected by limited liability.
27 / 35
28 / 35
John’s rate of inventory turnover was 10 times in year 1 and 8 times in year 2. What may have caused the change in the rate of inventory turnover?
29 / 35
What is included in a purchases ledger control account?
30 / 35
31 / 35
What is shown in a trial balance?
32 / 35
33 / 35
What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank statement?
34 / 35
35 / 35
Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 C D B A 2 / 35 A B D C 3 / 35 At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply? prudence matching money measurement materiality 4 / 35 an irrecoverable debt the recovery of a debt previously written off the balance carried down discount allowed 5 / 35 B A C D 6 / 35 Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action where necessary? investors suppliers managers government 7 / 35 Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month. Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this? trade payables turnover trade receivables turnover liquid (acid test) ratio current ratio 8 / 35 Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained? purchases ledger sales ledger sales journal purchases journal 9 / 35 Leah bought goods, $8000, less 15% trade discount. She later returned half of these goods as they were faulty. Which document did Leah issue to the supplier for the returned goods? credit note for $4000 credit note for $3400 debit note for $4000 debit note for $3400 10 / 35 Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position? at replacement cost at expected sales value at book value at original cost 11 / 35 $1000 profit $7000 profit $1000 loss $7000 loss 12 / 35 $32 700 $13 200 $31 200 $15 400 13 / 35 $31 545 $31 195 $32 445 $32 095 14 / 35 C B D A 15 / 35 A B D C 16 / 35 20 times 15 times 21 times 30 times 17 / 35 B A D C 18 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? undercast by $200 overcast by $130 overcast by $200 overcast by $200 19 / 35 Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper but not an accountant? preparing financial statements comparing one year’s results with those of previous years recording transactions in the ledgers and cash book interpreting the accounting records 20 / 35 Which statement about club accounts is correct? The closing balance in the receipts and payments account represents a surplus or deficit. Non-cash transactions are recorded in the income and expenditure account. Capital and revenue transactions are recorded in the income and expenditure account. Only revenue transactions are recorded in the receipts and payments account. 21 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $1200 $2500 $2400 $1100 22 / 35 Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years 1 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 2 only 23 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? subscriptions accumulated fund capital retained earnings 24 / 35 Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500. Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year? $325 as an income $125 as an income $125 as an expense $325 as an expense 25 / 35 Which error is an error of original entry? sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered in the sales account and Janet’s account sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered in the office equipment account and Jason’s account sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 entered as $320 in both the disposal account and Janet’s account sale of surplus office equipment on credit to Janet for $230 not entered in any accounts 26 / 35 X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year? $10 000 $15 000 $7000 $18 000 27 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $600 $660 $670 $640 28 / 35 Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded? $3774 on the debit side $2606 on the credit side $3774 on the credit side $2606 on the debit side 29 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the purchase of a new computer for resale the annual depreciation on office premises the cost of repairing office equipment the cost of building an office extension 30 / 35 D C A B 31 / 35 $5000 $7000 $8500 $9500 32 / 35 Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction? sales journal general journal purchases journal cash book 33 / 35 Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying. 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 34 / 35 $40 800 $30 000 $38 000 $43 600 35 / 35 C D A B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply?
Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action where necessary?
Samuel, a trader, decided to issue statements of account each month. Which ratio does Samuel hope to improve by doing this?
Where are the accounts of credit suppliers maintained?
Leah bought goods, $8000, less 15% trade discount. She later returned half of these goods as they were faulty. Which document did Leah issue to the supplier for the returned goods?
Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position?
Which task would be carried out by a book-keeper but not an accountant?
Which statement about club accounts is correct?
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
Why would the owner of a business want to see his financial statements at the end of the year? 1 to assess the performance and progress of the business 2 to determine the market value of the non-current assets 3 to make informed decisions for the following years
Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?
Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500. Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year?
Which error is an error of original entry?
X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000. An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year. Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued. The profit for the year was $8000. By how much had equity increased at the end of the year?
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
Machinery which had cost $6290 was sold for $3100. The disposal account showed a profit on disposal of $584. How much was the depreciation up to the date of disposal and on which side of the disposal account was it recorded?
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction?
Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A B D C 2 / 40 Which statement about the binomial naming system is correct? The name of a species is different in different countries. It is an internationally agreed scientific naming system. It is used for naming animal species but not plant species. The name consists of one or two words. 3 / 40 Ammonification is the decomposition of plant and animal protein to ammonium ions. Which sequence of events can occur in the nitrogen cycle? denitrification → nitrogen fixation → denitrification → nitrification nitrification → nitrogen fixation → denitrification → ammonification nitrogen fixation → denitrification → ammonification → nitrification ammonification → nitrification → denitrification → nitrogen fixation 4 / 40 Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released monitoring body temperature vasectomy contraceptive pill condom 5 / 40 Which molecules are transported by the phloem? starch glycogen cellulose sugar 6 / 40 nutrition growth respiration sensitivity 7 / 40 Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion? Fats are digested by protease to form amino acids. Fats are digested by lipase to form fatty acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by lipase to form amino acids and glycerol. Fats are digested by protease to form fatty acids and glycerol. 8 / 40 acid toothpaste sugar saliva 9 / 40 A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC? It remained the same. It increased and then decreased. t increased steadily. It decreased steadily. 10 / 40 Which statement about the regulation of human body temperature is correct? Vasodilation of skin arterioles occurs when the body temperature is too low. Vasodilation of skin capillaries occurs when the body temperature is too low. Vasoconstriction of skin capillaries occurs when the body temperature is too high Vasoconstriction of skin arterioles occurs when the body temperature is too low. 11 / 40 A B D C 12 / 40 Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct? It has less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and less carbon dioxide. 13 / 40 Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? binomial species organism genus 14 / 40 Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata? glucose carbon dioxide oxygen water 15 / 40 A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population? all the plants in the forest all the animals in the forest all the red deer in the forest all the organisms in the forest 16 / 40 C D A B 17 / 40 D B C A 18 / 40 A B C D 19 / 40 Some terms used to describe enzyme-controlled reactions are listed. 1 catalyst 2 product 3 protein 4 substrate Which terms describe an enzyme? 2 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 3 20 / 40 Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct? It is produced by the liver and raises blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the liver and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and raises blood sugar concentration. 21 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. 22 / 40 Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed. 1 calcium 2 fat 3 fibre 4 vitamin D Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones? 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 23 / 40 During the treatment of sewage, what is removed by screening? fats and grease bacteria urine large plastics 24 / 40 What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome? DNA only mRNA and amino acids mRNA only DNA and amino acids 25 / 40 Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera 1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages? 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 26 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants? Desirable qualities are shown throughout the crop. All of the crop plants have the same risk of disease. Only one parent plant is required so growth is rapid. No pollinators are required. 27 / 40 Which process is part of the carbon cycle? transpiration precipitation evaporation combustion 28 / 40 Which change increases the rate of water uptake by the roots of a plant? decrease in water potential of root hair cells decrease in water potential of soil water decrease in evaporation of water from mesophyll cells decrease in length of root hairs 29 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen? Water entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt left the plant tissue by osmosis. Salt entered the plant tissue by active transport. Water left the plant tissue by osmosis. 30 / 40 New strains of the crop plant wheat can be produced by cross-breeding disease resistant plants with those that give high yields of grain. What is this an example of? asexual reproduction genetic engineering artificial selection natural selection 31 / 40 B C A D 32 / 40 Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response? oestrogen insulin adrenaline testosterone 33 / 40 Meiosis is sometimes called ‘reduction division’. What is reduced during meiosis? The rate of cell division is reduced. The number of gametes is reduced Body cells are reduced in size. Chromosomes are reduced in number. 34 / 40 Some reptiles can lose and regrow their tails to avoid predation. Which process occurs to regrow the tail? meiosis mitosis fertilisation digestion 35 / 40 The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 36 / 40 What is a function of phloem? transports water to the roots transports sugar to the roots transports starch to the roots transports minerals to the roots 37 / 40 Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum? egestion mechanical digestion ingestion chemical digestion 38 / 40 Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors? liver brain muscles skin 39 / 40 Why are bacteria useful in genetic engineering? Their genetic code is different to other organisms. They have cell walls. They reproduce sexually. They have plasmids. 40 / 40 What is the balanced chemical equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? C6H12O6→ 2CO2 + 6H2O C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2H2O C6H12O6 → 6CO2 + 6H2O NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
Which statement about the binomial naming system is correct?
