0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (9-1) (0985) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 $8550 $9450 $9050 $8150 2 / 35 $17 500 $8000 $11 000 $14 000 3 / 35 Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action where necessary? suppliers managers investors government 4 / 35 The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a year. Mark-up was 20%. What was the revenue for the year? $240 000 $200 000 $160 000 $250 000 5 / 35 What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business? wages of factory supervisors royalties raw material wages of factory supervisors 6 / 35 Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022? $660 $670 $600 $640 7 / 35 C D A B 8 / 35 Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct? It provides proof of the arithmetical accuracy of the purchases ledger It includes transactions relating to all the credit suppliers. It acts as a check on the balance of the purchases account. It is prepared using information from the books of prime entry. 9 / 35 B C A D 10 / 35 Why does a supplier offer trade discount? to encourage payment in cash to encourage bulk buying to avoid irrecoverable debts to reward prompt payment 11 / 35 Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month? credit purchases returns account debit purchases returns account credit sales returns account debit sales returns account 12 / 35 Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime? subscriptions retained earnings capital accumulated fund 13 / 35 A D C B 14 / 35 B C A D 15 / 35 Both companies earned the same amount of profit for the year. Company X had a better gross margin than Company Y. Company Y had a larger proportion of expenses than Company X. The cost of sales of Company X was lower than that of Company Y. 16 / 35 Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger? to speed production of financial statements to provide an instant total of trade receivables to locate errors to deter fraud 17 / 35 Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book? $2800 debit $2800 credit $2400 credit $2400 debit 18 / 35 $32 800 $29 200 $31 200 $32 000 19 / 35 C A D B 20 / 35 What does the objective of understandability assume users of financial statements will possess? a reasonable knowledge of accounting full knowledge of accounting knowledge of book-keeping but not accounting no knowledge of book-keeping or accounting 21 / 35 Which item would not appear in the appropriation account of a partnership? salaries paid to partners interest charged on partners’ drawings interest paid on partners’ capital interest paid on loans from partners 22 / 35 What is the purpose of preparing a partnership appropriation account? to calculate the interest to be charged on the drawings made by each partner to show the amount of salary to which each partner is entitled to calculate the interest to be paid on the capital invested by each partner to show the division of the profit or loss for the year between the partners 23 / 35 D B C A 24 / 35 Which item should be treated as capital expenditure? the cost of building an office extension the cost of repairing office equipment the annual depreciation on office premises the purchase of a new computer for resale 25 / 35 Raj and Seema are in partnership sharing profits and losses 2 : 1. Raj withdrew $5000 during the year and was charged interest at 3%. Seema did not make any withdrawals during the year. The profit for the year was $30 000. How much was credited to Raj’s current account at the end of the year? $19 850 $20 100 $19 900 $20 000 26 / 35 The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs? 3 and 4 2 and 3 1, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 5 27 / 35 Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum. What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2? $100 greater for G $500 greater for G $500 greater for H $100 greater for H 28 / 35 A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60. During the year ended 31 August 2021: 12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year 10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year. On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from 8 members. What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021? $5160 $6840 $6600 $5640 29 / 35 C A B D 30 / 35 What increases owner’s capital? purchase of inventory on credit transfer of vehicle to business from private use bank loan extended from five to ten years purchase of machinery by cheque 31 / 35 A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct? Shareholders would have to sell their personal possessions to pay the debts of the company Shareholders would lose the money that was paid when the shares were first purchased. Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the value of shares owned. Shareholders would have to pay a proportion of the debt based on the number of shares owned. 32 / 35 $870 debit $2070 debit $870 credit $2070 credit 33 / 35 Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying? going concern materiality prudence money measurement 34 / 35 $16 000 $6000 $26 000 $1000 35 / 35 Which items would be recorded in the general journal of a bakery? 1 correction of an error of principle relating to an oven repair 2 purchase of a delivery vehicle on credit 3 purchase of flour on credit 4 return by a customer of a faulty batch of bread 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (9-1) (0985) Question Count : 35
Duration :1 hours 15 minutes
Hello .
TIME UP!!! Try Again
Accounting (9-1) (0985)
35 Different Questions Every time
1 / 35
2 / 35
3 / 35
Which user of accounting statements is interested in past performance and taking remedial action where necessary?
4 / 35
The average inventory of a business was $40 000. The rate of inventory turnover was 5 times a year. Mark-up was 20%. What was the revenue for the year?
5 / 35
What is not part of the prime cost of a manufacturing business?
6 / 35
Nula’s financial year ends on 31 December. She maintains a provision for doubtful debts of 5% of trade receivables. On 1 January 2021, the provision amounted to $800. On 31 December 2021, trade receivables owed $13 400, of which $600 was regarded as irrecoverable. How much was the provision for doubtful debts on 1 January 2022?
7 / 35
8 / 35
Which statement about a purchases ledger control account is not correct?
9 / 35
10 / 35
Why does a supplier offer trade discount?
11 / 35
Alisha entered the credit notes she received in March in the correct returns journal. How was the total of this journal recorded in the ledger at the end of the month?
12 / 35
Which term is used to describe the surpluses which have been earned by a club over its lifetime?
13 / 35
14 / 35
15 / 35
16 / 35
Why is a sales ledger control account usually prepared by a different member of staff than the person who maintains the sales ledger?
17 / 35
Jack’s cash book showed an overdrawn balance at bank of $2600. Comparing the cash book with the bank statement, it was discovered that direct debits of $200 had not yet been recorded by Jack. He then updated his cash book. What was the bank balance in Jack’s updated cash book?
18 / 35
19 / 35
20 / 35
What does the objective of understandability assume users of financial statements will possess?
21 / 35
Which item would not appear in the appropriation account of a partnership?
22 / 35
What is the purpose of preparing a partnership appropriation account?
23 / 35
24 / 35
Which item should be treated as capital expenditure?
25 / 35
Raj and Seema are in partnership sharing profits and losses 2 : 1. Raj withdrew $5000 during the year and was charged interest at 3%. Seema did not make any withdrawals during the year. The profit for the year was $30 000. How much was credited to Raj’s current account at the end of the year?
26 / 35
The following costs were incurred by a clothing manufacturer. 1 purchase of fabric 2 purchase of buttons 3 repairs to sewing machine 4 wages of factory supervisors 5 wages of sewing machinists Which costs are indirect costs?
27 / 35
Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum. What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2?
28 / 35
A sports club has 100 members and the annual subscription is $60. During the year ended 31 August 2021: 12 members paid their outstanding subscription from the previous financial year 10 members paid their subscription in advance for the following financial year. On 31 August 2021, subscriptions for the current financial year were still outstanding from 8 members. What was the total amount received from members during the year ended 31 August 2021?
29 / 35
30 / 35
What increases owner’s capital?
31 / 35
A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to pay its debts. Which statement is correct?
32 / 35
33 / 35
Stephanie’s major competitor has invested in a new machine for making goods more cheaply. Stephanie knows this will affect her sales but did not record this in her accounting records. Which accounting principle is Stephanie applying?
