0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 D C A B 2 / 35 Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger? to locate errors to speed production of financial statements to provide an instant total of trade receivables to deter fraud 3 / 35 Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500. Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year? $125 as an income $325 as an expense $325 as an income $125 as an expense 4 / 35 The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal? $1200 $1100 $2400 $2500 5 / 35 Which book of prime entry is written up from the copies of credit notes issued by a trader? purchases journal sales journal purchases returns journal sales returns journal 6 / 35 Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022? $43 370 $43 730 $34 130 $33 770 7 / 35 The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column. One account balance had been entered in the wrong column. Which one was it? drawings discount received cash irrecoverable debts 8 / 35 15 times 21 times 20 times 30 times 9 / 35 D B C A 10 / 35 Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets? to ensure that non-current assets appear at book value in the statement of financial position to charge the cost of non-current assets against profit in the year of purchase to retain cash in the business for replacement of non-current assets to ensure that the matching principle is applied when preparing financial statements 11 / 35 A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct? Shareholders would have to sell their personal possessions to pay the debts of the company Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the value of shares owned. Shareholders would lose the money that was paid when the shares were first purchased. Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the number of shares owned. 12 / 35 $10 666 $10 754 $10 934 $10 514 13 / 35 Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer? direct expenses, depreciation of factory machinery, royalties factory overheads, raw materials, direct expenses direct wages, factory supervisor’s wages, factory insurance raw materials, royalties, direct labour 14 / 35 What is a reason for preparing a sales ledger control account? to ensure trade receivables pay on time to calculate total sales revenue to summarise the accounts of the trade receivables to help prepare the income statement 15 / 35 Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer? invoice statement of account credit note debit note 16 / 35 Raminder maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The monthly imprest of $250 is restored on the first day of each month. In January the petty cashier spent $105 and received a refund of $15 from a stationery supplier. How much was given to the petty cashier on 1 February to restore the imprest? $145 $160 $105 $90 17 / 35 Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir. Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two accounts was agreed. Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account? credit $100 credit $200 debit $200 debit $100 18 / 35 What are advantages of operating as a sole trader? 1 The owner can keep all the profit. 2 The owner can raise finance by issuing debentures. 3 The owner can make decisions independently. 4 The owner is protected by limited liability. 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 only 19 / 35 ‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently verified.’ To which accounting policy does this statement refer? relevance reliability comparability understandability 20 / 35 B C D A 21 / 35 A B D C 22 / 35 Which formulas may be used for the accounting equation? 1 assets = owner’s equity minus liabilities 2 liabilities = assets minus owner’s equity 3 owner’s equity = assets plus liabilities 4 owner’s equity plus liabilities = assets 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 23 / 35 Which statement is not true about a trial balance? It is part of the double entry system. It is useful in preparing financial statements. It can assist in finding arithmetical errors. It is a list of ledger account balances at a certain date. 24 / 35 A D C B 25 / 35 A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements. What is the effect of this on the interested parties? They can be sure that information in the financial statements is up to date. They can use the financial statements in decision-making They can identify similarities with the financial statements of other businesses. They can understand the financial statements easily. 26 / 35 B D C A 27 / 35 the balance carried down the recovery of a debt previously written off an irrecoverable debt discount allowed 28 / 35 What is prepared by a book-keeper? appropriation account income statement cash book statement of financial position 29 / 35 What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business? wages of factory supervisors wages of factory supervisors royalties raw material 30 / 35 The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal? overcast by $200 overcast by $200 undercast by $200 overcast by $130 31 / 35 $12 100 $10 900 $11 200 $12 500 32 / 35 The cash book balance was $190 higher than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $190 lower than the bank statement balance. The cash book balance was $210 higher than the bank statement balance. 33 / 35 B C D A 34 / 35 Jameel sold goods on credit. Where did he first record the invoice he issued? general ledger sales ledger general journal sales journal 35 / 35 Ann maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. Which statement is not correct? The number of entries in the cash book increases because of the large number of small cash payments. The chief cashier is not asked continually for small sums of money A petty cash book can be maintained by a junior member of staff At any time petty cash vouchers plus the petty cash balance are equal to the imprest amount. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger?
3 / 35
Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500. Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year?
4 / 35
The financial year of Yeung ends on 31 March. On 1 April 2021, he purchased a machine for $4000. He estimated that it would have a useful working life of 3 years and a residual value of $100. Yeung uses the straight-line method of depreciation. The machine was sold on 1 April 2022 for $1500. What was the loss on disposal?
5 / 35
Which book of prime entry is written up from the copies of credit notes issued by a trader?
6 / 35
Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of $38 750. On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated as a revenue receipt. In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022. What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?
7 / 35
The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column. One account balance had been entered in the wrong column. Which one was it?
8 / 35
9 / 35
10 / 35
Why does a business provide for depreciation on non-current assets?
11 / 35
A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct?
12 / 35
13 / 35
Which group contains only items included in the prime cost of a manufacturer?
14 / 35
What is a reason for preparing a sales ledger control account?
15 / 35
Which document from a supplier reduces the amount owed by a customer?
16 / 35
Raminder maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The monthly imprest of $250 is restored on the first day of each month. In January the petty cashier spent $105 and received a refund of $15 from a stationery supplier. How much was given to the petty cashier on 1 February to restore the imprest?
17 / 35
Raj is both a customer of and a supplier to Balbir. Raj’s account in Balbir’s sales ledger showed a debit balance of $300. There was a credit balance of $100 on Raj’s account in the purchases ledger. A contra entry between the two accounts was agreed. Which entry would Balbir make in his purchases ledger control account?
18 / 35
What are advantages of operating as a sole trader? 1 The owner can keep all the profit. 2 The owner can raise finance by issuing debentures. 3 The owner can make decisions independently. 4 The owner is protected by limited liability.
19 / 35
‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently verified.’ To which accounting policy does this statement refer?
20 / 35
21 / 35
22 / 35
Which formulas may be used for the accounting equation? 1 assets = owner’s equity minus liabilities 2 liabilities = assets minus owner’s equity 3 owner’s equity = assets plus liabilities 4 owner’s equity plus liabilities = assets
23 / 35
Which statement is not true about a trial balance?
24 / 35
25 / 35
A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements.
What is the effect of this on the interested parties?
26 / 35
27 / 35
28 / 35
What is prepared by a book-keeper?
29 / 35
What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business?
30 / 35
The totals of a trial balance did not agree and $200 was debited to a suspense account. On checking the books it was found that two errors had been made. 1 A sales invoice for $700 had been recorded in the sales journal as $770. 2 The sales journal had been totalled incorrectly. What was the error made in totalling the sales journal?
31 / 35
32 / 35
33 / 35
34 / 35
Jameel sold goods on credit. Where did he first record the invoice he issued?
35 / 35
Ann maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. Which statement is not correct?