3 / 40
Ammonification is the decomposition of plant and animal protein to ammonium ions. Which sequence of events can occur in the nitrogen cycle?
4 / 40
Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released
5 / 40
Which molecules are transported by the phloem?
6 / 40
7 / 40
Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion?
8 / 40
9 / 40
A human enzyme was used in an experiment. All factors were kept constant, apart from temperature. What happened to the rate of reaction when the temperature was reduced steadily from 35 ºC to 5 ºC?
10 / 40
Which statement about the regulation of human body temperature is correct?
11 / 40
12 / 40
Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct?
13 / 40
Which term is used to describe a group of living things that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
14 / 40
Which chemical is a product of photosynthesis that moves out of a green leaf through its stomata?
15 / 40
A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds. Which group of organisms is an example of a population?
16 / 40
17 / 40
18 / 40
19 / 40
Some terms used to describe enzyme-controlled reactions are listed. 1 catalyst 2 product 3 protein 4 substrate Which terms describe an enzyme?
20 / 40
Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct?
21 / 40
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
22 / 40
Some of the nutrients that form part of a balanced diet are listed. 1 calcium 2 fat 3 fibre 4 vitamin D Which nutrients are needed for healthy bones?
23 / 40
During the treatment of sewage, what is removed by screening?
24 / 40
What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome?
25 / 40
Statements 1 to 4 describe stages in the development of cholera
1 Chloride ions are secreted into the gut. 2 Osmosis causes water to move into the gut. 3 The infected person becomes dehydrated. 4 Toxins are produced by the pathogenic bacteria. What is the correct sequence of the four stages?
26 / 40
Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop plants?
27 / 40
Which process is part of the carbon cycle?
28 / 40
Which change increases the rate of water uptake by the roots of a plant?
29 / 40
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen?
30 / 40
New strains of the crop plant wheat can be produced by cross-breeding disease resistant plants with those that give high yields of grain. What is this an example of?
31 / 40
32 / 40
Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response?
33 / 40
Meiosis is sometimes called ‘reduction division’. What is reduced during meiosis?
34 / 40
Some reptiles can lose and regrow their tails to avoid predation. Which process occurs to regrow the tail?
35 / 40
The statements refer to reproduction. 1 A zygote is formed. 2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. 3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together. Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?
36 / 40
What is a function of phloem?
37 / 40
Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?
38 / 40
Where in the body are the blood temperature receptors?
39 / 40
Why are bacteria useful in genetic engineering?
40 / 40
What is the balanced chemical equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells. What is the name of this characteristic? sensitivity nutrition growth respiration 2 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → alcohol glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid 3 / 40 Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called? genetic engineering selective breeding evolution mutation 4 / 40 Compared with inspired air, which description of expired air is correct? It has more oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and less carbon dioxide. It has less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. It has more oxygen and more carbon dioxide. 5 / 40 Which human characteristic is an example of discontinuous variation? skin colour sex height weight 6 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one banana plant being divided into two banana plants one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower 7 / 40 In a cell, where are amino acids assembled to form protein molecules? nucleus vesicles cell membrane ribosomes 8 / 40 Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct? It produces genetically different offspring. It requires two parents. It produces gametes. It requires only one parent. 9 / 40 Which molecules are transported by the phloem? starch cellulose sugar glycogen 10 / 40 Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy? placenta ovaries pancreas uterus 11 / 40 What are the products when proteins are broken down? simple sugars fatty acids glycerol amino acids 12 / 40 After vigorous exercise, an athlete continues to breathe deeply during the recovery period. During this recovery period the oxygen debt is removed. Which reaction is used to remove the oxygen debt? aerobic respiration of lactic acid in the muscles anaerobic respiration of lactic acid in the muscles anaerobic respiration of lactic acid in the liver aerobic respiration of lactic acid in the liver 13 / 40 How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis? They increase the surface area for absorption of light energy. They let rainwater enter the leaf tissues. They allow carbon dioxide gas to diffuse through the leaf more rapidly. They act as a store of oxygen. 14 / 40 Which statement about passive immunity is correct? It gives a long-term effect. Antibodies are acquired. Memory cells are produced. It is inherited. 15 / 40 What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome? DNA only DNA and amino acids mRNA only mRNA and amino acids 16 / 40 B D C A 17 / 40 What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans? fetus ovum embryo placenta 18 / 40 large lizards and desert snakes only desert foxes and hawks only kangaroo rats and small lizards desert foxes, hawks, large lizards and desert snakes 19 / 40 Which description of cross-pollination is correct? the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one plant to the anther on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma on the same plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma to the anther on the same plant 20 / 40 What determines the sex of a baby? the father’s XX chromosomes the father’s XY chromosomes the mother’s XX chromosomes the mother’s XY chromosomes 21 / 40 Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion? from higher to lower concentration against a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration down a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration against a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration down a concentration gradient 22 / 40 The list shows some processes that take place in a human body. 1 production of new red blood cells 2 transmission of nerve impulses from the eyes to the brain 3 diffusion of gases into and out of the lungs Which processes use energy released by respiration? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 23 / 40 In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous? 50% black, 50% white 25% black, 75% white 100% black 100% white 24 / 40 Which statement about the hormone insulin is correct? It is produced by the liver and raises blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the liver and lowers blood sugar concentration. It is produced by the pancreas and raises blood sugar concentration. 25 / 40 Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response? oestrogen testosterone insulin adrenaline 26 / 40 Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container? glucose → lactic acid glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen → alcohol 27 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 28 / 40 Which method of birth control works by preventing an egg from being released contraceptive pill vasectomy condom monitoring body temperature 29 / 40 A C D B 30 / 40 What is a function of some white blood cells? to carry oxygen to carry glucose to produce antibiotics to produce antibodies 31 / 40 A food chain is shown. potato plant → slug → hedgehog By which process is energy transferred from the slug to the hedgehog? excretion ingestion egestion photosynthesis 32 / 40 Which description of a population is correct? all the arachnids in a garden all the birds in a rainforest all the arthropods in the world all the red deer in a forest 33 / 40 The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier? mucus white blood cells skin hairs in the nose 34 / 40 C B A D 35 / 40 B C D A 36 / 40 When a river is polluted by fertiliser, the following processes may occur. 1 increased aerobic respiration of decomposers 2 increased growth of producers 3 decreased oxygen concentration in the water What is the correct sequence for these processes? 2 → 3 → 1 1 → 3 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 2 → 1 → 3 37 / 40 What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material? carnivore decomposer herbivore consumer 38 / 40 Which statement about fertilisation is correct? Two haploid gamete nuclei fuse to form a diploid zygote One diploid gamete nucleus divides to form a haploid zygote Two diploid gamete nuclei fuse to form a haploid zygote One haploid gamete nucleus divides to form a diploid zygote 39 / 40 A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins. What is the reason for this? decreased protein production decreased chlorophyll production increased protein production increased chlorophyll production 40 / 40 Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart? vena cava pulmonary artery renal vein coronary artery NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.