34 / 35
35 / 35
Which items would be recorded in the general journal of a bakery? 1 correction of an error of principle relating to an oven repair 2 purchase of a delivery vehicle on credit 3 purchase of flour on credit 4 return by a customer of a faulty batch of bread
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0 votes, 0 avg 0 Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35 Duration :1 hours 15 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Accounting (0452) 35 Different Questions Every time 1 / 35 ‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently verified.’ To which accounting policy does this statement refer? reliability understandability comparability relevance 2 / 35 Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader? operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, working capital operating profit for the year, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital gross profit, non-current liabilities, owner’s capital gross profit, non-current liabilities, working capital 3 / 35 $650 credit $650 debit $1150 debit $1150 credit 4 / 35 D C B A 5 / 35 A standing order paid for rent has not been entered into the accounting records of a business. Which statement is correct? Because the payment was made automatically, only an entry in the rent account is required Because the payment was made automatically, no additional entries are required in the accounting records. Entries are required in the cash book and in the bank reconciliation statement. Entries are required in the cash book and in the nominal (general) ledger. 6 / 35 Rashida sells goods on credit and allows her customers a trade discount. Which statements are correct? 1 A debit entry is made in the customer’s account in the sales ledger for the net value of the goods sold. 2 The date of sale, name of the customer, cost price and trade discount are entered in the sales journal. 3 The trade discount is debited to the customer’s account and credited to the discount allowed account. 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 7 / 35 Which statement is correct? The book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts and the accountant prepares the financial statements. The accountant writes up the journals and the book-keeper writes up the ledger accounts The book-keeper writes up the journals and the accountant prepares the trial balance. The accountant prepares the trial balance and the book-keeper prepares the financial statements. 8 / 35 At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this? debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance debit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a credit balance credit $1500 in the rent account and carry down as a debit balance 9 / 35 A company’s financial year ended on 31 December 2019. On 1 December 2019 it paid rent, $8000, for the four months ending 31 March 2020. What was the opening balance on the rent account on 1 January 2020? $2000 credit $6000 debit $6000 credit $2000 debit 10 / 35 Javid’s sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $12000. Interest on an overdue account, $40, and discount allowed, $150, had been omitted. What was the correct balance on the sales ledger control account? $11 890 $11 810 $12 110 $12 190 11 / 35 A D B C 12 / 35 Which business document contains details of purchases, returns and payments occurring during a trading period? credit note statement of account debit note invoice 13 / 35 Two companies each purchased a motor vehicle for $10 000 at the beginning of year 1. Company G used the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of 15% per annum, while Company H used the reducing balance method at a rate of 20% per annum. What was the difference in the depreciation charge between the two companies for year 2? $500 greater for G $100 greater for G $500 greater for H $100 greater for H 14 / 35 Which statement is not true about a trial balance? It is useful in preparing financial statements. It is a list of ledger account balances at a certain date. It can assist in finding arithmetical errors. It is part of the double entry system. 15 / 35 C D A B 16 / 35 Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying. 3 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 2 17 / 35 Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen? $16.00 $19.20 $20.00 $15.36 18 / 35 Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied? prudence matching money measurement duality 19 / 35 Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020? $6000 $2000 $5000 $4000 20 / 35 C D B A 21 / 35 The totals of a trial balance failed to agree. The total of the credit column was $10 000. Two errors were later found. The sales journal had been overcast by $100. Goods sold to Sarah on credit for $200 had been incorrectly debited to Zara. What was the total of the debit column of the trial balance? $9700 $10 100 $9900 $10 300 22 / 35 $7500 $2200 $6000 $1000 23 / 35 $13 920 $14 890 $15 270 $17 270 24 / 35 $605 $623 $595 $613 25 / 35 D B A C 26 / 35 A B C D 27 / 35 What increases owner’s capital? purchase of inventory on credit bank loan extended from five to ten years transfer of vehicle to business from private use purchase of machinery by cheque 28 / 35 interest on capital limit on annual drawings interest on drawings partnership salaries 29 / 35 A payment has been received for a debt that had been written off. A credit customer has paid his account by the due date. A late payment has been received for a debt not yet written off. An irrecoverable debt has been written off. 30 / 35 decrease by $2000 decrease by $6000 increase by $2000 increase by $6000 31 / 35 Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a cash discount. Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a cash discount. Kalou paid Droghba by cheque after taking a trade discount. Droghba paid Kalou by cheque after taking a trade discount 32 / 35 Which change would cause an increase in the liquid (acid test) ratio? an increase in inventory an increase in the provision for doubtful debts a decrease in inventory a decrease in the provision for doubtful debts 33 / 35 On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December? $420 overstated $504 understated $336 overstated $84 understated 34 / 35 D A B C 35 / 35 B D C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Accounting (0452) Question Count : 35
Accounting (0452)
‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently verified.’ To which accounting policy does this statement refer?
Which information is required to calculate the return on capital employed for a sole trader?
A standing order paid for rent has not been entered into the accounting records of a business. Which statement is correct?
Rashida sells goods on credit and allows her customers a trade discount. Which statements are correct? 1 A debit entry is made in the customer’s account in the sales ledger for the net value of the goods sold. 2 The date of sale, name of the customer, cost price and trade discount are entered in the sales journal. 3 The trade discount is debited to the customer’s account and credited to the discount allowed account.
Which statement is correct?
At the end of the financial year Mui had prepaid rent of $1500. How should she record this?
A company’s financial year ended on 31 December 2019. On 1 December 2019 it paid rent, $8000, for the four months ending 31 March 2020. What was the opening balance on the rent account on 1 January 2020?
Javid’s sales ledger control account had a debit balance of $12000. Interest on an overdue account, $40, and discount allowed, $150, had been omitted. What was the correct balance on the sales ledger control account?
Which business document contains details of purchases, returns and payments occurring during a trading period?
Which statement is not true about a trial balance?
Which statements about trade discount are correct? 1 It is debited to the supplier’s account. 2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier. 3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice. 4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.
Hasina buys radios from Nazneen at a list price of $10 each. Hasina bought 12 radios and was offered 20% trade discount and 4% cash discount. Two radios were faulty and were returned to Nazneen. What was the total of the credit note issued by Nazneen?
Rashid’s financial year ends on 31 December. He paid rent on 1 February, 1 May, 1 August and 1 November. An adjustment was made in the income statement for rent prepaid. Which accounting principle was applied?
Mandeep depreciates his motor vehicles at the rate of 20% using the straight-line method. A full year’s depreciation is provided in the year of purchase. Mandeep bought a motor vehicle on 1 January 2017 for $20 000. On 1 June 2020 he bought a second motor vehicle for $10 000. What was the depreciation charge on motor vehicles for the year ended 31 December 2020?
The totals of a trial balance failed to agree. The total of the credit column was $10 000. Two errors were later found. The sales journal had been overcast by $100. Goods sold to Sarah on credit for $200 had been incorrectly debited to Zara. What was the total of the debit column of the trial balance?
Which change would cause an increase in the liquid (acid test) ratio?
On 1 January, Zac entered the cost of repairing equipment, $420, in the equipment account. On 31 December, depreciation of 20% per annum, using the straight-line method, was charged on the balance of the equipment account. What was the overall effect on the book value of the equipment on 31 December?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (0610) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (0610) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring? species genus kingdom population 2 / 40 What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation? cell → tissue → organ → organ system tissue → cell → organ → organ system organ → tissue → cell → organ system cell → organ → tissue → organ system 3 / 40 Human activities are changing the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere. Which activities will increase the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere? 1 burning fossil fuels 2 burning cut-down trees 3 fossilisation of cut-down trees 4 planting replacement trees 1 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 2 4 / 40 Which is an example of a transmissible disease? liver damage due to drinking alcohol cholera after drinking contaminated water coronary heart disease due to eating high fat food lung cancer due to inhaling tobacco smoke 5 / 40 The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 6 / 40 What is the site of gas exchange in humans? bronchus trachea alveoli nose 7 / 40 Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems? photosynthesis decomposition ingestion respiration 8 / 40 By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation? mitosis inheritance meiosis variation 9 / 40 The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Arius felis 2 Felis concolor 3 Felis rufus 4 Macropus rufus Which animals are in the same genus? 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 10 / 40 All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells. What is the name of this characteristic? respiration nutrition sensitivity growth 11 / 40 Y and Z Z and W X and Y W and X 12 / 40 Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering? 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 13 / 40 kelp the Sun green sea urchins the sea 14 / 40 A B D C 15 / 40 A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak that was adapted to extract small insects from the water. Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak? genetic engineering fossilisation natural selection selective breeding 16 / 40 Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body? phagocytosis antibody production vaccination mucus 17 / 40 excretion, nutrition and sensitivity excretion, movement and nutrition movement, reproduction and sensitivity movement, nutrition and sensitivity 18 / 40 A chromosome was analysed and found to have 6125 pairs of bases. The type of each base was identified and 2345 of the bases were G. How many of the bases in this chromosome are T? 3780 6125 7560 1435 19 / 40 In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place? mouth duodenum colon oesophagus 20 / 40 What is an example of passive immunity? vaccination against measles where a harmless version of the virus is given giving chickenpox antibodies to people at risk of developing a severe infection immunity against influenza after an individual has been infected with the influenza virus the formation of memory cells in response to a cholera infection 21 / 40 An animal can swim, has a backbone and produces milk. To which group does it belong? mammals fish reptiles amphibians 22 / 40 Asexual reproduction can be used to produce crops. Why might a disease be likely to spread throughout the whole crop? crop plants are genetically identical crop plants are genetically different offspring are produced quickly many offspring are produced 23 / 40 Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes? 1 and 4 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 2 24 / 40 Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes? stomata present on the lower surface only contain large air spaces thick cuticle present on the upper and lower surfaces hairs present on the upper and lower surfaces 25 / 40 What is an adaptive feature of an organism? any feature that shows discontinuous variation any feature that is not changed by the environment any inherited feature that an organism has any inherited feature that helps an organism to survive and reproduce 26 / 40 What is a diploid nucleus? a nucleus with two genes a nucleus containing one set of chromosomes a nucleus containing two sets of chromosomes a nucleus with one double helix of DNA 27 / 40 The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity? stomach and mouth colon and duodenum colon and stomach mouth and duodenum 28 / 40 reproduction, sensitivity and growth nutrition, reproduction and respiration excretion, growth and movement movement, nutrition and sensitivity 29 / 40 Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism? All parts of a plant grow away from light. Plant roots grow towards light. All parts of a plant grow towards light. Plant shoots grow towards light. 30 / 40 A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to? kingdom and species genus and species kingdom and genus variety and genus 31 / 40 What is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma called? meiosis pollination respiration fertilisation 32 / 40 Which term describes the removal of the nitrogen-containing part of amino acids to form urea? digestion deamination assimilation denaturation 33 / 40 B D C A 34 / 40 chloroplast nucleus mitochondrion plasmid 35 / 40 What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs? It halves It stays the same. It halves and then halves again. It doubles 36 / 40 Why are people advised not to drive a car after drinking an excessive quantity of alcohol? Alcohol is a stimulant. Alcohol is a depressant. Alcohol is addictive. Alcohol decreases reaction time 37 / 40 Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins. Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins? cell wall rough endoplasmic reticulum nucleus plasmid 38 / 40 What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome? mRNA only mRNA and amino acids DNA only DNA and amino acids 39 / 40 What is an angioplasty? an operation to insert a new vessel that diverts blood around a narrowed section the insertion of a tube into a blood vessel to allow blood to flow more freely a recording of the heart’s electrical activity to check for abnormalities the widening of a blood vessel by means of a balloon-like device 40 / 40 Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet? starvation obesity scurvy constipation NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (0610) Question Count : 40
Duration :45 minutes
Biology (0610)
40 Different Questions Every time
1 / 40
Which term means a group of organisms that can reproduce to produce fertile offspring?