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct? It is prepared using information from the books of prime entry. It acts as a check on the balance of the purchases account. It includes transactions relating to all the credit suppliers. It provides proof of the arithmetical accuracy of the purchases ledger 2 / 35 A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial statements. What is the effect of this on the interested parties? They can use the financial statements in decision-making They can be sure that information in the financial statements is up to date. They can understand the financial statements easily. They can identify similarities with the financial statements of other businesses. 3 / 35 Which statements are correct? 1 A debenture holder of a limited company is liable for the debts of the company. 2 A partner is liable to pay business debts from personal assets. 3 A shareholder of a limited company is responsible for the company’s debts. 4 A sole trader is responsible for all the debts of his business. 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 1 and 2 4 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $670 $660 $600 $640 5 / 35 On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly recorded as office expenses, $90. Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase. What was the effect on the profit for the year? understated by $90 overstated by $990 overstated by $810 understated by $900 6 / 35 Sabelo’s liquid (acid test) ratio was higher on 1 January 2019 than it was on 31 December 2019. What could have caused this? inventory decreased trade receivables decreased other payables decreased bank overdraft decreased 7 / 35 A C B D 8 / 35 Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position? at original cost at replacement cost at book value at expected sales value 9 / 35 B D A C 10 / 35 Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect? It includes amounts prepaid at the end of the year. Non-monetary items are excluded. Non-monetary items are excluded. It shows the surplus for the year. 11 / 35 Which accounting principle states that revenue should not be recorded before it is earned? realisation consistency money measurement matching 12 / 35 Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying? materiality going concern money measurement prudence 13 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to reward prompt payment to encourage bulk buying to avoid irrecoverable debts to encourage payment in cash 14 / 35 D C A B 15 / 35 Which statement is correct? The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts 16 / 35 D C B A 17 / 35 A sales invoice for $800 was incorrectly recorded in the sales journal as $1800. How did this error affect the trial balance? The trial balance did not balance because the debits were understated by $1000. The trial balance balanced but both totals were overstated by $1000. The trial balance did not balance because the credits were overstated by $1000. The trial balance balanced but both totals were understated by $1000. 18 / 35 $6000 $16 000 $1000 $26 000 19 / 35 Subscriptions relating to the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $29 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 1 January 2020 amounted to $2000. Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 December 2020 amounted to $24 000. Subscriptions prepaid on 31 December 2020 amounted to $3000. 20 / 35 $57 300 $55 700 $58 700 $62 700 21 / 35 The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year? $15 860 $16 140 $17 100 $14 900 22 / 35 The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs? 1, 2 and 5 3 and 4 2 and 3 1, 4 and 5 23 / 35 A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform? extracting balances from the ledger accounts to produce a trial balance making entries in the general journal to adjust a provision for doubtful debts preparing a monthly report that analyses the profitability of the company recording sales and purchase invoices in the books of prime entry 24 / 35 B D A C 25 / 35 What is included in a purchases ledger control account? goods returned to credit suppliers discount allowed cash purchases debts written off as irrecoverable 26 / 35 $16 500 $18 500 $20 500 $18 250 27 / 35 At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply? money measurement matching materiality prudence 28 / 35 $43 600 $40 800 $38 000 $30 000 29 / 35 Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction? sales journal cash book purchases journal general journal 30 / 35 The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020? $68 000 $83 000 $5000 $3000 31 / 35 D A B C 32 / 35 Raj and Rohit are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Raj is entitled to an annual salary of $3000. The profit for the year ended 31 December 2020 was $14 100. On 1 January 2020, Raj’s current account had a debit balance of $1800. What was the credit balance on Raj’s current account on 1 January 2021? $12 400 $8600 $10 400 $12 200 33 / 35 Which accounting policy requires that the information in financial statements is free from significant errors and bias? reliability consistency comparability understandability 34 / 35 Cash paid to Samir had been credited to Samuel. Goods sold to Samir had been debited to Samuel. Goods bought from Samir had been credited to Samuel. Cash received from Samuel had been debited to Samir. 35 / 35 Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods? general ledger only general ledger and purchases ledger purchases ledger only cash book and sales ledger NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?
Which statements are correct? 1 A debenture holder of a limited company is liable for the debts of the company. 2 A partner is liable to pay business debts from personal assets. 3 A shareholder of a limited company is responsible for the company’s debts. 4 A sole trader is responsible for all the debts of his business.
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
On the last day of the financial year, Khalid purchased office fittings, $900. This was incorrectly recorded as office expenses, $90. Khalid does not charge depreciation in the year of purchase. What was the effect on the profit for the year?
Sabelo’s liquid (acid test) ratio was higher on 1 January 2019 than it was on 31 December 2019. What could have caused this?
Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time. How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position?
Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect?
Which accounting principle states that revenue should not be recorded before it is earned?
Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying?
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
Which statement is correct?
A sales invoice for $800 was incorrectly recorded in the sales journal as $1800. How did this error affect the trial balance?
The income statement of a business showed a loss for the year of $16 000. On checking the books the following errors were discovered. 1 No adjustment had been made for insurance prepaid, $480. 2 No entry had been made for bank charges, $620. What was the correct loss for the year?
The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs?
A business employs a book-keeper and an accountant. Which task would the accountant perform?
What is included in a purchases ledger control account?
At the end of the financial year, a company did not account for the unused stationary valued at $50. Which accounting principle did the company apply?
Ben sold goods to David for $900 cash. In which book of prime entry would David record this transaction?
The issued share capital of AN Limited consists of ordinary shares. On 1 January 2020, the retained earnings were $78 000. For the year ended 31 December 2020, the company earned a profit of $65 000. An ordinary share dividend of $20 000 was paid during the year and a further dividend for the year of $15 000 was proposed. A transfer was made to general reserve of $40 000. What was the balance of retained earnings at 31 December 2020?
Raj and Rohit are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Raj is entitled to an annual salary of $3000. The profit for the year ended 31 December 2020 was $14 100. On 1 January 2020, Raj’s current account had a debit balance of $1800. What was the credit balance on Raj’s current account on 1 January 2021?
Which accounting policy requires that the information in financial statements is free from significant errors and bias?
Goods bought on credit by Tumelo from Tebogo are returned before they are paid for. Tumelo keeps a full double entry system. Where will Tumelo record the return of goods?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 D A B C 2 / 40 Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion? from lower to higher concentration down a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration down a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration against a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration against a concentration gradient 3 / 40 0 12 6 3 4 / 40 uterus ureter urethra vein 5 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? constipation starvation scurvy obesity 6 / 40 What is the principal source of energy for the food chain shown? grass → caterpillar → frog → snake→ owl water mineral ions glucose sunlight 7 / 40 How can HIV be transmitted? drinking water containing untreated sewage recessive alleles unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected person contact with saliva 8 / 40 Which type of molecule are enzymes made of? DNA protein carbohydrate fat 9 / 40 one cell membrane two cell walls two cell membranes one cell wall 10 / 40 X absorbs more water from food than Y. Y does not absorb water from food. Y absorbs more water from food than X. X does not absorb water from food. 11 / 40 W and X Y and Z Z and W X and Y 12 / 40 What is the function of the optic nerve? to carry impulses from the retina to the brain to carry light from the brain to the retina to carry light from the retina to the brain to carry impulses from the brain to the retina 13 / 40 Which is an example of a transmissible disease? liver damage due to drinking alcohol cholera after drinking contaminated water lung cancer due to inhaling tobacco smoke coronary heart disease due to eating high fat food 14 / 40 What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material? herbivore consumer decomposer carnivore 15 / 40 What is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles? ethanol carbon dioxide lactic acid water 16 / 40 D A C B 17 / 40 Adaptive features are inherited features that increase fitness. What is the definition of fitness? the probability of an organism surviving and reproducing in the environment in which it is found artificial selection to improve organisms the change in adaptive features of a population over time the probability of variation in a population 18 / 40 From which part of a leaf does most water evaporate during transpiration? the guard cells the cuticle the spongy mesophyll cells the xylem vessels 19 / 40 Which statement about variation is correct? Phenotypic variation is caused by environmental factors only. Phenotypic variation is caused by genetic factors only. Continuous variation results in few phenotypes with no intermediates. Discontinuous variation results in few phenotypes with no intermediates. 20 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen? Salt left the plant tissue by osmosis. Water left the plant tissue by osmosis. Salt entered the plant tissue by active transport. Water entered the plant tissue by active transport. 21 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells one banana plant being divided into two banana plants one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells 22 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. The disorder is sex-linked. 23 / 40 What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast? glucose → alcohol glucose → lactic acid + carbon dioxide glucose → alcohol + carbon dioxide glucose → lactic acid 24 / 40 What is the correct definition of an enzyme? a substance made of fats that changes the rate of a reaction a carbohydrate that functions as a biological catalyst a substance that is changed by the reaction a protein that functions as a biological catalyst 25 / 40 Which statement about meiosis is correct? It allows the formation of new combinations of chromosomes. Daughter cells are genetically identical. It is used to produce body cells. The chromosome number changes from haploid to diploid. 26 / 40 A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects touching his hand. What could cause this? Effectors are damaged. Sensory neurones are cut Both sensory and motor neurones are cut. Motor neurones are cut. 27 / 40 Which process in the water cycle only involves living organisms? transpiration condensation precipitation evaporation 28 / 40 What are the products when proteins are broken down? simple sugars amino acids fatty acids glycerol 29 / 40 What is defined as a length of DNA that codes for a protein? gene nucleus chromosome amino acid 30 / 40 Which organ excretes urea? lungs kidney pancreas liver 31 / 40 A chromosome was analysed and found to have 6125 pairs of bases. The type of each base was identified and 2345 of the bases were G. How many of the bases in this chromosome are T? 6125 1435 3780 7560 32 / 40 Which disease is caused by a pathogen? cholera coronary heart disease lung cancer scurvy 33 / 40 The stages describe how genetic engineering can be used to produce human insulin from bacteria. 1) cut bacterial plasmid DNA with restriction enzymes 2) extract gene for insulin from human DNA with restriction enzymes 3) insert recombinant plasmid into bacteria 4) join human DNA to bacterial plasmid DNA using DNA ligase 5) replicate bacteria containing recombinant plasmid Which sequence will lead to the production of human insulin by bacteria? 4 → 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 5 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 2 → 5 → 1 → 3 → 4 34 / 40 Three statements about immune responses are listed. 1) Antigens trigger an immune response which produces antibodies. 2) Memory cells are produced. 3) Antibodies are acquired from another individual. Which statements are correct when describing active immunity? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 35 / 40 C A D B 36 / 40 Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body? vaccination phagocytosis antibody production mucus 37 / 40 Which cell contains a haploid nucleus? neurone sperm cell skin cell red blood cell 38 / 40 What is the most accurate method of classifying animals? identifying similarities in DNA base sequences identifying similarities in anatomy comparing bones comparing the morphology of organisms 39 / 40 Coat colour in cattle is controlled by two codominant alleles. The genotype CRCRresults in cattle with a red coloured coat. The genotype CwCw results in cattle with a white coloured coat. The genotype CRCw results in a roan coat; these cattle have a mixture of red hairs and white hairs in their coat. A mating occurs between a red cow and a roan bull. What is the expected ratio of coat colour in the offspring? 50% red, 50% white 50% red, 50% roan 100% roan 100% red 40 / 40 What occurs as a result of artificial selection? sickle cell anaemia disease resistant crops antibiotic resistance in bacteria presence of roots in cactus plants NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
2 / 40
Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?
