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Accounting (9-1) (0985)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (9-1) (0985)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

Which statements about trade discount are correct?
1 It is debited to the supplier’s account.
2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier.
3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice.
4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.

2 / 35

3 / 35

4 / 35

What is shown in a trial balance?

5 / 35

6 / 35

7 / 35

A limited company whose capital consisted of ordinary shares ceased trading and was not able to
pay its debts.
Which statement is correct?

8 / 35

9 / 35

James is an accountant and operates as a sole trader.
Which items would not appear in his statement of financial position?
1 long-term loan
2 retained earnings
3 trade payables

10 / 35

Which is a feature of debentures?

11 / 35

12 / 35

How does a manufacturer calculate prime cost?

13 / 35

14 / 35

The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the
year it was valued at $5400.
What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?

15 / 35

Anji maintains a provision for doubtful debts at 5% of the trade receivables at the end of each
financial year. At the start of the financial year, the trade receivables were $2000. At the end of
the financial year, the trade receivables were $4500.
Which entry would be made in the income statement for the financial year?

16 / 35

What is the best indicator of the liquidity of a business?

17 / 35

What would result in a cash book balance being lower than the balance showing on a bank
statement?

18 / 35

19 / 35

20 / 35

How does a trader use the information provided by financial statements?

21 / 35

A limited company applied the accounting objective of comparability in preparing its financial
statements.

What is the effect of this on the interested parties?

22 / 35

23 / 35

Why does a supplier offer trade discount?

24 / 35

Which actions could a clothing retailer take to improve his rate of inventory turnover?
1 increase the selling prices of all clothing
2 offer discounts on last year’s designs
3 pay clothing suppliers as quickly as possible

25 / 35

26 / 35

A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10%
per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal
amounting to $700.
A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash.
What was the net decrease in the cash balance?

27 / 35

28 / 35

29 / 35

Sabeena runs a retail business. She plans to close her business in a few weeks’ time.
How should her fixtures and fittings be valued in the statement of financial position?

30 / 35

31 / 35

Why does a trader calculate the profit of his business?

32 / 35

A farmer sold a piece of land at market value.
How should the proceeds of this sale be treated?

33 / 35

What is the purpose of a partnership appropriation account?

34 / 35

What is an example of a compensating error?

35 / 35

Which statement about a receipts and payments account is incorrect?

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Accounting (0452)
Question Count : 35

Duration :1 hours 15 minutes

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Accounting (0452)

35 Different Questions Every time

1 / 35

2 / 35

A machine with an original cost of $10 000 had been depreciated for two years at the rate of 10%
per annum using the straight-line basis. It was then sold for cash with the loss on disposal
amounting to $700.
A replacement machine was bought on the same day for $12 400 cash.
What was the net decrease in the cash balance?

3 / 35

Which change would cause an increase in the liquid (acid test) ratio?

4 / 35

The work in progress of ZT Manufacturers on 1 January was valued at $6200. At the end of the
year it was valued at $5400.
What was the effect on the cost of production for the year?

5 / 35

6 / 35

7 / 35

8 / 35

What is recorded in a petty cash book?

9 / 35

Which statements about trade discount are correct?
1 It is debited to the supplier’s account.
2 It is only given if the invoice is paid within the period allowed by the supplier.
3 It is shown as a deduction from the price of the goods on an invoice.
4 It is used to encourage bulk buying.

10 / 35

11 / 35

12 / 35

Why does a business maintain a provision for doubtful debts account?

13 / 35

Jameel sold goods on credit.
Where did he first record the invoice he issued?

14 / 35

The total of the debit column of a trial balance was more than the total of the credit column.
One account balance had been entered in the wrong column.
Which one was it?

15 / 35

X Limited started the year with an ordinary share capital of $100 000.
An ordinary share dividend of $3000 was paid during the year.
Later a further $10 000 of ordinary shares were issued.
The profit for the year was $8000.
By how much had equity increased at the end of the year?

16 / 35

A suspense account was opened with a credit balance of $840.
Which error caused this?