2 / 40
What is the correct order to describe an increasing level of organisation?
3 / 40
Human activities are changing the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere. Which activities will increase the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere? 1 burning fossil fuels 2 burning cut-down trees 3 fossilisation of cut-down trees 4 planting replacement trees
4 / 40
Which is an example of a transmissible disease?
5 / 40
The list shows activities that happen in a forest. 1) cutting down only selected trees 2) educating people about forests 3) replanting trees 4) cutting down trees to grow crop plants Which activities are likely to ensure the forest is used sustainably?
6 / 40
What is the site of gas exchange in humans?
7 / 40
Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems?
8 / 40
By which process is genetic information transmitted from generation to generation?
9 / 40
The scientific names of some animals are listed. 1 Arius felis 2 Felis concolor 3 Felis rufus 4 Macropus rufus Which animals are in the same genus?
10 / 40
All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.
What is the name of this characteristic?
11 / 40
12 / 40
Some statements about bacteria are listed. 1) They contain plasmids. 2) They can make complex molecules. 3) They have a rapid reproduction rate. 4) They contain many chromosomes. 5) They do not share their genetic code with all other organisms. Which statements are reasons why bacteria are used in biotechnology and genetic engineering?
13 / 40
14 / 40
15 / 40
A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak that was adapted to extract small insects from the water. Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak?
16 / 40
Which defence prevents pathogens from entering the body?
17 / 40
18 / 40
A chromosome was analysed and found to have 6125 pairs of bases. The type of each base was identified and 2345 of the bases were G. How many of the bases in this chromosome are T?
19 / 40
In which part of the alimentary canal do both chemical digestion and mechanical digestion take place?
20 / 40
What is an example of passive immunity?
21 / 40
An animal can swim, has a backbone and produces milk. To which group does it belong?
22 / 40
Asexual reproduction can be used to produce crops. Why might a disease be likely to spread throughout the whole crop?
23 / 40
Some features of plants are listed. 1 large air spaces inside the leaves 2 stomata on the upper surface of the leaves 3 large root system 4 thick cuticle Which features are found in hydrophytes?
24 / 40
Which adaptation is shown in the leaves of hydrophytes?
25 / 40
What is an adaptive feature of an organism?
26 / 40
What is a diploid nucleus?
27 / 40
The activity of amylase is measured in four parts of the alimentary canal. Which two parts have the most amylase activity?
28 / 40
29 / 40
Which statement describes the plant response known as phototropism?
30 / 40
A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus. What do the two parts of this name refer to?
31 / 40
What is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma called?
32 / 40
Which term describes the removal of the nitrogen-containing part of amino acids to form urea?
33 / 40
34 / 40
35 / 40
What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs?
36 / 40
Why are people advised not to drive a car after drinking an excessive quantity of alcohol?
37 / 40
Genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce human proteins. Into which component of the bacterial cell is human DNA inserted to produce human proteins?
38 / 40
What is needed in the cytoplasm to make proteins at a ribosome?
39 / 40
What is an angioplasty?
40 / 40
Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Biology (9-1) (0970) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 What is a characteristic of all living organisms? circulation egestion sensitivity breathing 2 / 40 Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering? restriction enzyme trypsin DNA ligase lipase 3 / 40 The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct? The pancreas responds to a fall in blood glucose by increasing the release of the hormone glucagon. The liver releases the hormone insulin when blood glucose levels are too high. The liver converts the small molecule glucose to the large molecule glucagon. The pancreas does not respond to an increase in blood glucose levels. 4 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? blood clotting phagocytosis antibody formation oxygen transport 5 / 40 Which tissues are found in vascular bundles? palisade mesophyll and phloem palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll phloem and xylem spongy mesophyll and xylem 6 / 40 Which is the correct definition of a drug? a substance that affects or modifies chemical reactions in the body a substance that can kill bacteria a substance that can have negative social implications a substance that can affect reaction times and self-control 7 / 40 A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen? Water left the plant tissue by osmosis. Water entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt entered the plant tissue by active transport. Salt left the plant tissue by osmosis. 8 / 40 oxygen water vapour air carbon dioxide 9 / 40 In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous? 100% white 25% black, 75% white 50% black, 50% white 100% black 10 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? phagocytosis blood clotting oxygen transport antibody formation 11 / 40 Wheat is often grown in large areas as a monoculture. What is a negative environmental impact of this method of farming? The variety of species in the area is reduced. Fewer types of pesticide are needed. Specialist machinery can be used. Larger harvests can be produced. 12 / 40 Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets? phagocytosis antibody formation blood clotting oxygen transport 13 / 40 Which statement applies to respiration? It involves enzymes. Energy is absorbed. It only takes place in animal cells Oxygen is released. 14 / 40 Changes occur in a boy’s body at puberty; his height increases, more muscle develops and body hair grows. Which hormone stimulates these changes? testosterone insulin oestrogen adrenaline 15 / 40 What is a function of the lymphatic system? circulation of body fluids temperature regulation absorption of glucose blood clotting 16 / 40 What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’? community trophic level habitat environment 17 / 40 What type of cell must an organ contain to detect a stimulus? skin blood receptor xylem 18 / 40 Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant? root hair cells → xylem → root cortex cells → mesophyll cells → stomata root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells root hair cells → root cortex cells → xylem → mesophyll cells → stomata root cortex cells → root hair cells → xylem → stomata → mesophyll cells 19 / 40 Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion? from higher to lower concentration against a concentration gradient from higher to lower concentration down a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration against a concentration gradient from lower to higher concentration down a concentration gradient 20 / 40 Transpiration is faster than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become turgid. Transpiration is slower than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become turgid. Transpiration is faster than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become flaccid. Transpiration is slower than water uptake by root hairs so cells have become flaccid. 21 / 40 1, 2, 6 and 7 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 5 and 6 22 / 40 A student exercised for three minutes. Before exercise, her breathing rate was 15 breaths per minute. During exercise, her breathing rate was 45 breaths per minute. What is the percentage increase in her breathing rate? 33% 300% 200% 67% 23 / 40 glucose starch protein lipid 24 / 40 Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish? gills → heart → body → gills body → gills → heart → body heart → body → gills → body heart → gills → body → heart 25 / 40 excretion, movement and nutrition movement, reproduction and sensitivity movement, nutrition and sensitivity excretion, nutrition and sensitivity 26 / 40 ×0.45 ×495 ×2.2 ×48 27 / 40 C B A D 28 / 40 During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery? Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles Anaerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the liver. Aerobic respiration breaks down lactic acid in the muscles 29 / 40 Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this? The disorder is sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals are not affected by the disorder. The disorder is caused by a dominant allele. Heterozygous individuals are more resistant to malaria. 30 / 40 Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only? starch, fats and oils fats, cellulose and proteins proteins, oils and glycogen cellulose, glycogen and starch 31 / 40 B C D A 32 / 40 A B D C 33 / 40 Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy? iron vitamin D calcium vitamin C 34 / 40 Which type of molecule are enzymes made of? carbohydrates proteins fats vitamins 35 / 40 What are leaves examples of? organ systems cells organs tissues 36 / 40 two cell walls one cell membrane one cell wall two cell membranes 37 / 40 Which process in the water cycle only involves living organisms? transpiration condensation precipitation evaporation 38 / 40 What happens during respiration in germinating seeds? Glucose is used up by the seeds. Carbon dioxide is taken up by the seeds. Oxygen is given out by the seeds. Seed temperature decreases 39 / 40 Which structure contains relay neurones? synapse muscle gland spinal cord 40 / 40 Which statements about auxin are correct? 1 Auxin is made in all cells in plants. 2 Auxin causes cells to elongate. 3 Auxin moves between the cells by osmosis. 4 Auxin is unequally distributed. 1 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Biology (9-1) (0970) Question Count : 40
Biology (9-1) (0970)
What is a characteristic of all living organisms?
Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering?
The liver and the pancreas work together to control the concentration of glucose in the blood. Which statement is correct?
Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?
Which tissues are found in vascular bundles?
Which is the correct definition of a drug?
A cylinder of potato tissue was placed in a beaker of very salty water. After one hour the mass of the potato cylinder had decreased. Why did this happen?
In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive. A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig. What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?
Wheat is often grown in large areas as a monoculture. What is a negative environmental impact of this method of farming?
Which statement applies to respiration?
Changes occur in a boy’s body at puberty; his height increases, more muscle develops and body hair grows. Which hormone stimulates these changes?