3 / 40
4 / 40
5 / 40
Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?
6 / 40
What is the principal source of energy for the food chain shown? grass → caterpillar → frog → snake→ owl
7 / 40
How can HIV be transmitted?
8 / 40
Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?
9 / 40
10 / 40
11 / 40
12 / 40
What is the function of the optic nerve?
13 / 40
Which is an example of a transmissible disease?
14 / 40
What is the name of an organism that obtains its energy from dead organic material?
15 / 40
What is produced during anaerobic respiration in muscles?
16 / 40
17 / 40
Adaptive features are inherited features that increase fitness. What is the definition of fitness?
18 / 40
From which part of a leaf does most water evaporate during transpiration?
19 / 40
Which statement about variation is correct?
20 / 40
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen?
21 / 40
What is an example of sexual reproduction?
22 / 40
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
23 / 40
What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast?
24 / 40
What is the correct definition of an enzyme?
25 / 40
Which statement about meiosis is correct?
26 / 40
A man injures his arm in an accident. Afterwards, he can move his hand but cannot feel objects touching his hand. What could cause this?
27 / 40
Which process in the water cycle only involves living organisms?
28 / 40
What are the products when proteins are broken down?
29 / 40
What is defined as a length of DNA that codes for a protein?
30 / 40
Which organ excretes urea?
31 / 40
A chromosome was analysed and found to have 6125 pairs of bases. The type of each base was identified and 2345 of the bases were G. How many of the bases in this chromosome are T?
32 / 40
Which disease is caused by a pathogen?
33 / 40
The stages describe how genetic engineering can be used to produce human insulin from bacteria. 1) cut bacterial plasmid DNA with restriction enzymes 2) extract gene for insulin from human DNA with restriction enzymes 3) insert recombinant plasmid into bacteria 4) join human DNA to bacterial plasmid DNA using DNA ligase 5) replicate bacteria containing recombinant plasmid Which sequence will lead to the production of human insulin by bacteria?
34 / 40
Three statements about immune responses are listed. 1) Antigens trigger an immune response which produces antibodies. 2) Memory cells are produced. 3) Antibodies are acquired from another individual. Which statements are correct when describing active immunity?
35 / 40
36 / 40
Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body?
37 / 40
Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?
38 / 40
What is the most accurate method of classifying animals?
39 / 40
Coat colour in cattle is controlled by two codominant alleles. The genotype CRCRresults in cattle with a red coloured coat. The genotype CwCw results in cattle with a white coloured coat. The genotype CRCw results in a roan coat; these cattle have a mixture of red hairs and white hairs in their coat. A mating occurs between a red cow and a roan bull. What is the expected ratio of coat colour in the offspring?
40 / 40
What occurs as a result of artificial selection?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which description of assimilation is correct? the movement of digested food molecules into the cells of the body where they are used and become part of the cells the movement of soluble molecules into the blood the taking of food and drink into the body through the mouth the passing out of food that has not been digested or absorbed, as faeces, through the anus 2 / 40 The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct? The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is fertile. The horse and the donkey are the same species; the mule is infertile. The horse and the donkey are the same genus; the mule is fertile 3 / 40 In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules? water glucose salts urea 4 / 40 A B C D 5 / 40 adrenal glands ovaries testes pancreas 6 / 40 Which statement about selective breeding is correct? It does not involve humans. It involves a struggle for survival. It always involves only one parent It involves parents that possess desirable features. 7 / 40 What is an example of sexual reproduction? one bacterial cell dividing to produce two daughter bacterial cells one pollen grain nucleus fusing with one ovule nucleus in a flower one yeast cell producing buds which separate to become new yeast cells one banana plant being divided into two banana plants 8 / 40 alimentary canal bronchus plant roots blood 9 / 40 What is an adaptive feature of sperm? large stores of energy jelly coating that changes after fertilisation diploid nucleus enzymes in the acrosome 10 / 40 What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation? breaks down implantation of embryo new blood vessel growth repair and thickening 11 / 40 During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery? Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles 12 / 40 Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple? biuret solution Benedict’s solution ethanol iodine solution 13 / 40 C B A D 14 / 40 Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant? root hair cells → root cortex cells → xylem → mesophyll cells → stomata root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root hair cells → xylem → root cortex cells → mesophyll cells → stomata 15 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus with one double helix of DNA a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes a nucleus with two genes a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes 16 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? scurvy starvation constipation obesity 17 / 40 green sea urchins the sea kelp the Sun 18 / 40 Which description of cross-pollination is correct? the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma on the same plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one plant to the anther on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma on a different plant the transfer of pollen grains from the stigma to the anther on the same plant 19 / 40 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 20 / 40 Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis? 24 48 6 12 21 / 40 What is an angioplasty? the insertion of a tube into a blood vessel to allow blood to flow more freely an operation to insert a new vessel that diverts blood around a narrowed section the widening of a blood vessel by means of a balloon-like device a recording of the heart’s electrical activity to check for abnormalities 22 / 40 Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy? ovaries uterus pancreas placenta 23 / 40 What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction when a new crop disease appears on a farm? Asexual reproduction does not lead to genetic variation in offspring. Asexual reproduction does not require a pollinator Asexual reproduction only requires one parent plant. Asexual reproduction does not disperse offspring over a wide area. 24 / 40 C A D B 25 / 40 C D B A 26 / 40 Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules? osmosis active transport transpiration translocation 27 / 40 Which process is part of the carbon cycle? precipitation evaporation transpiration combustion 28 / 40 Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism? All parts of a plant grow away from light. Plant roots grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow towards light. Plant shoots grow towards light. 29 / 40 days 19–28 days 0–5 days 13–18 days 6–12 30 / 40 In a double circulation, what is the role of the right side of the heart? to receive oxygenated blood from the body and to pump deoxygenated blood to the lungs to receive deoxygenated blood from the body and to pump deoxygenated blood to the lungs to receive deoxygenated blood from the body and to pump oxygenated blood to the lungs to receive oxygenated blood from the body and to pump oxygenated blood to the lungs 31 / 40 diffusion both upwards and downwards diffusion downwards only diffusion and osmosis diffusion upwards only 32 / 40 D C A B 33 / 40 The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct? The pancreas responds to a fall in blood glucose by increasing the release of the hormone glucagon. The pancreas does not respond to an increase in blood glucose levels. The liver releases the hormone insulin when blood glucose levels are too high. The liver converts the small molecule glucose to the large molecule glucagon. 34 / 40 Large areas of forest are cut down in order to clear the land for other uses. If the land is not replanted with trees or crops, what effect does this have on the atmosphere? Carbon dioxide remains the same. Water vapour increases Oxygen increases. Carbon dioxide increases. 35 / 40 Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes? Low temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it difficult for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. High temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. Low temperatures denature enzymes making it easy for substrate molecules to fit into the active site. 36 / 40 What can be used to reduce competition between crop plants and weeds? pollinators herbicides insecticides fertilisers 37 / 40 What ensures that blood flows in one direction in the human circulatory system? diffusion of carbon dioxide thick walled arteries valves diffusion of oxygen 38 / 40 B A C D 39 / 40 What is an example of passive immunity? giving chickenpox antibodies to people at risk of developing a severe infection the formation of memory cells in response to a cholera infection immunity against influenza after an individual has been infected with the influenza virus vaccination against measles where a harmless version of the virus is given 40 / 40 Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology? Bacteria can make complex molecules. Bacteria do not become resistant to antibiotics. Bacteria reproduce slowly. Bacteria are found inside the human body NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
Which description of assimilation is correct?