What is the name of this characteristic?
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Rice has been modified by adding genes from bacteria and another plant so that it can produce the nutrient beta carotene. What is this process called?
Which human characteristic is an example of discontinuous variation?
What is an example of sexual reproduction?
In a cell, where are amino acids assembled to form protein molecules?
Which statement about the process of asexual reproduction is correct?
Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy?
What are the products when proteins are broken down?
After vigorous exercise, an athlete continues to breathe deeply during the recovery period. During this recovery period the oxygen debt is removed. Which reaction is used to remove the oxygen debt?
How do the air spaces in the spongy mesophyll of a leaf help to adapt it for photosynthesis?
Which statement about passive immunity is correct?
What is the name of the ball of cells that forms soon after fertilisation in humans?
Which description of cross-pollination is correct?
What determines the sex of a baby?
Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?
The list shows some processes that take place in a human body. 1 production of new red blood cells 2 transmission of nerve impulses from the eyes to the brain 3 diffusion of gases into and out of the lungs Which processes use energy released by respiration?
In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?
Yeast is placed inside a container full of a glucose solution with no air. Which word equation summarises the process that takes place inside the container?
Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes?
What is a function of some white blood cells?
A food chain is shown. potato plant → slug → hedgehog By which process is energy transferred from the slug to the hedgehog?
Which description of a population is correct?
The body has several defence mechanisms to protect against disease. Which defence mechanism is a chemical barrier?
When a river is polluted by fertiliser, the following processes may occur. 1 increased aerobic respiration of decomposers 2 increased growth of producers 3 decreased oxygen concentration in the water What is the correct sequence for these processes?
What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material?
Which statement about fertilisation is correct?
A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins. What is the reason for this?
Which blood vessel carries blood to the muscle of the heart?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Why is ethanol a member of the homologous series of alcohols but propane is not? Ethanol contains the same functional group as other alcohols but propane does not. Ethanol can be made from ethene but propane is obtained from petroleum. Ethanol is a liquid but propane is a gas. Ethanol has two carbon atoms per molecule but propane has three. 2 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 3 / 40 red to orange orange to colorless orange to red No Change 4 / 40 This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance (ii) is used, when acidified, to test for sulfur dioxide Check 5 / 40 The list shows four methods that were suggested for the formation of carbon dioxide. 1) cracking methane using steam 2) action of heat on a carbonate 3) complete combustion of methane 4) reaction of a carbonate with oxygen Which methods would result in the production of carbon dioxide? 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 6 / 40 Sodium is in Group I of the Periodic Table. Chlorine is in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Sodium and chlorine combine to form a compound. Which statement about the combination of sodium and chlorine atoms is correct? Sodium gains electrons and chlorine loses electrons. Both sodium and chlorine lose electrons. Both sodium and chlorine gain electrons. Sodium loses electrons and chlorine gains electrons 7 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is malleable Check 8 / 40 A Group I metal (lithium, sodium or potassium) is reacted with a Group VII element (chlorine, bromine or iodine). Which compound is formed when the Group I metal of highest density reacts with the Group VII element of lowest density? lithium chloride potassium iodide lithium iodide potassium chloride 9 / 40 Which substance is not a fossil fuel? kerosene ethanol methane gasoline 10 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? The solvent should cover the baseline. A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. The baseline should be drawn in pencil. 11 / 40 Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy? hydrogen 235U natural gas coal 12 / 40 B C A D 13 / 40 Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI -1 1+ 2 1 14 / 40 Two tests are carried out on substance Z. test 1) A flame test produces a red flame. test 2) Z is dissolved in water and dilute nitric acid is added, followed by aqueous silver nitrate. A yellow precipitate is produced. What is substance Z? sodium bromide lithium iodide sodium iodide lithium bromide 15 / 40 Which statement about rate of reaction is correct? Catalysts increase the time for the reaction to be completed. Decreasing temperature increases the rate of reaction. Decreasing particle size increases the rate of reaction. Rate of reaction decreases as the concentration increases. 16 / 40 Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct? Ionic bonding involves sharing of pairs of electrons. Caesium atoms gain electrons to form negatively charged caesium ions. Sodium ions have an equal number of protons and electrons. Potassium ions and chloride ions have the same number of outer-shell electrons. 17 / 40 What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation? The process is very fast The ethanol requires no separation. The raw materials used are renewable. There are no other products formed. 18 / 40 An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of protons? CheckWrong 19 / 40 a reactant in respiration nitrogen Oxygen ethanol 20 / 40 Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct? It is used as a food preservative. It is used in the manufacture of cement. It is used as a bleach in the manufacture of paper. It is used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid. 21 / 40 Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt. Which method is suitable for obtaining solid lead(II) sulfate? Mix aqueous lead(II) nitrate and aqueous potassium sulfate, heat to evaporate all of the water, collect the solid and then wash and dry it. Titrate aqueous lead(II) hydroxide with dilute sulfuric acid, crystallise, then wash and dry the crystals. Mix aqueous lead(II) nitrate and dilute sulfuric acid, filter, then wash and dry the residue. Mix aqueous lead(II) nitrate and aqueous potassium sulfate, filter, collect the filtrate, crystallise, then wash and dry the crystals. 22 / 40 A C B D 23 / 40 Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct? Carbon monoxide removes the silicon dioxide impurity forming slag. Limestone reduces iron(III) oxide to iron. Carbon reacts with oxygen and heats the furnace. Iron(III) oxide is oxidised to iron. 24 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: a compound produced by the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate Check 25 / 40 Nitrogen, N2, and hydrogen, H2, can be converted into ammonia, NH3, using a catalyst. What is the purpose of the catalyst? to increase the rate of reaction to increase the amount of ammonia produced to reduce the rate of reaction to reduce the amount of reactants needed 26 / 40 In which equation is carbon both oxidised and reduced? CO2 + C → 2CO C + O2 → CO2 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 3CO + Fe2O3 → 3CO2 + 2Fe 27 / 40 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? combustion of fossil fuels fermentation respiration photosynthesis 28 / 40 C B D A 29 / 40 This question is about iron and iron compounds In a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron, carbon reacts with oxygen from the air to form carbon monoxide. Complete the chemical equation for this reaction. …….C + ……… 2CO 2C and Cl Hcl and O2 2C and O2 30 / 40 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments? A halogen would be formed at the anode. A metal would be formed at the cathode. Hydrogen would be formed at the anode Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode. 31 / 40 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis? Al3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2- + 2e– → O2 2O2- → O2 + 4e– Al3+ + 3e– → Al 32 / 40 Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser? potassium nitrate and ammonium chloride ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate potassium carbonate and ammonium nitrate ammonium phosphate and potassium chloride 33 / 40 Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions. In which solution does a displacement reaction occur? magnesium sulfate sodium sulfate zinc sulfate copper(II) sulfate 34 / 40 the main constituent of natural gas nitrogen methane ethanol oxygen 35 / 40 Which process is a physical change? melting an ice cube the rusting of an iron nail burning a piece of magnesium dissolving calcium carbonate in hydrochloric acid 36 / 40 Methanol is made industrially by reacting carbon monoxide with hydrogen. The gases react at a temperature of 250°C and a pressure of 75 atmospheres. CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g) The forward reaction is exothermic. (a) Suggest a source of hydrogen for this industrial process hydrocarbons Above All natural gas water 37 / 40 A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q? chlorine, Cl2 ammonia, NH3 water, H2O methane, CH4 38 / 40 B D C A 39 / 40 C D A B 40 / 40 concentrated hydrochloric acid concentrated copper(II) chloride solution dilute sodium chloride solution dilute hydrochloric acid NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Why is ethanol a member of the homologous series of alcohols but propane is not?