What is a function of the lymphatic system?
What is defined as ‘all of the populations of different species in an ecosystem’?
What type of cell must an organ contain to detect a stimulus?
Which sequence describes the pathway of water as it moves from the soil, through a plant?
Which statement describes the net movement of particles during diffusion?
A student exercised for three minutes. Before exercise, her breathing rate was 15 breaths per minute. During exercise, her breathing rate was 45 breaths per minute. What is the percentage increase in her breathing rate?
Which pathway is taken by blood in a fish?
During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt. Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery?
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder which results in severe illness in homozygous individuals. In some human populations, being heterozygous can be beneficial. What could be the reason for this?
Which substances are made by linking together glucose molecules only?
Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy?
Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?
What are leaves examples of?
Which process in the water cycle only involves living organisms?
What happens during respiration in germinating seeds?
Which structure contains relay neurones?
Which statements about auxin are correct?
1 Auxin is made in all cells in plants. 2 Auxin causes cells to elongate. 3 Auxin moves between the cells by osmosis. 4 Auxin is unequally distributed.
3 votes, 5 avg 0 IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Carbon is an element which exists in different forms. Chose two forms of the element carbon that have giant covalent structures. glass graphite diamond 2 / 40 Which is a typical property of transition elements? low melting point poor electrical conductivity low density can act as catalysts 3 / 40 The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms a binary compound with hydrogen that is a strong acid. Check 4 / 40 Overhead power cables made from (steel-cored) aluminium are used to carry electricity over long distances. Which property of (steel-cored) aluminium makes it suitable for use in power cables? Steel is a good conductor of heat. Aluminium has low strength. Steel is resistant to corrosion Aluminium has a low density 5 / 40 D B C A 6 / 40 Which statement describes a weak acid? It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution. It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution. It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution. It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution 7 / 40 Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water? 25 cm3 pipette 50 cm3 measuring cylinder 50 cm3 burette 25 cm3 beaker 8 / 40 Check 9 / 40 Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser? potassium carbonate and ammonium nitrate ammonium phosphate and potassium chloride potassium nitrate and ammonium chloride ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate 10 / 40 Why is ethanol a member of the homologous series of alcohols but propane is not? Ethanol is a liquid but propane is a gas. Ethanol contains the same functional group as other alcohols but propane does not. Ethanol has two carbon atoms per molecule but propane has three. Ethanol can be made from ethene but propane is obtained from petroleum 11 / 40 Four substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes the electrode products? substance(concentrated aqueous sodium chloride), anode product (hydrogen), cathode product (chlorine) substance(concentrated hydrochloric acid ), anode product (chlorine), cathode product (oxygen) substance(dilute sulfuric acid ), anode product (oxygen), cathode product (hydrogen) substance(molten lead bromide), anode product (lead), cathode product (bromine) 12 / 40 C D A B 13 / 40 A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z? calcium carbonate calcium calcium hydroxide calcium oxide 14 / 40 magnesium< nickel < iron < tungsten tungsten < nickel < iron < magnesium tungsten <iron< nickel < magnesium tungsten > nickel > iron > magnesium 15 / 40 Ammonia is used in the manufacture of nitric acid. Balance the chemical equation for the first step in the process. 4NH3 + 5O2 → ……….NO + 6H2O 8 (NO) 6 (NO) 2 (NO) 4 (NO) 16 / 40 Which statement about homologous series is not correct? The alkanes are an example of a homologous series. Members of a homologous series have similar chemical properties. Members of a homologous series have the same functional group. All homologous series are hydrocarbons. 17 / 40 Give the name of the process that is used:to separate nitrogen from liquid air Check 18 / 40 2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M? 128 96 48 192 19 / 40 Which statement about aqueous sodium hydroxide is correct? When it is added to a solution of iron(II) ions, a green precipitate is formed which does not dissolve in excess. When it is added to a solution of copper(II) ions, a blue precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess to give deep blue solution. When it is added to ammonium chloride, a gas is produced which turns blue litmus red. When it is added to a solution containing sulfate ions, a white precipitate is formed. 20 / 40 Which element forms ions with a charge of 2+ containing 10 electrons Check 21 / 40 The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of the element with the mass of one atom of element Q. What is Q? carbon hydrogen oxygen chlorine 22 / 40 What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed? Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– Pb → Pb2+ + 2e– Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb 2Br– → Br2 + 2e– 23 / 40 State the empirical formula of the polymer. Check 24 / 40 Which statement about elements in Group I and Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct? Iodine is a monoatomic non-metal. Lithium has a higher melting point than potassium. Sodium is more reactive with water than potassium Bromine reacts with potassium chloride to produce chlorine 25 / 40 Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly. Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only. The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner. What is metal Q? zinc copper calcium sodium 26 / 40 Phosphine, PH3, has a similar chemical structure to ammonia, NH3. Ammonia acts as a base when it reacts with sulfuric acid. What is meant by the term base? Above All proton H+ hydrogen ion acceptor 27 / 40 Rock salt is a mixture of sand and sodium chloride. Sodium chloride is soluble in water but not in hexane. Sand is insoluble in both water and hexane. What is required to separate the sand from the sodium chloride? 1 filter paper 2 fractionating column 3 hexane 4 water 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 4 28 / 40 Which method of separation is used to separate a soluble solid from its solution? filtration condensation crystallisation chromatography 29 / 40 Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI 2 1 -1 1+ 30 / 40 Which statement about an alloy is correct? It is a single element. It is a compound made of two or more elements, one of which is a metal It is a layer of a metal plated onto another metal It is a mixture of a metal with other elements. 31 / 40 Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change. Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the dissolving of ammonium chloride? energy change (energy is absorbed) – temperature change (increase) energy change (energy is released) – temperature change (increase) energy change (energy is released) – temperature change (decrease) energy change (energy is absorbed) – temperature change (decrease) 32 / 40 Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid. Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt Check 33 / 40 Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X? hydrated copper(II) sulfate calcium carbonate lead(II) bromide anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride 34 / 40 Which reactions are exothermic? 1) C + O2 → CO2 2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 3) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 35 / 40 Which reaction is reversible? limestone reacting with an acid to form carbon dioxide gas white anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turning blue when water is added an iron nail rusting when left in moist air magnesium burning in air to produce a white ash 36 / 40 Check 37 / 40 Which property of sulfur dioxide explains why it is used as a food preservative? kills bacteria acidic oxide bleach pungent smell 38 / 40 Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene). Which one of the following words describes the ethene molecules in this reaction? Which is the correct answer. elements mixtures monomers polymers mixtures polymers elements monomers 39 / 40 Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct? It is used in the manufacture of cement. It is used as a bleach in the manufacture of paper. It is used as a food preservative. It is used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid. 40 / 40 Which statement about metals is correct? Metals are malleable because the bonds between the atoms are weak. Metals conduct electricity when solid because positive ions are free to move. Metals conduct electricity when molten because negative ions are free to move. Metals are malleable because the layers of ions can slide over each other NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1) Question Count : 40
IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Carbon is an element which exists in different forms. Chose two forms of the element carbon that have giant covalent structures.
Which is a typical property of transition elements?
The symbols of the elements of Period 3 of the Periodic Table are shown. Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar Write the symbol of an element which: forms a binary compound with hydrogen that is a strong acid.
Overhead power cables made from (steel-cored) aluminium are used to carry electricity over long distances. Which property of (steel-cored) aluminium makes it suitable for use in power cables?
Which statement describes a weak acid?
Which piece of apparatus should be used to measure exactly 21.4 cm3 of water?
Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical fertiliser?
Why is ethanol a member of the homologous series of alcohols but propane is not?
Four substances are electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which row describes the electrode products?
A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas. The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly. What is Z?
Ammonia is used in the manufacture of nitric acid. Balance the chemical equation for the first step in the process. 4NH3 + 5O2 → ……….NO + 6H2O
Which statement about homologous series is not correct?
Give the name of the process that is used:to separate nitrogen from liquid air
2.56 g of a metal oxide, MO2, is reduced to 1.92 g of the metal, M. What is the relative atomic mass of M?
Which statement about aqueous sodium hydroxide is correct?
Which element forms ions with a charge of 2+ containing 10 electrons
The relative atomic mass, Ar, of an element is determined by comparing the mass of one atom of the element with the mass of one atom of element Q. What is Q?
What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?
State the empirical formula of the polymer.
Which statement about elements in Group I and Group VII of the Periodic Table is correct?
Some metal nitrates and carbonates decompose when heated strongly. Metal Q has a nitrate that decomposes to give a salt and a colourless gas only. The carbonate of metal Q does not decompose when heated with a Bunsen burner. What is metal Q?
Phosphine, PH3, has a similar chemical structure to ammonia, NH3. Ammonia acts as a base when it reacts with sulfuric acid. What is meant by the term base?
Rock salt is a mixture of sand and sodium chloride. Sodium chloride is soluble in water but not in hexane. Sand is insoluble in both water and hexane. What is required to separate the sand from the sodium chloride? 1 filter paper 2 fractionating column 3 hexane 4 water
Which method of separation is used to separate a soluble solid from its solution?
Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI
Which statement about an alloy is correct?
Dissolving ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic change. Which row shows the energy change and temperature change of the mixture during the dissolving of ammonium chloride?
Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid. Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt
Solid X is heated strongly. The colour of the solid changes from blue to white. What is solid X?
Which reactions are exothermic? 1) C + O2 → CO2 2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 3) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Which reaction is reversible?
Which property of sulfur dioxide explains why it is used as a food preservative?
Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene).
Which one of the following words describes the ethene molecules in this reaction? Which is the correct answer. elements mixtures monomers polymers
Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct?
Which statement about metals is correct?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Chemistry (0620) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Which statement about endothermic and exothermic reactions is correct? In an endothermic reaction, the activation energy is always higher than in an exothermic reaction. In an exothermic reaction, more energy is absorbed in bond breaking than is released in bond forming. In an endothermic reaction, less energy is absorbed in bond breaking than is released in bond forming. In an exothermic reaction, the reactants are higher on an energy level diagram than the products. 2 / 40 An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture? filtration → crystallisation → evaporation filtration → evaporation → crystallisation crystallisation → evaporation → filtration evaporation → crystallisation → filtration 3 / 40 Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide? nylon protein Terylene poly(ethene) 4 / 40 What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane? 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O CH4 + 4O2 → CO2 + 2H2O C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O 5 / 40 Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile. 1 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 6 / 40 Which type of reaction occurs when calcium oxide is formed from calcium carbonate? neutralisation thermal decomposition combustion addition 7 / 40 Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L? ethanol ethanoic acid hexane hexene 8 / 40 Which monomer molecules are used to make poly(ethene)? C4H8 C3H6 C2H6 C2H4 9 / 40 Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile. 1 and 2 3 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 10 / 40 Which property of sulfur dioxide explains why it is used as a food preservative? kills bacteria acidic oxide bleach pungent smell 11 / 40 Some properties of metal J are listed. ● J does not react with cold water. ● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. ● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon. What is J? magnesium copper sodium iron 12 / 40 Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct? Caesium atoms gain electrons to form negatively charged caesium ions. Sodium ions have an equal number of protons and electrons. Potassium ions and chloride ions have the same number of outer-shell electrons. Ionic bonding involves sharing of pairs of electrons. 13 / 40 Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion? Aluminium has a protective oxide layer Aluminium does not form ions easily. Aluminium is below iron in the reactivity series. Aluminium does not react with water or air. 14 / 40 The surface of magnesium ribbon reacts with the air to form magnesium oxide. Which statement explains why the layer of magnesium oxide is removed by dilute hydrochloric acid? Magnesium oxide is a base. Magnesium is a base. Magnesium ribbon reacts with hydrochloric acid. Magnesium oxide is an acid 15 / 40 The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon monoxide is shown. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) What is the maximum mass of iron that can be made from 480 g of iron(III) oxide? 336 g 56 g 168 g 112 g 16 / 40 Which process converts glucose into ethanol? cracking catalytic addition of steam fermentation thermal decomposition 17 / 40 The nucleus of a particular atom consists of nineteen particles. Nine of them are positively charged and ten of them are uncharged. Which statement about this nucleus is correct? The nucleus has a nucleon number of nine. The nucleus has a proton number of ten. The nucleus has a proton number of nine. The nucleus has a nucleon number of ten. 18 / 40 Which statement describes a polymer? It is a small molecule formed by splitting up a larger molecule. It is a large molecule made from joining many monomer molecules together. It is a covalent molecule obtained by fractional distillation. It is a large covalent molecule obtained by cracking. 19 / 40 Which statement explains why galvanising prevents iron from rusting? Zinc is more reactive than iron and corrodes in preference to iron. Zinc is less reactive than iron and loses electrons more easily than iron. Zinc is less reactive than iron and corrodes in preference to iron. Zinc is more reactive than iron and loses electrons less easily than iron. 20 / 40 A fuel cell is used to generate electricity. Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell? nitrogen and oxygen hydrogen and methane nitrogen and methane hydrogen and oxygen 21 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 1 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 22 / 40 Which substance is a natural polymer? ethene nylon protein Terylene 23 / 40 Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide as shown. CO2 + C → 2CO Which statement about this reaction is correct? Carbon dioxide and carbon are both oxidised. Carbon dioxide and carbon are both reduced. Carbon dioxide is reduced and carbon is oxidised. Carbon dioxide is oxidised and carbon is reduced. 24 / 40 Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation 2 and 3 1 and 4 1 and 2 3 and 4 25 / 40 Which gas has the fastest rate of diffusion? CH4 H2 CO2 SO2 26 / 40 Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide They are brittle, with a low melting point, and are insoluble in water. They are malleable, with a high melting point, and are electrical conductors. They are hard, with a high melting point, and are electrical insulators. They are soft, with a low melting point, and are electrical insulators. 27 / 40 Which statement describes a transition element? It is a very poor conductor of electricity. It has a low density and a piece of it will float on water. It forms white compounds with sulfur, oxygen, chlorine and bromine. It can act as a catalyst and some of its compounds can also act as catalysts. 28 / 40 Which statement about the reactivity of metals is correct? Potassium reacts with cold water. Copper reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. Iron is more reactive than magnesium. Calcium oxide is reduced more easily than iron oxide. 29 / 40 An isotope of chromium is represented by 5224Cr. Which statement about an atom of this isotope of chromium is correct? It contains 28 protons. It contains 24 electrons. It contains 24 neutrons It contains 52 neutrons. 30 / 40 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct? 1, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 31 / 40 Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements? KNO3 and (NH4)3PO4 Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)3PO4 Ca(NO3)2 and (NH4)2SO4 KNO3 and (NH4)2SO4 32 / 40 The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3. 1 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 33 / 40 Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation? iron yeast platinum phosphoric acid 34 / 40 A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1. X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2. Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1. Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3? evaporation of liquid X sublimation of solid X boiling of liquid X condensation of gaseous X 35 / 40 A compound has the formula XF2 and has a relative mass of 70. What is element X? sulfur ytterbium germanium gallium 36 / 40 Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group. 3 only 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 37 / 40 Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct? It damages stone buildings. It is formed during the incomplete combustion of natural gas. It is a pollutant which causes acid rain. It is produced during the decomposition of vegetation. 38 / 40 Which statements about the thermal decomposition of copper(II) nitrate are correct? 1 A brown gas is given off. 2 A gas which relights a glowing splint is given off. 3 The solid residue is an acidic oxide 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 only 1 and 3 39 / 40 Which polymers are constituents of food? 1 carbohydrate 2 nylon 3 Terylene 4 protein 3 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 2 2 and 3 40 / 40 What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1? It gains a proton. It loses an electron. It loses a proton. It gains an electron. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Chemistry (0620) Question Count : 40
Chemistry (0620)
Which statement about endothermic and exothermic reactions is correct?
An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base. A soluble salt is formed. How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?
Which polymer is a synthetic polyamide?
What is the equation for the complete combustion of methane?
Caesium fluoride is an ionic compound. Which statements about caesium fluoride are correct? 1 It conducts electricity when solid. 2 It has a high melting point. 3 It is soluble in water. 4 It is highly volatile.
Which type of reaction occurs when calcium oxide is formed from calcium carbonate?
Some properties of colourless liquid L are listed. ● It boils at 65C. ● When added to water, two layers form which do not mix. ● It does not react with sodium carbonate. ● It has no effect on bromine water. What is L?
Which monomer molecules are used to make poly(ethene)?
Some properties of metal J are listed. ● J does not react with cold water. ● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. ● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon. What is J?
Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct?
Aluminium objects do not need protection from corrosion. Iron objects must be protected from corrosion. Which statement explains why aluminium resists corrosion?
The surface of magnesium ribbon reacts with the air to form magnesium oxide. Which statement explains why the layer of magnesium oxide is removed by dilute hydrochloric acid?
The equation for the reaction of iron(III) oxide with carbon monoxide is shown. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) What is the maximum mass of iron that can be made from 480 g of iron(III) oxide?
Which process converts glucose into ethanol?
The nucleus of a particular atom consists of nineteen particles. Nine of them are positively charged and ten of them are uncharged. Which statement about this nucleus is correct?
Which statement describes a polymer?
Which statement explains why galvanising prevents iron from rusting?
A fuel cell is used to generate electricity. Which chemicals are used in a fuel cell?
Copper(II) sulfate is prepared by adding excess copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Which purification methods are used to obtain pure solid copper(II) sulfate from the reaction mixture? 1) crystallisation 2) filtration 3) chromatography 4) distillation
Which substance is a natural polymer?
Carbon reacts with carbon dioxide as shown. CO2 + C → 2CO Which statement about this reaction is correct?
Which gas has the fastest rate of diffusion?
Which statement describes the properties of both diamond and silicon(IV) oxide
Which statement describes a transition element?
Which statement about the reactivity of metals is correct?
An isotope of chromium is represented by 5224Cr. Which statement about an atom of this isotope of chromium is correct?
Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown. 1 The activation energy becomes lower. 2 The particles move faster. 3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second. 4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy. Which statements are correct?