The horse, Equus ferus, and the donkey, Equus asinus, are able to interbreed. The offspring they produce is called a mule. Which statement is correct?
In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney tubules?
Which statement about selective breeding is correct?
What is an adaptive feature of sperm?
What happens to the uterus lining during menstruation?
During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery?
Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple?
Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant?
What is a diploid nucleus?
Which description of cross-pollination is correct?
Before meiosis takes place, a cell has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in each of the cells that are produced by meiosis?
What is an angioplasty?
Where is progesterone produced in the late stages of pregnancy?
What is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction when a new crop disease appears on a farm?
Which process is involved in the uptake of glucose by the epithelial cells of kidney tubules?
Which process is part of the carbon cycle?
Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?
In a double circulation, what is the role of the right side of the heart?
The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct?
Large areas of forest are cut down in order to clear the land for other uses. If the land is not replanted with trees or crops, what effect does this have on the atmosphere?
Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?
What can be used to reduce competition between crop plants and weeds?
What ensures that blood flows in one direction in the human circulatory system?
What is an example of passive immunity?
Which is a reason for using bacteria in biotechnology?
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Which statements are correct? 1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions. 2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid. 3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid. 4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor. 1 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 4 2 / 40 C D B A 3 / 40 Which reaction can be easily reversed? dissolving zinc in hydrochloric acid heating hydrated cobalt(II) chloride fermenting glucose with yeast the rusting of an iron nail 4 / 40 Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water? It boils at 100 °C. It has a pH value of 7. It turns blue cobalt(II) chloride pink. It turns white copper(II) sulfate blue. 5 / 40 calcium oxide calcium carbonate calcium hydroxide calcium sulfate 6 / 40 Four substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes the electrode products? substance(concentrated hydrochloric acid ), anode product (chlorine), cathode product (oxygen) substance(molten lead bromide), anode product (lead), cathode product (bromine) substance(concentrated aqueous sodium chloride), anode product (hydrogen), cathode product (chlorine) substance(dilute sulfuric acid ), anode product (oxygen), cathode product (hydrogen) 7 / 40 Phosphine, PH3, has a similar chemical structure to ammonia, NH3. Ammonia acts as a base when it reacts with sulfuric acid. What is meant by the term base? proton hydrogen ion acceptor Above All H+ 8 / 40 Which compounds belong to the same homologous series? ethane and propane methane and ethene propene and ethanoic acid ethanoic acid and ethanol 9 / 40 A C D B 10 / 40 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis? The colour changes from blue to red. The colour changes from green to red. The colour changes from green to blue. The colour changes from blue to green. 11 / 40 Which substances are natural polymers? 1) proteins 2) carbohydrates 3) nylon 4) poly(ethene) 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 12 / 40 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant. For safety reasons, an inert gas is used. Which gas is suitable? argon methane hydrogen oxygen 13 / 40 A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide Check 14 / 40 Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct? The amount of product present is only affected by a change in pressure. Both the forward and the backward reactions are proceeding at the same rate Neither the forward nor the backward reaction is proceeding. The amount of product present is no longer affected by changes in temperature or pressure. 15 / 40 a macromolecular solid. Oxygen silicon(IV) oxide aluminium oxide nitrogen 16 / 40 State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ………………………………………………………. Blue to White Only Blue Only White White to Blue 17 / 40 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z? calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate calcium oxide calcium 18 / 40 Which reaction is reversible? limestone reacting with an acid to form carbon dioxide gas magnesium burning in air to produce a white ash an iron nail rusting when left in moist air white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turning blue when water is added 19 / 40 Sulfur dioxide is a pollutant in the air. State one source of sulfur dioxide in the air Check 20 / 40 Which statement about ethanol is not correct? Ethanol reacts with oxygen exothermically, making it a good fuel. Ethanol reacts with propanoic acid to make propyl ethanoate. Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Ethanol is oxidised to make ethanoic acid. 21 / 40 2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M? 96 48 192 128 22 / 40 X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy. X is a pure metal and Y is a compound. X is harder and stronger than Y. X is a solid and Y is a liquid. 23 / 40 Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions. In which solution does a displacement reaction occur? magnesium sulfate zinc sulfate copper(II) sulfate sodium sulfate 24 / 40 a reactant in respiration Oxygen ethanol nitrogen 25 / 40 In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide. What would happen in both experiments? A halogen would be formed at the anode. Hydrogen would be formed at the anode. Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode. A metal would be formed at the cathode. 26 / 40 Which property is shown by all metals? They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen. They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon. They form acidic oxides. They conduct electricity. 27 / 40 Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct? They are elements with the same chemical properties. They are atoms with the same number of outer electrons They are molecules with the same boiling point. They are compounds with the same functional group 28 / 40 Why is helium used to fill balloons? Helium is monoatomic. Helium is less dense than air. Helium has a full outer electron shell. Helium is in Group VIII of the Periodic Table. 29 / 40 Coating iron helps to prevent rusting. Which coating will continue to protect the iron even when the coating is damaged? plastic zinc paint copper 30 / 40 What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly? calcium hydroxide and carbon monoxide calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide calcium oxide and carbon monoxide calcium oxide and carbon dioxide 31 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. The solvent should cover the baseline. The baseline should be drawn in pencil. Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. 32 / 40 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly. Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only. The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner. What is metal Q? sodium calcium copper zinc 33 / 40 Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation? A continuous production process is used. A non-renewable raw material is used. The rate of reaction is very high. The product is very pure. 34 / 40 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 35 / 40 The equation for a redox reaction is shown. 2FeSO4 + Cl2 + H2SO4 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl Which element is reduced? chlorine sulfur oxygen iron 36 / 40 Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct? 1 Water is formed as the only waste product. 2 Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products. 3 The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. 4 The overall reaction is endothermic. 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 37 / 40 Which statement describes the properties of hydrochloric acid? Carbon dioxide is produced when limestone reacts with hydrochloric acid. Hydrogen is produced when sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid. Red litmus paper turns blue when dipped into hydrochloric acid. Methyl orange turns yellow in strong hydrochloric acid. 38 / 40 An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of protons? CheckWrong 39 / 40 State the empirical formula of the polymer. Check 40 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is malleable Check NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Ethanoic acid is a weak acid. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. Which statements are correct? 1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions. 2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid. 3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid. 4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor.
Which reaction can be easily reversed?
Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water?
Four substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes the electrode products?
Phosphine, PH3, has a similar chemical structure to ammonia, NH3. Ammonia acts as a base when it reacts with sulfuric acid. What is meant by the term base?
Which compounds belong to the same homologous series?
Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride. The solution, which contains H+(hydrogen), Na+(sodium), Cl–(chloride) and OH–(hydroxide) ions, is electrolysed. The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas. What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?
Which substances are natural polymers? 1) proteins 2) carbohydrates 3) nylon 4) poly(ethene)
A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant. For safety reasons, an inert gas is used. Which gas is suitable?
A list of symbols and formulae is shown. Al3+ CH4 CO2 Fe3+ N2 NO2 O2 O2- Zn2+ Answer the following questions about these symbols and formulae. Each symbol or formula may be used once, more than once or not at all. Which symbol or formula represents: an ion which forms a red-brown precipitate when added to aqueous sodium hydroxide
Which statement about a reaction in equilibrium is correct?
a macromolecular solid.
State the colour change that occurs when water is added to this compound of copper. from …………………………………………………….. to ……………………………………………………….
A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z?
Which reaction is reversible?
Sulfur dioxide is a pollutant in the air. State one source of sulfur dioxide in the air
Which statement about ethanol is not correct?
2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M?
Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions.
In which solution does a displacement reaction occur?
a reactant in respiration
In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride and molten lead(II) bromide.
What would happen in both experiments?
Which property is shown by all metals?
Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct?
Why is helium used to fill balloons?
Coating iron helps to prevent rusting. Which coating will continue to protect the iron even when the coating is damaged?
What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?
Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?
Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly. Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only. The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner. What is metal Q?
Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst. What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?
A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone). 1) manufacture of cement 2) manufacture of iron 3) treating alkaline soils Which suggestions are correct?
The equation for a redox reaction is shown. 2FeSO4 + Cl2 + H2SO4 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl Which element is reduced?
Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct? 1 Water is formed as the only waste product. 2 Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products. 3 The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O. 4 The overall reaction is endothermic.
Which statement describes the properties of hydrochloric acid?
An isotope of calcium is written as shown. 4420Ca Deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in this isotope of calcium. number of protons?
State the empirical formula of the polymer.
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: is malleable
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement describes the members of a homologous series? compounds with the same physical properties compounds containing the same number and type of bonds compounds containing the same functional group compounds obtained from the same raw material 2 / 40 Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out? 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 3 / 40 Which substance should be pure for the intended use? a drug for curing disease petroleum for fractional distillation limestone for iron extraction water for washing a car 4 / 40 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules? They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice. They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules. They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together. They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together. 5 / 40 Which statement explains why metals are malleable? The atoms release electrons to become cations. The electrons and the cations are attracted to each other. The layers of ions can slide over each other. The electrons are free to move. 6 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. The solvent should cover the baseline. The baseline should be drawn in pencil. 7 / 40 Carbon dioxide and methane are both greenhouse gases. Which activity produces both of these gases? cracking alkanes farming animals the thermal decomposition of limestone using petrol-powered cars 8 / 40 Sulfur dioxide is tested by reacting it with acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is seen in the test? white to blue purple to colourless blue to white colourless to purple 9 / 40 Which process uses sacrificial protection to prevent steel from rusting? oiling galvanising copper plating painting 10 / 40 Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together? calcium hydroxide and ammonium chloride copper(II) oxide and dilute nitric acid zinc and dilute sulfuric acid calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid 11 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 12 / 40 Which fraction, obtained from petroleum, is used for jet fuel? kerosene bitumen naphtha gasoline 13 / 40 What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid? It changes red litmus blue. It reacts with a metal oxide to form carbon dioxide. It has a deep purple colour. It has a pH of less than 7. 14 / 40 Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes. Which statements about these isomers are correct? 1 They have the same molecular formula. 2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule. 3 They have a C=C bond in the structure. 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 only 3 only 15 / 40 Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide. 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 16 / 40 Which substance is a natural polymer? nylon ethene protein Terylene 17 / 40 In which state does 1 dm3 of methane contain the most particles? liquid gas at room temperature solid gas at 100 degree Celsius 18 / 40 Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium? cryolite and zinc blende bauxite and cryolite hematite and zinc blende bauxite and hematite 19 / 40 What is the main constituent of natural gas? methane oxygen hydrogen nitrogen 20 / 40 Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture? distillation fractional distillation crystallisation filtration 21 / 40 What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed? 2Br– → Br2 + 2e– Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– Pb → Pb2+ + 2e– 22 / 40 Some properties of metal J are listed. ● J does not react with cold water. ● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. ● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon. What is J? iron copper magnesium sodium 23 / 40 Mild steel is galvanised to prevent corrosion of the iron. Which statements about galvanising are correct? 1 Galvanising prevents corrosion because the zinc forms an alloy. 2 If the coating is damaged, water and oxygen do not corrode the iron. 3 Zinc is a sacrificial metal and corrodes in preference to iron. 2 only 1 and 3 1 and 2 2 and 3 24 / 40 Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct? Potassium has the highest melting point and the highest density. Lithium has the highest melting point and the lowest density. Lithium has the highest density and the most violent reaction with water. Potassium has the lowest melting point and the least violent reaction with water. 25 / 40 A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1. X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2. Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1. Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3? boiling of liquid X sublimation of solid X evaporation of liquid X condensation of gaseous X 26 / 40 Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food? nylon Terylene carbohydrate poly(ethene) 27 / 40 Some properties of diamond are shown. 1 It is very hard. 2 Every atom forms four bonds. 3 It does not conduct electricity. Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide? 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 only 1 and 2 28 / 40 Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown. carbon silicon germanium tin lead What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended? The elements have more electron shells. The elements become more metallic. The proton number of the elements increases. The elements have more electrons in their outer shell. 29 / 40 Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia? limestone petroleum water air 30 / 40 Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile. 1 and 4 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 31 / 40 Which statement about polymers is correct? Synthetic polymers are harmful to marine life. All synthetic polymers rapidly break down in landfill sites. Proteins are non-biodegradable natural polymers. Nylon is a natural polymer. 32 / 40 Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of X? CHO<sub>2</sub> CHO C<sub>2</sub>HO CH<sub>2</sub>O 33 / 40 Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons. 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 4 34 / 40 Which statement explains why galvanising prevents iron from rusting? Zinc is more reactive than iron and loses electrons less easily than iron. Zinc is more reactive than iron and corrodes in preference to iron. Zinc is less reactive than iron and corrodes in preference to iron. Zinc is less reactive than iron and loses electrons more easily than iron. 35 / 40 Which statement about the reactivity of metals is correct? Copper reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. Calcium oxide is reduced more easily than iron oxide. Potassium reacts with cold water. Iron is more reactive than magnesium. 36 / 40 Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct? Gas oil is used to make bottled gas for heating. Molecules in kerosene are larger than molecules in fuel oil. Hydrocarbons in diesel have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons in gasoline. All petroleum fractions are used as fuels. 37 / 40 Which reactions produce carbon dioxide? 1 heating a carbonate 2 reacting a carbonate with dilute acid 3 burning methane 4 cracking a hydrocarbon 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 38 / 40 Which statement about paper chromatography is correct? The baseline should be drawn in pencil. Paper chromatography separates mixtures of solvents. The solvent should cover the baseline. A solvent is needed to dissolve the paper. 39 / 40 The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3. 1 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 40 / 40 Metal M is mixed with copper to produce brass. What is M? nickel vanadium zinc chromium NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which statement describes the members of a homologous series?
Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed. 1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon. 2 Condense zinc vapour. 3 Vaporise the zinc. 4 Roast zinc ore in air. In which order are the processes carried out?
Which substance should be pure for the intended use?
Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules?
Which statement explains why metals are malleable?
Carbon dioxide and methane are both greenhouse gases. Which activity produces both of these gases?
Sulfur dioxide is tested by reacting it with acidified potassium manganate(VII). Which colour change is seen in the test?
Which process uses sacrificial protection to prevent steel from rusting?
Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
Which fraction, obtained from petroleum, is used for jet fuel?
What is a property of aqueous ethanoic acid?
Butene has three structural isomers which are alkenes. Which statements about these isomers are correct? 1 They have the same molecular formula. 2 They have different numbers of bonds in the molecule. 3 They have a C=C bond in the structure.
Which statements about the Haber process are correct? 1 One of the raw materials is extracted from liquid air by fractional distillation. 2 One of the raw materials is produced by the reaction of steam and methane. 3 The catalyst for the Haber process is vanadium(V) oxide.
Which substance is a natural polymer?
In which state does 1 dm3 of methane contain the most particles?
Which substances are used in the extraction of aluminium?
What is the main constituent of natural gas?
Fermentation of sugar produces a mixture of ethanol solution and solid yeast. How is the solid yeast removed from the mixture?
What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?
Some properties of metal J are listed. ● J does not react with cold water. ● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. ● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon. What is J?
Mild steel is galvanised to prevent corrosion of the iron. Which statements about galvanising are correct? 1 Galvanising prevents corrosion because the zinc forms an alloy. 2 If the coating is damaged, water and oxygen do not corrode the iron. 3 Zinc is a sacrificial metal and corrodes in preference to iron.
Lithium, sodium and potassium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table. Which statement about these elements is correct?
A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1. X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2. Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1. Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3?
Which substance has long-chain molecules and is a constituent of food?
Some properties of diamond are shown.
1 It is very hard. 2 Every atom forms four bonds. 3 It does not conduct electricity. Which properties are also shown by silicon(IV) oxide?
Elements in Group IV of the Periodic Table are shown. carbon silicon germanium tin lead What does not occur in Group IV as it is descended?
Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?
Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile.
Which statement about polymers is correct?
Compound X contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only. By mass, it contains 26.7% carbon and 2.2% hydrogen. What is the empirical formula of X?