A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct?
This question is about solids, liquids and gases. (a) The list gives the names of nine substances. aqueous copper(II) sulfate aqueous potassium manganate(VII) aqueous sodium chloride dilute hydrochloric acid ethanol hexene mercury octane water Answer the following questions about these substances. Each substance may be used once, more than once or not at all. State which substance
(ii) is used, when acidified, to test for sulfur dioxide
The list shows four methods that were suggested for the formation of carbon dioxide. 1) cracking methane using steam 2) action of heat on a carbonate 3) complete combustion of methane 4) reaction of a carbonate with oxygen Which methods would result in the production of carbon dioxide?
Sodium is in Group I of the Periodic Table. Chlorine is in Group VII of the Periodic Table. Sodium and chlorine combine to form a compound. Which statement about the combination of sodium and chlorine atoms is correct?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is malleable
A Group I metal (lithium, sodium or potassium) is reacted with a Group VII element (chlorine, bromine or iodine). Which compound is formed when the Group I metal of highest density reacts with the Group VII element of lowest density?
Which substance is not a fossil fuel?
Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?
Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy?
Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI
Two tests are carried out on substance Z.
test 1) A flame test produces a red flame. test 2) Z is dissolved in water and dilute nitric acid is added, followed by aqueous silver nitrate. A yellow precipitate is produced.
What is substance Z?
Which statement about rate of reaction is correct?
Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct?
What is an advantage of manufacturing ethanol by fermentation?
An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of protons?
a reactant in respiration
Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct?
Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt. Which method is suitable for obtaining solid lead(II) sulfate?
Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. CH4 Cl– CO2 Cr3+ Cu2+ Fe2+ H2 K+ N2 O2 SO2 Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: a compound produced by the thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
Nitrogen, N2, and hydrogen, H2, can be converted into ammonia, NH3, using a catalyst. What is the purpose of the catalyst?
In which equation is carbon both oxidised and reduced?
Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
This question is about iron and iron compounds In a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron, carbon reacts with oxygen from the air to form carbon monoxide. Complete the chemical equation for this reaction. …….C + ……… 2CO
In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments?
Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis?
Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser?
Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions.
In which solution does a displacement reaction occur?
the main constituent of natural gas
Which process is a physical change?
Methanol is made industrially by reacting carbon monoxide with hydrogen. The gases react at a temperature of 250°C and a pressure of 75 atmospheres. CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g) The forward reaction is exothermic. (a) Suggest a source of hydrogen for this industrial process
A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons. What is Q?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct? Iron(III) oxide is oxidised to iron. Carbon monoxide removes the silicon dioxide impurity forming slag. Carbon reacts with oxygen and heats the furnace. Limestone reduces iron(III) oxide to iron. 2 / 40 What are possible effects of an inadequate water supply during a drought? 1 crop failure 2 wastage of water 3 human disease 4 death of farm animals 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 3 / 40 The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3. What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3? 52.0 106.5 74.5 223.5 4 / 40 Three properties of element X are listed. ● It contains atoms with a full outer shell of electrons. ● It is monoatomic. ● It is unreactive. In which part of the Periodic Table is the element placed? Group VII Group I transition elements Group VIII 5 / 40 Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S. The results are shown. 1) Magnesium does not react with the solution. 2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution. 3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution. What is S? sulfur dioxide sodium hydroxide hydrochloric acid sodium chloride 6 / 40 Which statement about carbon is correct? Diamond and graphite are both used to make cutting tools. Diamond and graphite both have simple molecular structures. Each carbon atom in diamond is bonded to three other carbon atoms. Graphite conducts electricity and has a giant covalent structure. 7 / 40 Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group. 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only 8 / 40 Compounds that contain nitrogen can be used as fertilisers. Which compound contains the greatest proportion of nitrogen by mass? NH4Cl NH4NO3 (NH4)2SO4 CH4N2O 9 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O 10 / 40 A fuel cell is used to generate electricity. Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell? nitrogen and methane hydrogen and oxygen hydrogen and methane nitrogen and oxygen 11 / 40 Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride? 2Na3N → 6Na + N2 2NaN3 → Na2 + 3N2 2Na3N → 6Na + 2N 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2 12 / 40 Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 13 / 40 The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon monoxide is shown. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) What is the maximum mass of iron that can be made from 480 g of iron(III) oxide? 112 g 168 g 56 g 336 g 14 / 40 The equation for the reaction between magnesium and copper(II) oxide is shown. Mg + CuO → MgO + Cu Which substance is oxidised? MgO Cu Mg CuO 15 / 40 Which process uses sacrificial protection to prevent steel from rusting? galvanising oiling copper plating painting 16 / 40 The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive? They are all monoatomic. They are all gases. They all have eight electrons in their outer shells. They all have full outer shells. 17 / 40 In which molecule are all the outer shell electrons from each atom used to form covalent bonds? H2O NH3 CH4 Cl2 18 / 40 Which statements describe the Periodic Table? 1 The elements are arranged in order of their nucleon number. 2 The elements are arranged in order of their proton number. 3 It is used to predict the properties of elements. 2 and 3 2 only 1 and 3 1 only 19 / 40 Aqueous ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is a strong base. Aqueous ethanoic acid is neutralised by aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which statements are correct? 1 Aqueous ethanoic acid accepts protons from hydroxide ions. 2 The aqueous ethanoic acid used is fully dissociated into ions. 3 The aqueous sodium hydroxide used is fully dissociated into ions. 4 The reaction produces a salt and water. 3 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 2 and 4 20 / 40 Which substance is used to reduce zinc oxide in the manufacture of zinc? carbon carbon dioxide hydrogen sulfur dioxide 21 / 40 Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron. Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting. Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting? The magnesium forms an alloy with iron which does not corrode. The magnesium reacts with rust as soon as it is formed. Magnesium oxidises instead of iron. Magnesium stops air and water getting to the iron. 22 / 40 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z? calcium oxide calcium calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate 23 / 40 One of the fractions obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum is naphtha. What is a major use of the naphtha fraction? as a fuel for jet aircraft as a lubricant for moving machine parts as a smooth surface covering for roads as a starting material to make other chemicals 24 / 40 Which statement about alkanes is correct? They contain ionic bonds. They burn in oxygen. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They contain double bonds. 