Fertilisers are used to provide three of the elements needed for plant growth. Which two compounds would give a fertiliser containing all three of these elements?
The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1. Which statements about Z are correct? 1 It is a metal. 2 It has two outer-shell electrons. 3 It is in Period 3.
Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation?
A 1 cm3 sample of substance X is taken. This is sample 1. X is then converted to a different physical state and a 1 cm3 sample is taken. This is sample 2. Sample 2 contains more particles in the 1 cm3 than sample 1. Which process caused this increase in the number of particles in 1 cm3?
A compound has the formula XF2 and has a relative mass of 70. What is element X?
Ethene and propene are both members of the same homologous series. Which statements explain why ethene and propene have similar chemical properties? 1 They are both hydrocarbons. 2 They are both made by cracking. 3 They have the same functional group.
Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct?
Which statements about the thermal decomposition of copper(II) nitrate are correct? 1 A brown gas is given off. 2 A gas which relights a glowing splint is given off. 3 The solid residue is an acidic oxide
Which polymers are constituents of food? 1 carbohydrate 2 nylon 3 Terylene 4 protein
What happens to an atom when it becomes an ion with a charge of +1?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (9-1) (0987) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation? an increase in income tax rates an increase in government spending an increase in sales tax an increase in imports 2 / 30 What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker? the opportunity to undertake training higher quality of the good a low price of the product that they make boredom due to repetition of the same task 3 / 30 D A C B 4 / 30 What describes frictional unemployment? unemployment caused by a general fall in economic activity unemployment caused by the time of year unemployment caused by wages being too high unemployment caused by workers searching for jobs 5 / 30 The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform? producing goods in public corporations employing workers to collect taxes distributing dividends from profits of state-owned enterprises investing in transport infrastructure projects 6 / 30 What must result from an increase in output? an increase in the fixed costs a decrease in the total costs an increase in the variable costs a decrease in the average cost 7 / 30 What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production? the market structure of the production process the size of the firm that uses the production process the output that the production process creates the resources on which the production relies 8 / 30 Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies? reducing taxes to provide incentives to work encouraging the modernisation of factories offering retraining to unemployed workers replacing government enterprises with private enterprises 9 / 30 What is a cause of demand-pull inflation? higher government expenditure lower net exports a surplus of skilled labour higher tax rates 10 / 30 The US imposed tariffs on cars and motorcycles from Germany. What is the effect of these tariffs? decrease in inflation in the US increase in profits of car and motorcycle producers from Germany decrease in trade between the US and Germany increase in standards of living in the US and in Germany 11 / 30 WY XZ XY WX 12 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? an increase in the real purchasing power of money an increase in the exchange rate a fall in the real value of debts an increase in the rate of interest 13 / 30 What is an immediate effect for a country of a fall in its foreign exchange rate? more competitive exports cheaper imports an increase in purchasing power a fall in the money supply 14 / 30 Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this? Incomes earned from trading decline. The production possibility of an economy expands. The average cost of production decreases. Incomes earned from trading decline. 15 / 30 What is a macroeconomic aim of a government? deflation balance of payments stability income inequality unemployment 16 / 30 B A D C 17 / 30 What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)? an increase in the labour force a reduction in expenditure on education a fall in unemployment an increase in the rate of income tax 18 / 30 A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices? barriers to entry into rail services high costs of maintaining rail tracks competition from public road transport government policy encouraging monopoly power 19 / 30 A company mining cobalt, invests in machinery to replace some workers. Eventually diseconomies of scale occur. What could cause this situation? Fewer workers are needed to produce the required output. As more cobalt is mined average costs increase. Overhead costs are spread as output increases. Output per hour increases as more machinery is used. 20 / 30 Two car manufacturers agree to merge. Which outcome would be a disadvantage for customers? use of a wider range of marketing information increased capital for research and development reduced range of vehicles produced lower average costs through economies of scale 21 / 30 the use of previously unemployed resources a change in what consumers want to buy a recession more investment 22 / 30 Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this? greater equality between the different groups in society a wider variety of goods and services produced less consumption of goods with external costs increased provision of public goods 23 / 30 A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car? US$22 500 US$27 500 US$20 000 US$25 000 24 / 30 Which government policy will increase productivity? decreasing the number of training programmes promoting good industrial relations reducing private sector investment encouraging labour-intensive production 25 / 30 2012–2013 2014–2015 2015–2016 2013–2014 26 / 30 In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this? cost of water sales of golf equipment wages of golf course staff loss of farmland 27 / 30 What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation? Domestic firms may be uncompetitive leading to structural unemployment Domestic firms may experience rising costs as they pay more for imports Resources may be used less efficiently as domestic firms face less competition Consumers pay higher prices for goods and services reducing their welfare. 28 / 30 C A B D 29 / 30 What is an example of a free good? defence health services sunshine education 30 / 30 Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection? discouraging economies of scale that lead to lower costs preventing mergers which result in high monopoly prices reducing the range of products supplied to the market reducing shop opening hours NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (9-1) (0987) Question Count : 30
Economics (9-1) (0987)
30 Different Questions Every time
1 / 30
A country is experiencing a period of full employment. What is most likely to lead to an increase in demand-pull inflation?
2 / 30
What would be a disadvantage of specialisation for a worker?
3 / 30
4 / 30
What describes frictional unemployment?
5 / 30
The government has an important role in mixed economies. Which function would it not perform?
6 / 30
What must result from an increase in output?
7 / 30
What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production?
8 / 30
Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies?
9 / 30
What is a cause of demand-pull inflation?
10 / 30
The US imposed tariffs on cars and motorcycles from Germany. What is the effect of these tariffs?
11 / 30
12 / 30
What will deflation most likely lead to?
13 / 30
What is an immediate effect for a country of a fall in its foreign exchange rate?
14 / 30
Protectionist policies reduce the level of global economic growth. What is a possible reason for this?
15 / 30
What is a macroeconomic aim of a government?
16 / 30
17 / 30
What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)?
18 / 30
A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities. What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices?
19 / 30
A company mining cobalt, invests in machinery to replace some workers. Eventually diseconomies of scale occur. What could cause this situation?
20 / 30
Two car manufacturers agree to merge. Which outcome would be a disadvantage for customers?
21 / 30
22 / 30
Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this?
23 / 30
A US car dealer agrees an import price of US$25 000 for a Japanese car at the current rate of exchange. The US dollar then strengthens by 10% against the Japanese yen. What will be the new import price paid for the Japanese car?
24 / 30
Which government policy will increase productivity?
25 / 30
26 / 30
In recent years more golf courses, which use large quantities of water, have opened in China. What may be the opportunity cost of this?
27 / 30
What is a disadvantage of increasing international specialisation?
28 / 30
29 / 30
What is an example of a free good?
30 / 30
Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection?
1 votes, 5 avg 0 Economics (0455) Question Count : 30 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Economics (0455) 30 Different Questions Every time 1 / 30 An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs? $150 000 $220 000 $370 000 $100 000 2 / 30 When will a firm maximise its profits? when the difference between total cost and total revenue is greatest when it excludes a rival supplier from the market when it produces where average cost and average revenue are equal when it sells as many products in as many different markets as it can 3 / 30 What can be found in a market economy? tax rates and commercial banks externalities and monopolies interest rates and public goods public corporations and market prices 4 / 30 Sometimes the government regulates the market to protect the interests of consumers. Which kind of regulation would achieve this protection? reducing shop opening hours discouraging economies of scale that lead to lower costs preventing mergers which result in high monopoly prices reducing the range of products supplied to the market 5 / 30 U + V + W U + V + X + Y U + V U + X 6 / 30 The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen? There will be less of the good imported into the US. The US balance of trade will worsen. The US government’s revenue will decline. The good will become cheaper in the US. 7 / 30 +200 – 40 – 60 +120 8 / 30 A student has nothing to do on a Friday evening. She withdraws $5 from the $100 she has in a savings account and buys a present to take to a party, to which admission is free. What does this involve? an opportunity cost equal to $95 an opportunity cost equal to other goods she could have bought for $5 no opportunity cost, as entrance to the party is free no opportunity cost, as she had no better way of using the time 9 / 30 What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate? the level of national debt the level of trade protection the price of exports the price of imports 10 / 30 B C A D 11 / 30 Which government policy will increase productivity? reducing private sector investment promoting good industrial relations decreasing the number of training programmes encouraging labour-intensive production 12 / 30 Cuba is implementing free market reforms. What is a likely advantage of this? greater equality between the different groups in society a wider variety of goods and services produced increased provision of public goods less consumption of goods with external costs 13 / 30 What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker? Career opportunities are abundant. It may be difficult to find work locally. Earnings are related to the level of skill. Labour supply is elastic and plentiful. 14 / 30 Which problem will be reduced by a government subsidy to a firm? overconsumption of a demerit good underconsumption of a merit good abuse of monopoly power absence of a public good 15 / 30 A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure? building more affordable homes to improve labour mobility controlling consumer spending to reduce inflation raising pensions to help retired people pay their fuel bills lowering interest rates to encourage purchase of expensive goods 16 / 30 What suggests that there is market failure? lack of competition high retail prices low levels of investment high producer profits 17 / 30 A D C B 18 / 30 A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit? increased spending on its military bases abroad increased international competitiveness of its goods increased numbers of visitors from abroad increased exports of its services 19 / 30 What will deflation most likely lead to? an increase in the real purchasing power of money an increase in the exchange rate an increase in the rate of interest a fall in the real value of debts 20 / 30 What is a likely cause of economic growth? decreased taxation decreased investment decreased productivity decreased employment 21 / 30 What is a typical characteristic of a developing country? high reliance on natural resources good medical care equal distribution of income and wealth high gross domestic product per head 22 / 30 An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean? Total demand was rising. Price levels were falling. It was facing a recession. Unemployment was falling. 23 / 30 What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)? an increase in the rate of income tax a fall in unemployment a reduction in expenditure on education an increase in the labour force 24 / 30 What usually happens as a developing country becomes more developed? The average age of the population falls The primary sector expands. The infant mortality rate increases. The fertility rate declines. 25 / 30 What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy? the Swedish government granting aid to Somalia the Canadian government introducing quotas on Malaysian electronics products a Japanese car manufacturer establishing a factory in the Czech Republic a German bank making a loan to a Nigerian company 26 / 30 A manufacturer of medical supplies benefits from improved road links to its main markets. What benefit definitely occurs as a result? increased average revenue increased market share increased internal economies of scale increased external economies of scale 27 / 30 What is identified as economic growth? the economy enters a period of recession a fall in labour productivity an increase in the productive capacity of the economy an increase in the Consumer Prices Index (CPI) 28 / 30 What is the main difference between capital-intensive production and labour-intensive production? the output that the production process creates the resources on which the production relies the market structure of the production process the size of the firm that uses the production process 29 / 30 B D A C 30 / 30 A government wants to reduce both its budget deficit and the amount of poverty in its country. Which fiscal policy measure is most likely to achieve both of these aims? decreasing the rate of progressive income tax increasing government spending on welfare benefits decreasing government spending on welfare benefits increasing the rate of progressive income tax NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Economics (0455) Question Count : 30
Economics (0455)
An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each. What are his total variable costs?