Potassium reacts with iodine to form an ionic compound. 2K + I2 →2KI Which statements describe what happens when potassium reacts with iodine? 1 Each potassium atom loses two electrons. 2 Each potassium atom loses one electron. 3 Each iodine atom gains one electron. 4 Each iodine atom gains two electrons.
Which statement explains why galvanising prevents iron from rusting?
Which statement about the reactivity of metals is correct?
Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?
Which reactions produce carbon dioxide? 1 heating a carbonate 2 reacting a carbonate with dilute acid 3 burning methane 4 cracking a hydrocarbon
The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3.
Metal M is mixed with copper to produce brass. What is M?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 A C B D 2 / 30 What is identified as economic growth? an increase in the productive capacity of the economy the economy enters a period of recession a fall in labour productivity an increase in the Consumer Prices Index (CPI) 3 / 30 Which combination of characteristics describes a public good? excludable and non-rival in consumption excludable and rival in consumption non-excludable and rival in consumption non-excludable and non-rival in consumption 4 / 30 Supply exceeds demand by 200 000 tonnes. Supply exceeds demand by 400 000 tonnes Demand exceeds supply by 400 000 tonnes. Demand exceeds supply by 200 000 tonnes. 5 / 30 Changes in the foreign exchange rate of a country resulted in a depreciation of its currency. What is not likely to happen? The current account deficit will be unchanged. The costs of imported raw materials will fall. The country’s residents will find it more expensive to take holidays abroad. The country’s export trading position will become more competitive. 6 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? The US balance of trade will worsen. The good will become cheaper in the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. There will be less of the good imported into the US. 7 / 30 B A D C 8 / 30 Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement? excess demand, resource allocation public sector, factors of production demand and supply, government subsidy opportunity cost, private monopoly 9 / 30 What is an example of a non-wage factor? bonus overtime rates fringe benefits commission 10 / 30 Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection? reducing the range of products supplied to the market preventing mergers which result in high monopoly prices reducing shop opening hours discouraging economies of scale that lead to lower costs 11 / 30 Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment? increase general taxation and increase the rate of interest increase general taxation and decrease the rate of interest decrease general taxation and decrease the rate of interest decrease general taxation and increase the rate of interest 12 / 30 What is included in microeconomics? the factors leading to demand-pull inflation the effects of a change in exchange rates on the trade balance of an economy the calculation of national income and expenditure the effects of an increase in the price of a good or service 13 / 30 What is an advantage of a market economy? Producers and consumers have the same aims. Equilibrium market price clears the market. The lowest price possible is always charged. The government has no need to intervene in markets. 14 / 30 One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim? Impose a tax of $0.20 on every dollar earned. Introduce a tax on all food. Increase the tax-free allowances after which tax must be paid progressively. Provide an incentive to earn by reducing taxes for the highest paid. 15 / 30 Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this? Incomes earned from trading decline. Incomes earned from trading decline. The production possibility of an economy expands. The average cost of production decreases. 16 / 30 What is a characteristic of tertiary industries? They tend to be labour-intensive. They transform raw materials into goods. They are located away from centres of population They do not sell to the final consumer. 17 / 30 What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment? Jamie lost his job as an ice cream seller during the winter months when little ice cream was sold. Aneesha lost her job as an engineer when her firm had to make redundancies in a recession. Sunjeev decided to stop working and claim benefits when the government increased unemployment benefits. Sunjit lost his job as a bank worker when the bank replaced his job with a new computer system. 18 / 30 An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean? It was facing a recession. Total demand was rising. Unemployment was falling. Price levels were falling. 19 / 30 What describes frictional unemployment? unemployment caused by workers searching for jobs unemployment caused by a general fall in economic activity unemployment caused by the time of year unemployment caused by wages being too high 20 / 30 A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit? increased numbers of visitors from abroad increased international competitiveness of its goods increased exports of its services increased spending on its military bases abroad 21 / 30 What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation? Resources may be used less efficiently as domestic firms face less competition Consumers pay higher prices for goods and services reducing their welfare. Domestic firms may experience rising costs as they pay more for imports Domestic firms may be uncompetitive leading to structural unemployment 22 / 30 Why might a government decide to subsidise a high-cost steel industry? if cheaper imports of steel are improving the balance of payments if economic growth is increasing due to the success of other industries if unemployment in steel producing areas is increasing if redundant steel workers can easily be retrained 23 / 30 D B A C 24 / 30 Which components, in addition to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per head, are included in the Human Development Index (HDI)? average earnings and inequalities of incomes life expectancy at birth and expected years of schooling balance of trade and balance of payments size of population and age structure of population 25 / 30 What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account? A Kenyan tea company increases its exports. A Kenyan company wins a contract to transport exports from Uganda. A Kenyan trade delegation promoting coffee sales visits India. A Zambian company increases its exports to Kenya. 26 / 30 When will a firm maximise its profits? when it sells as many products in as many different markets as it can when it excludes a rival supplier from the market when it produces where average cost and average revenue are equal when the difference between total cost and total revenue is greatest 27 / 30 Which situation indicates a mixed economy? Economic activity is controlled entirely by the private sector. The government carries out all planning and decision making. Services are provided by both private and public sectors. Individual choices are unaffected by government actions 28 / 30 A government wants to reduce both its budget deficit and the amount of poverty in its country. Which fiscal policy measure is most likely to achieve both of these aims? decreasing the rate of progressive income tax increasing government spending on welfare benefits decreasing government spending on welfare benefits increasing the rate of progressive income tax 29 / 30 What is the most likely effect of a government reducing the money supply? Tax rates will decrease Inflation will increase. Employment will decrease. Growth will increase. 30 / 30 A D C B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
2 / 30
What is identified as economic growth?
3 / 30
Which combination of characteristics describes a public good?
4 / 30
5 / 30
Changes in the foreign exchange rate of a country resulted in a depreciation of its currency. What is not likely to happen?
6 / 30
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
7 / 30
8 / 30
Helium is a gas that is limited in supply because it takes thousands of years to form. The US government holds 35% of the world’s supply of helium and has been selling its stocks. Helium is essential in medical scanners. It is also used for party balloons, which is a wasteful alternative use of a valuable good. Which two concepts apply to this statement?
9 / 30
What is an example of a non-wage factor?
10 / 30
Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection?
11 / 30
Which combination of policy measures is most likely to increase the level of employment?
12 / 30
What is included in microeconomics?
13 / 30
What is an advantage of a market economy?
14 / 30
One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce inequality. Which policy will achieve this aim?
15 / 30
Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this?
16 / 30
What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?
17 / 30
What is an example of someone who lost their job because of structural unemployment?
18 / 30
An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean?
19 / 30
What describes frictional unemployment?
20 / 30
A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit?
21 / 30
What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation?
22 / 30
Why might a government decide to subsidise a high-cost steel industry?
23 / 30
24 / 30
Which components, in addition to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per head, are included in the Human Development Index (HDI)?
25 / 30
What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account?
26 / 30
When will a firm maximise its profits?
27 / 30
Which situation indicates a mixed economy?
28 / 30
A government wants to reduce both its budget deficit and the amount of poverty in its country. Which fiscal policy measure is most likely to achieve both of these aims?
29 / 30
What is the most likely effect of a government reducing the money supply?