25 / 40 Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide? oxidation endothermic reduction combustion 26 / 40 Three substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which substances produce hydrogen at the negative electrode? 1 concentrated hydrochloric acid 2 concentrated aqueous sodium chloride 3 dilute sulfuric acid 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 27 / 40 Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid by acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is observed in the reaction? colourless to orange purple to colourless colourless to purple orange to colourless 28 / 40 Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct? Iron is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis. Aluminium is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis. Aluminium is extracted from the ore hematite by electrolysis. Iron is extracted from the ore bauxite by electrolysis. 29 / 40 Which type of compound is made when a protein is hydrolysed? sugar alkene carboxylic acid amino acid 30 / 40 An atom of an element contains 4 electrons, 4 protons and 6 neutrons. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element placed? Group VIII Group II Group VI Group IV 31 / 40 Which statement about ethanol is not correct? Ethanol reacts with oxygen exothermically, making it a good fuel. Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Ethanol is oxidised to make ethanoic acid. Ethanol reacts with propanoic acid to make propyl ethanoate. 32 / 40 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct? 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 33 / 40 An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct? Zn is the reducing agent and it reduces Cu2+. Zn is the reducing agent and it oxidises Cu2+. Zn is the oxidising agent and it oxidises Cu2+. Zn is the oxidising agent and it reduces Cu2+. 34 / 40 Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons. 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 35 / 40 The reaction used to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is reversible. An equilibrium is established between ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen. Which statement describes the equilibrium? The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the backward reaction The forward and backward reactions have both stopped. The rate of the backward reaction is greater than the rate of the forward reaction. Both the forward reaction and the backward reaction have the same rate. 36 / 40 Substances change state when their temperature is changed. Which changes of state take place when the temperature of a substance is lowered? 1 boiling 2 condensation 3 freezing 4 melting 3 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 only 37 / 40 The equation for the decomposition of calcium carbonate is shown. CaCO3 →CaO + CO2 What mass of calcium oxide is produced when 10 g of calcium carbonate is heated? 5.0 g 5.6 g 4.4 g 10.0 g 38 / 40 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out? 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 39 / 40 Some uses of water are listed. 1 as a solvent 2 as a coolant in the chemical industry 3 to irrigate crops 4 to provide safe drinking water During a drought, which uses are important to sustain the population of a country? 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 40 / 40 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Which equation represents the reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis? Al3+ → Al + 3e– Al3+ + 3e– → Al 2O2- + 2e– → O2 2O2- → O2 + 4e– NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
What are possible effects of an inadequate water supply during a drought? 1 crop failure 2 wastage of water 3 human disease 4 death of farm animals
The formula of sodium chlorate(V) is NaClO3. What is the relative formula mass of sodium chlorate(V), NaClO3?
Three properties of element X are listed. ● It contains atoms with a full outer shell of electrons. ● It is monoatomic. ● It is unreactive. In which part of the Periodic Table is the element placed?
Three separate experiments are carried out on an aqueous solution of S. The results are shown. 1) Magnesium does not react with the solution. 2) A gas is given off when ammonium sulfate is heated with the solution. 3) Methyl orange turns yellow when added to the solution. What is S?
Which statement about carbon is correct?
Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group.
Compounds that contain nitrogen can be used as fertilisers. Which compound contains the greatest proportion of nitrogen by mass?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
A fuel cell is used to generate electricity. Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell?
Sodium nitride contains the nitride ion, N3–. Sodium nitride is unstable and decomposes into its elements. What is the equation for the decomposition of sodium nitride?
Lithium and fluorine react to form lithium fluoride. A student writes three statements about the reaction. 1 Lithium atoms lose an electron when they react. 2 Each fluoride ion has one more electron than a fluorine atom. 3 Lithium fluoride is a mixture of elements. Which statements are correct?
The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon monoxide is shown. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) What is the maximum mass of iron that can be made from 480 g of iron(III) oxide?
The equation for the reaction between magnesium and copper(II) oxide is shown. Mg + CuO → MgO + Cu Which substance is oxidised?
Which process uses sacrificial protection to prevent steel from rusting?
The noble gases are in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. Which statement explains why noble gases are unreactive?
In which molecule are all the outer shell electrons from each atom used to form covalent bonds?
Which statements describe the Periodic Table?
1 The elements are arranged in order of their nucleon number. 2 The elements are arranged in order of their proton number. 3 It is used to predict the properties of elements.
Aqueous ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is a strong base. Aqueous ethanoic acid is neutralised by aqueous sodium hydroxide. Which statements are correct? 1 Aqueous ethanoic acid accepts protons from hydroxide ions. 2 The aqueous ethanoic acid used is fully dissociated into ions. 3 The aqueous sodium hydroxide used is fully dissociated into ions. 4 The reaction produces a salt and water.
Which substance is used to reduce zinc oxide in the manufacture of zinc?
Ships are made of steel, an alloy of iron. Blocks of magnesium are attached to the underside of ships to prevent rusting. Which statement explains how the magnesium prevents rusting?
A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z?
One of the fractions obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum is naphtha. What is a major use of the naphtha fraction?
Which statement about alkanes is correct?
Which type of reaction occurs when calcium carbonate is heated at a high temperature to produce calcium oxide and carbon dioxide?
Three substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which substances produce hydrogen at the negative electrode? 1 concentrated hydrochloric acid 2 concentrated aqueous sodium chloride 3 dilute sulfuric acid
Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid by acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is observed in the reaction?
Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct?
Which type of compound is made when a protein is hydrolysed?
An atom of an element contains 4 electrons, 4 protons and 6 neutrons. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element placed?
Which statement about ethanol is not correct?
Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct?
An example of a redox reaction is shown. Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu Which statement about the reaction is correct?
Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons.
The reaction used to manufacture ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is reversible. An equilibrium is established between ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen. Which statement describes the equilibrium?
Substances change state when their temperature is changed. Which changes of state take place when the temperature of a substance is lowered? 1 boiling 2 condensation 3 freezing 4 melting
The equation for the decomposition of calcium carbonate is shown. CaCO3 →CaO + CO2 What mass of calcium oxide is produced when 10 g of calcium carbonate is heated?
Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out?