When will a firm maximise its profits?
What can be found in a market economy?
The US government decides to reduce the size of the quota on a good it buys from China. What is likely to happen?
A student has nothing to do on a Friday evening. She withdraws $5 from the $100 she has in a savings account and buys a present to take to a party, to which admission is free. What does this involve?
What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate?
What is a disadvantage of being a specialist skilled worker?
Which problem will be reduced by a government subsidy to a firm?
A government introduces a series of economic measures. What is a supply-side policy measure?
What suggests that there is market failure?
A country has a deficit on its current account of its balance of payments. What could increase the size of its deficit?
What is a likely cause of economic growth?
What is a typical characteristic of a developing country?
An economy recorded a second month of deflation. What does this mean?
What usually happens as a developing country becomes more developed?
What would reduce the volume of international trade in the world economy?
A manufacturer of medical supplies benefits from improved road links to its main markets. What benefit definitely occurs as a result?
What is identified as economic growth?
A government wants to reduce both its budget deficit and the amount of poverty in its country. Which fiscal policy measure is most likely to achieve both of these aims?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (9-1) (0972) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this? The rod and the sphere have like charges The rod is uncharged and the sphere is charged. The rod is charged and the sphere is uncharged. The rod and the sphere have unlike charges. 2 / 40 A C B D 3 / 40 A C B D 4 / 40 the surface area of the water the length of the reservoir the depth of the water at X the thickness of the dam wall 5 / 40 D C A B 6 / 40 2.0 minutes 1.0 minute 4.0 minutes 2.5 minutes 7 / 40 Put the bulb in a beaker of pure melting ice. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling sea water. Put the bulb in a beaker of ice and salt. Put the bulb in a beaker of boiling pure water. 8 / 40 B C A D 9 / 40 I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2. All three readings are the same. I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3. I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3 10 / 40 A C D B 11 / 40 A C D B 12 / 40 Rocket P accelerates and then decelerates. Rocket P travels further than rocket Q. Both rockets travel the same distance. Rocket Q has zero acceleration. 13 / 40 A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased? amplitude frequency wavelength speed 14 / 40 D A C B 15 / 40 Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct? The rate of decay increases if the substance is dissolved in water. It cannot be predicted when a particular nucleus will decay. The decay always produces poisonous gases. Placing a radioactive substance inside a lead-lined box prevents it from decaying 16 / 40 D B C A 17 / 40 C A B D 18 / 40 All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer? volume pressure mass electrical resistance 19 / 40 P and Q P only R only Q and R 20 / 40 a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter a wire of the same length with a larger diameter a wire of greater length with the same diameter a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter 21 / 40 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television? infrared waves microwaves visible light radio waves 22 / 40 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 23 / 40 D B C A 24 / 40 P has a greater reading than R. P has a greater reading than S P has a greater reading than Q P has a greater reading than T. 25 / 40 A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail? 350 mm2 39 mm2 11 mm2 0.56 mm2 26 / 40 D A B C 27 / 40 B A C D 28 / 40 P and U only P, Q, R, S, T and U Q, R, S and T only R and S only 29 / 40 An object emits infrared radiation. Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the object? the density and the surface temperature of the object the density and the surface area of the object the mass and the surface area of the object the surface area and the surface temperature of the object 30 / 40 Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully? γ-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum Radioactive decay is a random process. Radioactive materials have a half-life. The radiation given out is ionising. 31 / 40 C D A B 32 / 40 C A B D 33 / 40 A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit? decreasing the thickness of the wire connecting a second identical length of wire in series with the original wire increasing the length of the wire connecting a second identical length of wire in parallel with the original wire 34 / 40 The electric cooker will not switch on without it. It improves the efficiency of the cooker. It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on. It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case. 35 / 40 A D B C 36 / 40 Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90C. Both containers are the same size and both are sealed. The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q. Which statement is correct? P is surrounded by a vacuum and Q is surrounded by air. P has a shinier surface than Q. P is painted a darker colour than Q. P contains more water than Q. 37 / 40 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection? 52º 76º 38º 142º 38 / 40 condensation evaporation convection conduction 39 / 40 B D C A 40 / 40 Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct? The lamps have the same voltage across each of them. The current in each lamp is different. If one lamp blows, the others remain switched on. The lamps can be switched on and off separately. NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (9-1) (0972) Question Count : 40
Physics (9-1) (0972)
A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is repelled by the rod. Why is this?
A quiet sound is produced by a loudspeaker. The pitch of the sound remains constant but the loudness of the sound is increased. Which property of the sound wave is increased?
Which statement about the radioactive decay of a substance is correct?
All thermometers require a physical property that changes with temperature. Which property would not be suitable for use in a thermometer?
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television?
A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions. 1 Heat it. 2 Shine light on it. 3 Pass a current through it. Which suggestions are correct?
A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail?
An object emits infrared radiation. Which two properties of the object determine the rate of radiation of thermal energy from the object?
Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?
A length of metal wire is used as a resistor in a circuit. Which change to the wire results in an increase in current in the circuit?
Two similar metal containers, P and Q, each contain water at 90C. Both containers are the same size and both are sealed. The water in container P cools more quickly than the water in container Q. Which statement is correct?
Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º. What is the angle of reflection?