30 / 30
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right? an increase in demand for the product an increase in indirect taxes on the product an increase in the costs of production an increase in government subsidies to producers 2 / 30 A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease? the money supply bank lending the budget deficit interest rates 3 / 30 a change in what consumers want to buy more investment the use of previously unemployed resources a recession 4 / 30 A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours? the ability to increase his purchasing power the additional time travelling to and from work the increased hourly earnings of $7.50 the ten hours of leisure time 5 / 30 What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure? A monopolist may determine the price of its product. There is easy entry into the market. There are no external costs. A monopolist’s product has many substitutes. 6 / 30 What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production? the resources on which the production relies the market structure of the production process the output that the production process creates the size of the firm that uses the production process 7 / 30 An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs? $370 000 $150 000 $220 000 $100 000 8 / 30 A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement? The price of coffee was fixed between producers. Farmers matched demand by planting more coffee bushes. A sequence of poor harvests resulted in shortages. Decreased transport costs led to a surplus of supply. 9 / 30 Why might GDP per head be underestimated in a developed economy? It does not include the hidden economy It does not take into account the primary sector It does not account for changes in population. It does not include financial services output. 10 / 30 What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy? Import prices will rise. The inflation rate will fall. Export prices will rise. A trade in goods surplus will fall. 11 / 30 What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force? an increase in net immigration a fall in the average size of families a reduction in the age of retirement a fall in the birth rate 12 / 30 What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate? the price of exports the level of national debt the level of trade protection the price of imports 13 / 30 What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods and services? more tax revenue from imports more exports by domestic firms more choice for domestic consumers more employment in declining industries 14 / 30 U + V + X + Y U + V + W U + X U + V 15 / 30 What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market? elastic demand for the product barriers to entry high number of substitutes for the product diseconomies of scale 16 / 30 Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers? Low-income purchasers and high-income purchasers pay the same percentage of their income in tax. High-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax. Low-income purchasers pay a lower percentage of their income in tax High-income purchasers pay a higher percentage of their income in tax 17 / 30 The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve? fiscal policy and monetary policy only fiscal policy and supply-side policy only monetary policy, supply-side policy and fiscal policy monetary policy and supply-side policy only 18 / 30 What can be found in a market economy? interest rates and public goods externalities and monopolies public corporations and market prices tax rates and commercial banks 19 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? wages of golf course staff loss of farmland cost of water sales of golf equipment 20 / 30 A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers? enterprise and labour capital and enterprise labour and land land and capital 21 / 30 C D A B 22 / 30 What is a cause of demand-pull inflation? higher government expenditure higher tax rates a surplus of skilled labour lower net exports 23 / 30 The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this? Costs of employing workers are lower when there is unemployment. The geographical mobility of labour has increased. Retailing demands the same skills everywhere. It is more expensive to live in the area where the retail jobs are available. 24 / 30 A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this? vertical backwards conglomerate horizontal vertical forwards 25 / 30 C A D B 26 / 30 What is meant by the equilibrium price in the market for a good? the price at which the supply and demand curves intersect the price at which maximum profit is made the price at which the producer breaks even the average price paid by consumers 27 / 30 C B D A 28 / 30 2015–2016 2012–2013 2014–2015 2013–2014 29 / 30 It is expected that consumers will use less paper money. What is the most likely reason for this? Inflation reduces the value of paper money. Other forms of money are more durable. Paper money will have less intrinsic value. More ways of making payments will be available. 30 / 30 What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product? profit average revenue total revenue total cost NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
What can cause the supply curve for a product to shift to the right?
A government uses expansionary monetary policy. What does the government decrease?
A builder spends one hour travelling to and from work. He works 40 hours per week for $200. He is given a choice to work 50 hours a week for an extra $75. What would be the opportunity cost to the builder of working the extra hours?
What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure?
What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production?
An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs?
A newspaper reported that ‘The world market for coffee has returned to equilibrium’. Which situation supports this statement?
Why might GDP per head be underestimated in a developed economy?
What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no other changes in the economy?
What is likely to cause an immediate decrease in the size of the labour force?
What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate?
What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods and services?
What could cause profits to be high in a monopoly market?
Why are indirect taxes, such as VAT of 20% on goods and services, described as regressive when comparing high-income and low-income purchasers?
The government increases taxation in order to fund an increase in spending on government training schemes. Which policy combination would this involve?
What can be found in a market economy?
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the farmers’ fields. Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?
What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?
The retail trade in a country has unemployed workers in one region and job vacancies in another region. What could explain this?
A large bakery buys a flour mill. Which form of integration is this?
What is meant by the equilibrium price in the market for a good?
It is expected that consumers will use less paper money. What is the most likely reason for this?
What is calculated when price is multiplied by the quantity demanded of a product?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90C. Both containers are the same size and both are sealed. The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q. Which statement is correct? P contains more water than Q. P has a shinier surface than Q. P is surrounded by a vacuum and Q is surrounded by air. P is painted a darker colour than Q. 2 / 40 A C D B 3 / 40 Which statement about mass is correct? Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases Mass is a gravitational force. A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface. The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion 4 / 40 0.67 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.7 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.5 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.60 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 5 / 40 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object? 4.8 N 0.053 N 3.2 N 0.080 N 6 / 40 a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter a wire of greater length with the same diameter a wire of the same length with a larger diameter 7 / 40 An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct? A resultant force acts on the object in the direction it is travelling. A resultant force acts on the object towards the centre of the circle. A resultant force acts on the object outwards from the centre of the circle. There is no resultant force acting on the object because it is moving at constant speed. 8 / 40 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 9 / 40 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train? 3.0 m / s 5.0 m / s 50 m / s 60 m / s 10 / 40 A B D C 11 / 40 A B D C 12 / 40 B C A D 13 / 40 kinetic → gravitational potential → elastic (strain) kinetic → gravitational potential → chemical gravitational potential → kinetic → chemical gravitational potential → kinetic → elastic (strain) 14 / 40 C B D A 15 / 40 7 N to the right 1 N to the right 1 N to the left 7 N to the left 16 / 40 A D B C 17 / 40 A D C B 18 / 40 C D B A 19 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The lamps can be switched on and off separately. The current in each lamp is different. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on. The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. 20 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. 21 / 40 A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance. Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere? She has no other apparatus. either the measuring cylinder containing water or the balance the balance only neither the measuring cylinder nor the balance the measuring cylinder containing water only 22 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 2.0N 4.0N 6.0N 7.0N 23 / 40 B D C A 24 / 40 D B A C 25 / 40 A B C D 26 / 40 A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate? α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays α-particles only β-particles only γ-rays only 27 / 40 A C B D 28 / 40 D C A B 29 / 40 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection? 142º 76º 38º 52º 30 / 40 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred? a student dragging a big box over a rough floor a heavy load hanging from a strong bar a car skidding to a stop on a road a crane lifting a load 31 / 40 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force? 40 J 30 J 20 J 10 J 32 / 40 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays? Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. 33 / 40 C B D A 34 / 40 The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids? 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 35 / 40 C D B A 36 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? Radioactive decay is a random process. Radioactive materials have a half-life. γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum The radiation given out is ionising. 37 / 40 Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable? nuclear fission waves hydroelectric wind 38 / 40 out of the page towards the S pole towards the N pole into the page 39 / 40 A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself? 4000W 40W 40 000W 400W 40 / 40 C D A B NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90C. Both containers are the same size and both are sealed. The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q. Which statement is correct?
Which statement about mass is correct?
An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object increases to 6.0 m / s. What force is exerted on the object?
An object moves at constant speed around a circular path. Which statement is correct?
A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct?
A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance. Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere? She has no other apparatus.
A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F?
A beam of radiation, containing α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays, passes between two parallel plates. One plate is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. Which radioactive emissions will be attracted towards the positively charged plate?
Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection?
Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?
A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface. The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction between the box and the surface. How much work is done by the force?
Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays?
The list gives three properties of different states of matter. 1 They cannot be compressed significantly. 2 They can flow. 3 They always completely fill their container. Which properties are correct for liquids?
Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?
Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable?