Some uses of water are listed. 1 as a solvent 2 as a coolant in the chemical industry 3 to irrigate crops 4 to provide safe drinking water During a drought, which uses are important to sustain the population of a country?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 A private sector firm is given a contract by the government to supply a country’s water. Which government directive will minimise the risk of market failure? insist that the firm aims to maximise profits allow the firm to ration water rather than meet demand instruct the firm to provide water only to those who can pay for it ensure the firm’s supply includes all areas which are expensive to service 2 / 30 B C D A 3 / 30 Why is the energy supply industry dominated by very large firms in many economies? Labour-intensive production techniques are used. Government controls prevent the exploitation of consumers. High fixed capital costs exist. Non-price advertising increases competition. 4 / 30 a surplus of $20 million a surplus of $760 million a deficit of $160 million a deficit of $60 million 5 / 30 What is a likely cause of economic growth? decreased investment decreased productivity decreased employment decreased taxation 6 / 30 A country specialises in the production of steel, toys and textiles. What is a disadvantage of specialisation for the country’s workers? They cannot afford to buy products from other countries. They have too much choice which wastes their time. They have to learn a variety of skills. They could become structurally unemployed if global demand changes. 7 / 30 What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production? the output that the production process creates the market structure of the production process the resources on which the production relies the size of the firm that uses the production process 8 / 30 Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies? offering retraining to unemployed workers encouraging the modernisation of factories replacing government enterprises with private enterprises reducing taxes to provide incentives to work 9 / 30 What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation? Domestic firms may experience rising costs as they pay more for imports Consumers pay higher prices for goods and services reducing their welfare. Resources may be used less efficiently as domestic firms face less competition Domestic firms may be uncompetitive leading to structural unemployment 10 / 30 There is unit elasticity. Price elasticity of supply is 0.4. Supply is perfectly elastic. Price elasticity of supply is 2.5 11 / 30 2013–2014 2014–2015 2012–2013 2015–2016 12 / 30 What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right? an increase in the costs of production an increase in indirect taxes on the product an increase in demand for the product an increase in government subsidies to producers 13 / 30 What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves? the level of taxation the reliability of banks the income of the family the rate of inflation 14 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. Introduce a tax on all food. Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. 15 / 30 C A D B 16 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? loss of farmland cost of water wages of golf course staff sales of golf equipment 17 / 30 A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car? US$25 000 US$27 500 US$22 500 US$20 000 18 / 30 D C A B 19 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? an increase in the exchange rate a fall in the real value of debts an increase in the real purchasing power of money an increase in the rate of interest 20 / 30 Which firm is most likely to be classified as a small firm in the tertiary sector? a steelworks a supermarket a farm a hairdresser 21 / 30 A manufacturer of medical supplies benefits from improved road links to its main markets. What benefit definitely occurs as a result? increased market share increased external economies of scale increased internal economies of scale increased average revenue 22 / 30 A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement? A sequence of poor harvests resulted in shortages. Farmers matched demand by planting more coffee bushes. The price of coffee was fixed between producers. Decreased transport costs led to a surplus of supply. 23 / 30 D B A C 24 / 30 A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit? increased exports of its services increased international competitiveness of its goods increased spending on its military bases abroad increased numbers of visitors from abroad 25 / 30 Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics? the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity demanded by a consumer the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate the relationship between the output of a firm and its costs of production the relationship between the wage rate of workers and demand for labour in an occupation 26 / 30 Which government policy would reduce economic growth? cutting the rate of corporation tax increasing expenditure on education raising interest rates lowering the rate of income tax 27 / 30 What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation? gold shares property cash 28 / 30 Some resources will be unemployed. Resources are unlimited in supply. Opportunity cost changes International free trade exists. 29 / 30 OR RS RT OT 30 / 30 A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be? developed, exporting manufactured goods developing, exporting primary commodities developed, exporting services developing, exporting services NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
A private sector firm is given a contract by the government to supply a country’s water. Which government directive will minimise the risk of market failure?
2 / 30
3 / 30
Why is the energy supply industry dominated by very large firms in many economies?
4 / 30
5 / 30
What is a likely cause of economic growth?
6 / 30
A country specialises in the production of steel, toys and textiles. What is a disadvantage of specialisation for the country’s workers?
7 / 30
What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production?
8 / 30
Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies?
9 / 30
What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation?
10 / 30
11 / 30
12 / 30
What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right?
13 / 30
What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?
14 / 30
One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim?
15 / 30
16 / 30
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
17 / 30
A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?
18 / 30
19 / 30
What will deflation most likely lead to?
20 / 30
Which firm is most likely to be classified as a small firm in the tertiary sector?
21 / 30
A manufacturer of medical supplies benefits from improved road links to its main markets. What benefit definitely occurs as a result?
22 / 30
A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement?
23 / 30
24 / 30
A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit?
25 / 30
Which relationship would be studied by an economist specialising in macroeconomics?
26 / 30
Which government policy would reduce economic growth?
27 / 30
What would be least likely to act as a store of value during a period of rapid inflation?
28 / 30
29 / 30
30 / 30
A country’s minister for agriculture said “the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”. Which type of country is this most likely to be?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy? The inflation rate will fall. Import prices will rise. Export prices will rise. A trade in goods surplus will fall. 2 / 30 A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this? horizontal conglomerate vertical backwards vertical forwards 3 / 30 What usually happens as a developing country becomes more developed? The average age of the population falls The infant mortality rate increases. The fertility rate declines. The primary sector expands. 4 / 30 A C D B 5 / 30 In farming, what is an example of what economists call capital? the tractor owned by the farmer the money the farmer set aside to pay taxes savings the farmer has in the bank shares in a farming company 6 / 30 A D C B 7 / 30 What is an example of expansionary monetary policy? a decrease in the money supply a decrease in the budget deficit a decrease in income tax rates a decrease in the rate of interest 8 / 30 The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this? Retailing demands the same skills everywhere. Costs of employing workers are lower when there is unemployment. The geographical mobility of labour has increased. It is more expensive to live in the area where the retail jobs are available. 9 / 30 The demand for gas in a country becomes price-inelastic. What will happen as a result? Total expenditure on gas by consumers will rise when its price falls. Gas workers will be more likely to be successful in obtaining wage increases. Gas workers will be less likely to be successful in obtaining wage increases. Total expenditure on gas by consumers will fall when its price rises. 10 / 30 Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments? money paid by foreign firms for US cars money paid by migrant workers in the US to their families overseas money paid by chemical producers in the US for foreign oil money paid by US tourists visiting attractions in other countries 11 / 30 What may result from a balance of payments trade surplus? The exchange rate appreciates and causes export prices to rise. The exchange rate depreciates and causes export prices to rise The exchange rate depreciates and causes export prices to fall The exchange rate appreciates and causes export prices to fall 12 / 30 A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do? give subsidies to firms lower income tax thresholds lower interest rates discourage bank lending 13 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US government’s revenue will decline. There will be less of the good imported into the US. The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. 14 / 30 $100 $150 $50 $40 15 / 30 What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation? The level of imports increases. Consumers delay spending. Governments raise interest rates. The real value of money falls. 16 / 30 What is most likely to have caused a long-term decrease in the numbers employed in the banking sector of an economy? seasonal unemployment caused by reduced customer demand in the summer voluntary unemployment caused by a reduction in wage rates technological unemployment caused by an increase in internet banking frictional unemployment caused by relocating a bank’s headquarters 17 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. Introduce a tax on all food. Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. 18 / 30 The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform? producing goods in public corporations employing workers to collect taxes investing in transport infrastructure projects distributing dividends from profits of state-owned enterprises 19 / 30 Why is the energy supply industry dominated by very large firms in many economies? Government controls prevent the exploitation of consumers. Labour-intensive production techniques are used. High fixed capital costs exist. Non-price advertising increases competition. 20 / 30 A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur? a reduction in the number of doctors per capita a reduction in imports an increase in absolute poverty an increase in incomes 21 / 30 A mobile (cell) phone operator increases the price of making calls on its network. After the price increase, the revenue of the mobile phone operator falls by 10%. What is the price elasticity of demand (PED) for the mobile operator’s service? inelastic perfectly elastic unit elastic elastic 22 / 30 A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement? Farmers matched demand by planting more coffee bushes. The price of coffee was fixed between producers. A sequence of poor harvests resulted in shortages. Decreased transport costs led to a surplus of supply. 23 / 30 B C A D 24 / 30 The product is one with many substitutes Price increases will raise the producers’ revenue. There are 20 people able to buy the product. Producers are unable to respond to a price rise. 25 / 30 A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate? It can increase revenue by reducing the price. It keeps very low volumes of product in stock. It can quickly respond to changes in price. It produces a good that has close substitutes. 26 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? barriers to entry diseconomies of scale high number of substitutes for the product elastic demand for the product 27 / 30 Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation. Why might this policy be effective? Investment may be encouraged. Government spending may increase Consumers may save more The exchange rate may fall. 28 / 30 What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country? a rise in the GDP per head a rise in the number of years of schooling an increase in life expectancy at birth an increase in the level of car ownership 29 / 30 C D B A 30 / 30 What is an advantage of a country having a market economic system with a large private sector? Market forces often fail to ensure maximum benefits for society. Some goods may not be provided at all or not in sufficient quantity. Firms can become unprofitable if they do not produce what consumers want. There is an unequal distribution of income which can increase over time. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy?