Which statement about identical lamps in a parallel circuit is not correct?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Physics (0625) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Physics (0625) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure 2 / 40 A D C B 3 / 40 D C B A 4 / 40 The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly? Black surfaces are better emitters of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are worse absorbers of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better reflectors of radiation than shiny surfaces. Black surfaces are better conductors than shiny surfaces. 5 / 40 P only R only Q and R P and Q 6 / 40 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit? to prevent the current becoming too large to save electrical energy so that the current can have only one value to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs 7 / 40 C A B D 8 / 40 B C A D 9 / 40 D C A B 10 / 40 A force of 14 N is applied to the head of a nail. This causes a pressure of 25N/mm2 at the tip of the nail. What is the cross-sectional area of the tip of the nail? 39 mm2 350 mm2 0.56 mm2 11 mm2 11 / 40 The speed of the object is increasing with an acceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is decreasing with a deceleration that is not constant. The speed of the object is increasing with constant acceleration. The speed of the object is decreasing with constant deceleration. 12 / 40 The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 13 / 40 80 m 40 m 20 m 38 m 14 / 40 Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current? thermistor earth wire fuse relay 15 / 40 Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight 2 only 2 and 3 1 only 1 and 3 16 / 40 Cool the aluminium and heat the iron. Heat the aluminium and heat the iron. Heat the aluminium and cool the iron. Cool the aluminium and cool the iron. 17 / 40 I1 is greater than I2 and is greater than I3. I3 is greater than I1 and is greater than I2. I2 is greater than I1 and is greater than I3 All three readings are the same. 18 / 40 B C D A 19 / 40 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor? motor relay thermistor light-dependent resistor 20 / 40 Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object? Impulse is the change in momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of momentum of the object. Impulse is the rate of change of force acting on the object. Impulse is the change in kinetic energy of the object. 21 / 40 Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z. Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z Object X is an iron block and magnet Y is stronger than magnet Z Object X is a permanent magnet and magnet Y is weaker than magnet Z. 22 / 40 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract? The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water. The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water. The ripples hit the wall of the tank. The ripples pass through a narrow gap. 23 / 40 C A D B 24 / 40 Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation? The comb has been magnetised by rubbing with the cloth. The comb has been electrically charged by rubbing with the cloth. The filings have been electrically charged by the electromagnet. The filings have been magnetised by the electromagnet. 25 / 40 Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable? nuclear fission wind hydroelectric waves 26 / 40 What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion? the area under a speed–time graph the area under a distance–time graph the gradient of a distance–time graph the gradient of a speed–time graph 27 / 40 D A C B 28 / 40 The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current? Q and R P only R only P and Q 29 / 40 2.0 s 0.25 s 0.50 s 1.0 s 30 / 40 D C B A 31 / 40 A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave? 300 m 18 000 m 0.20 m 5.0 m 32 / 40 P has a greater reading than T. P has a greater reading than Q P has a greater reading than S P has a greater reading than R. 33 / 40 A D C B 34 / 40 C A D B 35 / 40 1.5 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.67 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 1.7 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 0.60 g / cm<sup>3</sup> 36 / 40 It stays on zero. It keeps increasing. It quickly increases and then decreases. It quickly increases and stays at maximum. 37 / 40 When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated. What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom? The nucleus of the atom is positively charged. The atom is mostly empty space. The atom is very small. The atom has a dense nucleus. 38 / 40 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train? 50 m / s 60 m / s 3.0 m / s 5.0 m / s 39 / 40 pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains pollen grains being hit by water molecules water molecules being hit by pollen grains water molecules being hit by other water molecules 40 / 40 B D C A NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Physics (0625) Question Count : 40
Physics (0625)
The outside of one of two identical shiny metal containers is painted dull black. The containers are filled with equal masses of hot water at the same temperature. Why does the dull black container cool more quickly?
Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?
The coils in two electric motors are identical in size, but motor 1 is observed to spin more quickly than motor 2. Three suggestions are made to explain this observation. 1 The current in the coil of motor 1 is greater than the current in the coil of motor 2. 2 The number of turns on the coil of motor 1 is greater than on the coil of motor 2. 3 The magnets in motor 1 are stronger than the magnets in motor 2. Which suggestions give a possible explanation for this observation?
Which electrical component is connected in series with an electric circuit to protect it from damage by a very large current?
Which are examples of friction? 1 tension in a spring 2 air resistance 3 weight
An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need for the potential divider in addition to a variable resistor?
Which statement describes the impulse acting on an object?
A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract?
Iron filings are picked up by an electromagnet. The current in the electromagnet is switched off and the filings fall on a plastic bench. A plastic comb is rubbed with a woollen cloth and held just above the iron filings. Some of the filings jump and stick to the comb. Which statement correctly explains the last observation?
Energy resources are used to produce electricity. Which resource is non-renewable?
What is used to determine the distance travelled by an object in motion?
The information describes the currents in three different circuits. Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction. Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the same one direction. Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically. Which circuits contain a direct current?
A sound wave is created by a loudspeaker that vibrates backwards and forwards 96 000 times per minute. The speed of sound is 320 m / s. What is the wavelength of the sound wave?
When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated. What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?
A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes. What is the average speed of the train?
0 votes, 0 avg 0 Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40 Duration :45 minutes Hello . TIME UP!!! Try Again Science – Combined (0653) 40 Different Questions Every time 1 / 40 Some calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid start to react. Water is then added to the reaction mixture. What happens to the rate of the reaction? It decreases. It stops. It stays the same. It increases. 2 / 40 foxes and lizards carnivorous insects and voles kestrels and stoats spiders and stoats 3 / 40 A D C B 4 / 40 D A B C 5 / 40 Which statements describe an endothermic reaction? 1 Energy is given out. 2 Energy is taken in. 3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases. 4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases. 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 6 / 40 Which two energy resources are both non-renewable? oil and tides oil and coal coal and wind coal and tides 7 / 40 What is the function of the cell membrane? to store nutrients or waste products to hold the chlorophyll of the cell to hold the DNA of the cell to control which substances move in and out of the cell 8 / 40 Refinery gas contains methane. Which statement about methane is correct? Its boiling point is high because it has strong forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is low because it has weak forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is high because it has weak forces of attraction between molecules. Its boiling point is low because it has strong forces of attraction between molecules 9 / 40 Which methods of separation depend on the substances in a mixture having different boiling points? fractional distillation and chromatography evaporation and filtration fractional distillation and distillation crystallisation and distillation 10 / 40 Where does sound travel at the greatest speed? in a gas in a liquid in a solid in a vacuum 11 / 40 Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct? Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns white. Anhydrous cobalt(II) chloride turns blue. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns white. Anhydrous copper(II) sulfate turns blue. 12 / 40 A large quantity of damp iron filings is added to clean air in a sealed container. The container is left for several weeks. The composition of the air in the container changes. Which gas decreases in composition? nitrogen argon carbon dioxide oxygen 13 / 40 B A D C 14 / 40 Which petroleum fraction is used to make road surfaces? gasoline bitumen diesel oil naphtha 15 / 40 Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct? The only source of carbon dioxide in the air is from motor vehicles. Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas. Carbon dioxide makes up approximately 4% of clean air. Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide enhance the greenhouse effect. 16 / 40 B D A C 17 / 40 B D C A 18 / 40 C D A B 19 / 40 producer carnivore herbivore decomposer 20 / 40 What is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum? microwaves X-rays sound waves gamma-radiation 21 / 40 C B D A 22 / 40 3A 13A 1A 7A 23 / 40 B D A C 24 / 40 B D A C 25 / 40 C D A B 26 / 40 Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct? They conduct electricity. They have low densities. They are hard. They are malleable. 27 / 40 D B C A 28 / 40 2.0A 0.50A 3.0A 6.0A 29 / 40 A boy runs up some stairs. Which two physical quantities are used to calculate the power he develops? his mass and his acceleration the work done and the vertical distance moved the work done and the time taken his mass and the time taken 30 / 40 speed wavelength frequency amplitude 31 / 40 Excess magnesium ribbon is reacted with 10 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The hydrogen gas produced is collected and measured. Which change to the reaction conditions increases the rate of reaction and the volume of hydrogen produced? Use a transition metal catalyst. Use powdered magnesium. Use concentrated hydrochloric acid. Use a lower temperature. 32 / 40 C D A B 33 / 40 A B D C 34 / 40 Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere? feeding respiration fossilisation photosynthesis 35 / 40 Which statement describes the correct order in which two reactions in a blast furnace occur? Carbon dioxide is reduced, then carbon monoxide is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is reduced, then carbon is oxidised. Carbon monoxide is oxidised, then carbon dioxide is reduced. Iron oxide is reduced, then carbon is oxidised. 36 / 40 A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water? conduction radiation convection evaporation 37 / 40 C B D A 38 / 40 Which statement about the treatment of the water supply is correct? Water is filtered and chlorinated to remove solids and kill bacteria. Chlorine is added to remove dissolved impurities. Water is filtered to remove dissolved impurities. After filtration and chlorination, the water contains no impurities. 39 / 40 What is the function of valves in the circulatory system? to provide a large surface area to stop blood vessels bursting to act as a pump to ensure blood only flows one way 40 / 40 heat the nut only heat the bolt only cool the nut and heat the bolt heat the nut and the bolt through the same temperature rise NameEmailPhone NumberCountry Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Send feedback
Science – Combined (0653) Question Count : 40
Science – Combined (0653)
Some calcium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid start to react. Water is then added to the reaction mixture. What happens to the rate of the reaction?
Which statements describe an endothermic reaction? 1 Energy is given out. 2 Energy is taken in. 3 The temperature of the reaction mixture decreases. 4 The temperature of the reaction mixture increases.
Which two energy resources are both non-renewable?
What is the function of the cell membrane?
Refinery gas contains methane. Which statement about methane is correct?
Which methods of separation depend on the substances in a mixture having different boiling points?
Where does sound travel at the greatest speed?
Which statement about a chemical test for water is correct?
A large quantity of damp iron filings is added to clean air in a sealed container. The container is left for several weeks. The composition of the air in the container changes. Which gas decreases in composition?
Which petroleum fraction is used to make road surfaces?
Which statement about carbon dioxide is correct?
What is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum?
Which statement about non-metallic elements is correct?
A boy runs up some stairs. Which two physical quantities are used to calculate the power he develops?
Excess magnesium ribbon is reacted with 10 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. The hydrogen gas produced is collected and measured. Which change to the reaction conditions increases the rate of reaction and the volume of hydrogen produced?
Which process in the carbon cycle releases carbon back into the atmosphere?
Which statement describes the correct order in which two reactions in a blast furnace occur?
A tank is full of water. The water at the bottom of the tank is heated. Eventually all the water in the tank becomes hot. What is the main method of energy transfer in the water?
Which statement about the treatment of the water supply is correct?
What is the function of valves in the circulatory system?