A boy holds onto a bar and pulls himself up until his chin is level with the bar. He raises himself through 40 cm in 0.5 s. The weight of the boy is 500 N. What is the average power he produces as he raises himself?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F. The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N. The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s. What is the value of F? 4.0N 2.0N 7.0N 6.0N 2 / 40 The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element? They have different numbers of protons only. They have different numbers of neutrons only. They have different numbers of electrons. They have different numbers of protons and different numbers of neutrons 3 / 40 0.92 s 0.88 s 17.6 s 18.4 s 4 / 40 towards the N pole into the page towards the S pole out of the page 5 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum Radioactive materials have a half-life. Radioactive decay is a random process. The radiation given out is ionising. 6 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. 7 / 40 B D C A 8 / 40 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit? so that the current can have only one value to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs to save electrical energy to prevent the current becoming too large 9 / 40 Which statement correctly compares radio waves and X-rays? Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a shorter wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and the same speed in a vacuum. Radio waves have a longer wavelength and a greater speed in a vacuum. 10 / 40 A C B D 11 / 40 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass? The amplitude of the light changes. The speed of the light changes. The frequency of the light changes. The colour of the light changes. 12 / 40 C D A B 13 / 40 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor? E = IVt E = IRt E = IV E = IR 14 / 40 C A B D 15 / 40 Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable? wind hydroelectric waves nuclear fission 16 / 40 B D A C 17 / 40 B C D A 18 / 40 B C A D 19 / 40 A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance. Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere? She has no other apparatus. either the measuring cylinder containing water or the balance the measuring cylinder containing water only the balance only neither the measuring cylinder nor the balance 20 / 40 Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z. Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z. 21 / 40 Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object? changing the surface colour from white to black increasing the surface temperature changing the surface texture from dull to shiny increasing the surface area 22 / 40 A C B D 23 / 40 F × s F × q F × r F × t 24 / 40 P only R only Q and R P and Q 25 / 40 positive or uncharged positive only negative or uncharged negative only 26 / 40 A D B C 27 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. 28 / 40 the mug painted dull white the mug painted shiny white the mug painted dull black the mug painted shiny black 29 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. 30 / 40 Which quantity is equal to acceleration? area under a distance–time graph gradient of a speed–time graph gradient of a distance–time graph area under a speed–time graph 31 / 40 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred? a heavy load hanging from a strong bar a crane lifting a load a car skidding to a stop on a road a student dragging a big box over a rough floor 32 / 40 A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct? There are 20 nucleons in the nucleus. There are 6 protons in the nucleus. There are 6 electrons in the nucleus. There are 14 neutrons in the nucleus. 33 / 40 A C B D 34 / 40 P has a greater reading than R. P has a greater reading than Q P has a greater reading than T. P has a greater reading than S 35 / 40 D A B C 36 / 40 What is meant by the power of an engine? the maximum force that the engine can exert the maximum weight that the engine can lift the total energy that the engine transfers the energy that the engine transfers per unit time 37 / 40 B D A C 38 / 40 B A D C 39 / 40 B D A C 40 / 40 D C B A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes. What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?
What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?
There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the resistor is V. Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?
Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object?
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
Which quantity is equal to acceleration?
A nuclide has the symbol 146C. Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?
What is meant by the power of an engine?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 C A B D 2 / 40 A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed? ruler balance thermometer clock 3 / 40 An exothermic reaction takes place in the crucible. Heat causes the lead(II) bromide to react with air. Electrodes only conduct electricity when hot. The lead(II) bromide must be molten. 4 / 40 Which statement about enzymes is correct? Enzymes are not affected by changes in pH. Enzymes are not affected by changes in temperature. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Enzymes are made of glycerol. 5 / 40 Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series. What are the general properties of a homologous series? same general formula same melting point similar chemical properties 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 6 / 40 What is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum? X-rays sound waves gamma-radiation microwaves 7 / 40 Some examples of responses in the body are listed. 1 decreased pupil diameter 2 increased breathing rate 3 increased pulse rate Which responses are caused by the secretion of adrenaline? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 8 / 40 D B A C 9 / 40 A C D B 10 / 40 The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth. This stops when the food reaches the stomach. Why does this happen? The shape of the active site of the enzyme is altered by the low pH. The kinetic energy of molecules is reduced by acids. The shape of the substrate molecules is changed. The acid in the stomach slows down all reactions. 11 / 40 Which statement describes a molecule? It has a negative charge because it has gained electrons. It consists of two or more atoms bonded together. It has a positive charge because it has lost electrons. It consists of one nucleus surrounded by electrons. 12 / 40 A student has 50 identical sheets of paper. Which procedure is used to find the thickness of one sheet of paper? Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then divide by 50. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then add the thickness of 49 sheets. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then multiply by 50. Measure the thickness of 50 sheets and then multiply by the thickness of 49 sheets. 13 / 40 Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct? They react with water to form oxygen. They change from metallic to non-metallic down the group. They become more reactive down the group. They are hard solids. 14 / 40 protein and starch oil and reducing sugar oil and protein reducing sugar and starch 15 / 40 Which statement about asexual reproduction is correct? It produces genetically identical offspring from 2 parents. It produces genetically identical offspring from 1 parent. It produces genetically different offspring from 1 parent. It produces genetically different offspring from 2 parents. 16 / 40 A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase? removing the load lying flat on the ground wearing skis to stand on the ground lifting one foot off the ground 17 / 40 Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources? nuclear, solar, wind geothermal, nuclear, solar geothermal, solar, wind oil, geothermal, solar 18 / 40 A solid block has a mass of 1.5 kg and a volume of 0.30 m3. What is its density? 0.45 kg/ m3 1.8 kg/ m3 0.20 kg/ m3 5.0 kg/ m3 19 / 40 Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right? They change from gases to solids. They change from elements to compounds. They change from metals to non-metals. They change from non-metals to metals. 20 / 40 Which change shows the presence of water? Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns pink. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns pink. Cobalt(II) chloride paper turns blue. 21 / 40 What are enzymes made from? carbohydrates fats sugars proteins 22 / 40 A student applies a force to an object, causing the object to move in the same direction as the force. She measures the size of the force and the distance moved by the object. Which quantity can she now calculate? the acceleration of the object the work done on the object the speed of the object the power she produces 23 / 40 Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur? 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 Na2CO3 + ZnSO4 → Na2SO4 + ZnCO3 24 / 40 What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans? increased rate of breathing and increased pulse rate slower pulse rate and wider pupils slower pulse rate and narrower pupils increased rate of breathing and narrower pupils 25 / 40 A D C B 26 / 40 The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct? Zinc atoms give electrons to iron ions. Iron atoms have a greater tendency to form positive ions than zinc atoms. Zinc displaces iron because it is more reactive than iron. 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 27 / 40 What is the definition of diffusion? the movement of particles down a concentration gradient the downward movement of particles in the atmosphere the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient the movement of particles from a hotter to a cooler region 28 / 40 A B D C 29 / 40 A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water? convection radiation conduction evaporation 30 / 40 6.0A 2.0A 3.0A 0.50A 31 / 40 Which statement describes a saturated hydrocarbon gas but not any other gas? It contains carbon and hydrogen atoms only. It rapidly decolourises aqueous bromine. It burns completely to give carbon dioxide and water. It contains carbon and hydrogen atoms bonded by single covalent bonds only 32 / 40 A worker uses an electric drill continuously for 1.0 hour. The current in the drill is 5.0A when connected to the 250V mains. How much electrical energy is transferred by the drill? 4500 kJ 5400 kJ 1.25 kJ 180 kJ 33 / 40 A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time. When does he develop the greatest power? lifting a box of mass 20 kg in 4.0 s lifting a box of mass 20 kg in 3.0 s lifting a box of mass 30 kg in 3.0 s lifting a box of mass 30 kg in 4.0 s 34 / 40 D B A C 35 / 40 A C D B 36 / 40 A D C B 37 / 40 Two food chains are shown. wheat → vole → fox → tick grass → rabbit → fox → flea What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains? primary consumers producers secondary consumers tertiary consumers 38 / 40 C B D A 39 / 40 C A D B 40 / 40 C B D A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
A measuring cylinder is used to find the density of a liquid. Which other piece of apparatus is needed?
Which statement about enzymes is correct?
Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series. What are the general properties of a homologous series?
What is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum?
Some examples of responses in the body are listed. 1 decreased pupil diameter 2 increased breathing rate 3 increased pulse rate Which responses are caused by the secretion of adrenaline?
The enzyme salivary amylase starts digesting starchy foods in the mouth. This stops when the food reaches the stomach. Why does this happen?
Which statement describes a molecule?
A student has 50 identical sheets of paper. Which procedure is used to find the thickness of one sheet of paper?
Which statement about the elements in Group I of the Periodic Table is correct?
Which statement about asexual reproduction is correct?
A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground. Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase?
Which group of energy sources consists of only renewable sources?
A solid block has a mass of 1.5 kg and a volume of 0.30 m3. What is its density?
Which statement describes how the elements change across a period in the Periodic Table from left to right?
Which change shows the presence of water?
What are enzymes made from?
A student applies a force to an object, causing the object to move in the same direction as the force. She measures the size of the force and the distance moved by the object. Which quantity can she now calculate?
Which equation represents a reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur?
What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans?
The equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous iron(II) sulfate is shown. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) →ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) Which statements about this reaction are correct?
What is the definition of diffusion?
A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water?
Which statement describes a saturated hydrocarbon gas but not any other gas?
A worker uses an electric drill continuously for 1.0 hour. The current in the drill is 5.0A when connected to the 250V mains. How much electrical energy is transferred by the drill?
A man lifts four heavy boxes from the ground onto a high shelf, one at a time. When does he develop the greatest power?
Two food chains are shown. wheat → vole → fox → tick grass → rabbit → fox → flea What are the vole and rabbit classified as in these food chains?