A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this?
What usually happens as a developing country becomes more developed?
In farming, what is an example of what economists call capital?
What is an example of expansionary monetary policy?
The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this?
The demand for gas in a country becomes price-inelastic. What will happen as a result?
Which item will register as an outflow on the services section of the current account of the US balance of payments?
What may result from a balance of payments trade surplus?
A government wishes to pursue an expansionary monetary policy. What should it do?
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
What is likely to happen when a country is experiencing deflation?
What is most likely to have caused a long-term decrease in the numbers employed in the banking sector of an economy?
The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform?
A developing country starts to show increases in economic growth. What is most likely to occur?
A mobile (cell) phone operator increases the price of making calls on its network. After the price increase, the revenue of the mobile phone operator falls by 10%. What is the price elasticity of demand (PED) for the mobile operator’s service?
A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product. What does this indicate?
What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market?
Interest rates are sometimes raised to control inflation. Why might this policy be effective?
What would not increase the Human Development Index (HDI) of a country?
What is an advantage of a country having a market economic system with a large private sector?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 D A B C 2 / 40 C D B A 3 / 40 B C A D 4 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.31 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.19 m / s 0.0 m / s 5 / 40 C A D B 6 / 40 A D B C 7 / 40 D B C A 8 / 40 B A D C 9 / 40 D A C B 10 / 40 83 km / h 70 km / h 67 km / h 50 km / h 11 / 40 What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion? the area under a speed–time graph the gradient of a distance–time graph the gradient of a speed–time graph the area under a distance–time graph 12 / 40 A B D C 13 / 40 A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force. What is the work done on the object? F x d 1/(F x d) d/F F/d 14 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 1 only 2 only 2 and 3 1 and 3 15 / 40 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force? 20 J 10 J 30 J 40 J 16 / 40 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract? The ripples pass through a narrow gap. The ripples hit the wall of the tank. The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water. The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water. 17 / 40 D A B C 18 / 40 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays? Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. 19 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? infrared rays gamma rays ultraviolet rays visible light rays 20 / 40 Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct? 1 and 2 1 only 3 only 2 and 3 21 / 40 D B A C 22 / 40 D A C B 23 / 40 A B D C 24 / 40 C A D B 25 / 40 A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate? α-particles only β-particles only α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays γ-rays only 26 / 40 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 only 27 / 40 40 m 80 m 38 m 20 m 28 / 40 10 cm3 40 cm3 80 cm3 20 cm3 29 / 40 B D A C 30 / 40 48V 2.0V 4400V 12V 31 / 40 How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of the original nucleus? one larger and one smaller than the original nucleus both larger than the original nucleus both smaller than the original nucleus one smaller and one the same size as the original nucleus 32 / 40 What is weight? a gravitational force an electromagnetic force a frictional force a magnetic force 33 / 40 C D A B 34 / 40 D A C B 35 / 40 F × q F × t F × s F × r 36 / 40 3.0 N 2.6 N 1.4 N 1.6 N 37 / 40 The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this? Object Y needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. Object Y needs less thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 C than object Z. Object Y needs less thermal energy to melt it than object Z. Object Y needs more thermal energy to melt it than object Z. 38 / 40 0.25 s 1.0 s 0.50 s 2.0 s 39 / 40 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 1 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 angle of incidence at boundary 1 and angle of incidence at boundary 2 angle of refraction at boundary 1 and angle of refraction at boundary 2 40 / 40 P has a greater reading than T. P has a greater reading than Q P has a greater reading than S P has a greater reading than R. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?
What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion?
A force F acts on an object and the object moves a distance d in the direction of the force. What is the work done on the object?
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force?
A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract?
Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?
Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum?
Three statements about a.c. and d.c. currents are given. 1 A d.c. current is in one direction only whilst an a.c. current repeatedly changes direction. 2 d.c. is the abbreviation for direct current and a.c. is the abbreviation for amplitude current. 3 An a.c. current is in one direction only whilst a d.c. current repeatedly changes direction. Which statements are correct?
A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate?
The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?
How do the sizes of the two nuclei produced in a nuclear fission reaction compare to the size of the original nucleus?
What is weight?
The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z. What is a consequence of this?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 face Z The pressure is the same for all the faces. face X face Y 2 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The current in each lamp is different. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on. 3 / 40 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 4 / 40 B A D C 5 / 40 the thickness of the roller the length of the roller the length of the pointer the length of the steel bar 6 / 40 the length of the reservoir the thickness of the dam wall the surface area of the water the depth of the water at X 7 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The colour of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The amplitude of the light changes. 8 / 40 Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element? two atoms with a different nucleon number but the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number and the same proton number two atoms with the same nucleon number but different proton number two atoms with a different nucleon number and different proton number 9 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The current in each lamp is different. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. The lamps can be switched on and off separately. 10 / 40 72 cm / s 12 cm / s 3.0 cm / s 48 cm / s 11 / 40 C B D A 12 / 40 In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring? chemical energy elastic potential energy gravitational potential energy gravitational potential energy 13 / 40 C B A D 14 / 40 D C A B 15 / 40 Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. What is the name of this region of the spectrum? gamma rays infrared rays visible light rays ultraviolet rays 16 / 40 A D C B 17 / 40 lamp, voltmeter and switch switch, variable resistor and heater resistor, thermistor and bell switch, heater and fuse 18 / 40 D C B A 19 / 40 Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo? refraction dispersion diffraction reflection 20 / 40 B D A C 21 / 40 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract? The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water. The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water. The ripples hit the wall of the tank. The ripples pass through a narrow gap. 22 / 40 C D B A 23 / 40 B D C A 24 / 40 A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block? 12 000 000J 46 J 46 000J 12 000J 25 / 40 A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery? 680A 216 kJ 12V 30 kg 26 / 40 D C A B 27 / 40 C B D A 28 / 40 In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer? air, water and wood water only air only air and water only 29 / 40 Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an extension–load graph of a spring? ruler, newton meter, clamp and stand light gate, ruler, newton meter balance, stop-watch, ruler stop-watch, balance, measuring cylinder 30 / 40 B D A C 31 / 40 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? from chemical to kinetic from chemical to therma from kinetic to gravitational (potential) from kinetic to thermal 32 / 40 D B C A 33 / 40 D C B A 34 / 40 C A D B 35 / 40 A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor? 20 s 180 s 0.05 s 720 s 36 / 40 2.0V 12V 4400V 48V 37 / 40 38 m 20 m 80 m 40 m 38 / 40 A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first ball after the collision? 0.31 m / s 0.50 m / s 0.19 m / s 0.0 m / s 39 / 40 Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable? waves wind nuclear fission hydroelectric 40 / 40 less than 1 year more than 3 years more than 2 years but less than 3 years more than 1 year but less than 2 years NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
Which statement describes two atoms of different isotopes of an element?
In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?
Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?
A block of lead of mass 500 g is at its melting point. The specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 23 kJ / kg. How much energy is required to completely melt the block?
A large battery is labelled with various items of information about the battery. (12V, 30 kg, 216 kJ, 680A) One of these items of information is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery. What is the e.m.f. of the battery?
In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?
Which pieces of apparatus are the most appropriate for an experiment to plot an extension–load graph of a spring?
A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?
A resistor converts 360 J of energy when there is a current of 3.0A in it. The potential difference across the resistor is 6.0V. For how long is there this current in the resistor?
Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 heat the nut and the bolt through the same temperature rise heat the nut only heat the bolt only cool the nut and heat the bolt 2 / 40 Four separate samples of magnesium are reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid. In each reaction the concentration of the hydrochloric acid is the same. Which experiment gives the highest rate of reaction? 2 g of magnesium ribbon in 50 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 50 ºC 2 g of magnesium powder in 50 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 25 ºC 2 g of magnesium powder in 25 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 50 ºC 2 g of magnesium ribbon in 25 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid at 25 ºC 3 / 40 ingestion and absorption egestion and ingestion absorption and digestion digestion and egestion 4 / 40 A D B C 5 / 40 4.0Ω 0.25Ω 3.0Ω 0.33Ω 6 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon into the environment? respiration fossilisation photosynthesis feeding 7 / 40 D B C A 8 / 40 A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase? lifting one foot off the ground wearing skis to stand on the ground removing the load lying flat on the ground 9 / 40 D C B A 10 / 40 Which statement describes a molecule? It consists of one nucleus surrounded by electrons. It has a positive charge because it has lost electrons. It has a negative charge because it has gained electrons. It consists of two or more atoms bonded together. 11 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction is correct? It produces genetically different offspring from 1 parent. It produces genetically different offspring from 2 parents. It produces genetically identical offspring from 1 parent. It produces genetically identical offspring from 2 parents. 12 / 40 Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace. Coke and hematite are added at the top of the blast furnace, and hot air enters at the bottom. Which statements are correct? Coke burns to produce high temperatures. Carbon monoxide is formed by the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide Hematite contains iron(III) oxide which is oxidised by carbon monoxide. The oxygen needed for the combustion of the coke comes from the hematite 3 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 2 and 3 13 / 40 Some examples of responses in the body are listed. decreased pupil diameter increased breathing rate increased pulse rate Which responses are caused by the secretion of adrenaline? 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 14 / 40 3.3 cm 5.4 cm 7.5 cm 2.1 cm 15 / 40 C B A D 16 / 40 D A B C 17 / 40 B C D A 18 / 40 The mass of a solid object is 1.6 kg and the volume of the object is 80 cm3. What is the density of the object? 5.0 kg/ cm3 0.20 kg/ cm3 50 kg/ cm3 0.020 kg/ cm3 19 / 40 A D C B 20 / 40 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 21 / 40 Which compound contains covalent bonds? KCl CaCl2 NaCl HCl 22 / 40 A boy runs up some stairs. Which two physical quantities are used to calculate the power he develops? the work done and the vertical distance moved his mass and the time taken his mass and his acceleration the work done and the time taken 23 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere? feeding respiration photosynthesis fossilisation 24 / 40 C A B D 25 / 40 In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers? increased oxygen availability increased carbon dioxide availability increased nitrate ion availability increased decomposition 26 / 40 Which statement about enzymes is correct? Enzymes are made of glycerol. Enzymes are not affected by changes in pH. Enzymes are not affected by changes in temperature. Enzymes are biological catalysts. 27 / 40 B C D A 28 / 40 A D C B 29 / 40 The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct? Zinc atoms give electrons to iron ions. Iron atoms have a greater tendency to form positive ions than zinc atoms. Zinc displaces iron because it is more reactive than iron. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 30 / 40 Which statement describes a saturated hydrocarbon gas but not any other gas? It contains carbon and hydrogen atoms only. It contains carbon and hydrogen atoms bonded by single covalent bonds only It burns completely to give carbon dioxide and water. It rapidly decolourises aqueous bromine. 31 / 40 Which two energy sources are both renewable? coal and waves wind and solar geothermal and nuclear oil and tides 32 / 40 D A C B 33 / 40 Refinery gas contains methane. Which statement about methane is correct? Its boiling point is high because it has weak forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is low because it has strong forces of attraction between molecules Its boiling point is low because it has weak forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is high because it has strong forces of attraction between molecules. 34 / 40 C B A D 35 / 40 A student applies a force to an object, causing the object to move in the same direction as the force. She measures the size of the force and the distance moved by the object. Which quantity can she now calculate? the work done on the object the speed of the object the acceleration of the object the power she produces 36 / 40 A large quantity of damp iron filings is added to clean air in a sealed container. The container is left for several weeks. The composition of the air in the container changes. Which gas decreases in composition? oxygen nitrogen argon carbon dioxide 37 / 40 20 m 40 m 120 m 80 m 38 / 40 A B D C 39 / 40 The amount of carbon dioxide decreases. The amount of oxygen decreases. The amount of carbon dioxide increases. The amount of nitrogen increases. 40 / 40 B D C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Four separate samples of magnesium are reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid. In each reaction the concentration of the hydrochloric acid is the same. Which experiment gives the highest rate of reaction?
Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon into the environment?
A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase?
Which statement describes a molecule?
Which statement about asexual reproduction is correct?
Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace. Coke and hematite are added at the top of the blast furnace, and hot air enters at the bottom. Which statements are correct?
Some examples of responses in the body are listed.
The mass of a solid object is 1.6 kg and the volume of the object is 80 cm3. What is the density of the object?
Which compound contains covalent bonds?
A boy runs up some stairs. Which two physical quantities are used to calculate the power he develops?
Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere?
In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers?
Which statement about enzymes is correct?
The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct?
Which statement describes a saturated hydrocarbon gas but not any other gas?
Which two energy sources are both renewable?
Refinery gas contains methane. Which statement about methane is correct?
A student applies a force to an object, causing the object to move in the same direction as the force. She measures the size of the force and the distance moved by the object. Which quantity can she now calculate?
A large quantity of damp iron filings is added to clean air in a sealed container. The container is left for several weeks. The composition of the air in the container changes. Which gas decreases in composition?