17 / 35

Atif depreciates his motor vehicles at a rate of 20% per annum using the reducing balance
method.
On 1 May 2021, Atif owned motor vehicles which cost $35 000. At that date, the motor vehicles
had been depreciated by $12 600.
What was the balance on Atif’s provision for depreciation account on 1 May 2022?

18 / 35

19 / 35

20 / 35

Why is a trial balance prepared?

21 / 35

22 / 35

Maria’s draft income statement for the year ended 31 March 2022 showed a profit for the year of
$38 750.
On 31 December 2021, Maria received a 5% bank loan of $4800 which was incorrectly treated
as a revenue receipt.
In error, a whole year’s interest on the bank loan was included in the draft income statement for
the year ended 31 March 2022.
What was the correct profit for the year ended 31 March 2022?

23 / 35

‘The information provided in financial statements should be capable of being independently
verified.’
To which accounting policy does this statement refer?

24 / 35

25 / 35

26 / 35

Annual rental income due from Kumar, a tenant, is $3600. At the start of the year Kumar had
prepaid rent of $900. At the end of the year he owed two months’ rent.
How much rent was received from Kumar during the year?

27 / 35

28 / 35

Which statements about a three-column cash book are correct?
1 It contains ledger accounts for bank and cash.
2 It contains ledger accounts for discounts allowed and received.
3 It records transactions before they are recorded in the ledgers.

29 / 35

Leah bought goods, $8000, less 15% trade discount. She later returned half of these goods as
they were faulty.
Which document did Leah issue to the supplier for the returned goods?

30 / 35

Raminder maintains a petty cash book using the imprest system. The monthly imprest of $250 is
restored on the first day of each month.
In January the petty cashier spent $105 and received a refund of $15 from a stationery supplier.
How much was given to the petty cashier on 1 February to restore the imprest?

31 / 35

Zaha is a consultant who receives fees from clients.
How would Zaha calculate his profit for the year?

32 / 35

A trader calculated her profit for the year at $14 800. The following errors were then discovered.
No entry had been made for $200 wages accrued.
The insurance expense included a prepayment of $90.
What is the correct profit for the year?

33 / 35

34 / 35

A sales invoice for $800 was incorrectly recorded in the sales journal as $1800.
How did this error affect the trial balance?

35 / 35

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Biology (0610)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (0610)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Modern agricultural methods often use artificial insemination (AI) to breed dairy cattle.
Which statement describes the process of artificial insemination?

2 / 40

One type of contraceptive pill contains progesterone and oestrogen. Some effects of the pill are
listed.
1) inhibit FSH production
2) inhibit LH production
3) inhibit thickening of the uterus wall
Which prevent the development and the release of an egg cell?

3 / 40

Which process involves the removal of material from the rectum?

4 / 40

5 / 40

In healthy people, which substance is completely reabsorbed into the blood from the kidney
tubules?

6 / 40

What is the sequence of development that produces a fetus?

7 / 40

Which statement about asexual reproduction would be a disadvantage for a farmer growing crop
plants?

8 / 40

In which process is oxygen a waste product?

9 / 40

Which enzyme is used to create complementary sticky ends in genetic engineering?

10 / 40

Starch is digested by amylase in the mouth, but it is not digested in the stomach.
What is the reason for this?

11 / 40

A rat has the scientific name Rattus rattus.
What do the two parts of this name refer to?

12 / 40

Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?

13 / 40

What is the sequence of neurones connecting a receptor to an effector in a reflex arc?

14 / 40

15 / 40

In 1870, approximately 20.4 million people died as a result of famine.
In 1890, approximately 10.0 million people died as a result of famine.
To the nearest whole number, what is the percentage decrease in deaths from 1870 to 1890?

16 / 40

Which is a correct description of mitosis?

17 / 40

What is a barrier method of birth control?

18 / 40

19 / 40

What is the correct order of arthropod groups, from those with the most legs to those with the
fewest legs?

20 / 40

The statements refer to reproduction.
1 A zygote is formed.
2 Offspring are genetically identical to the parent.
3 Two gamete nuclei fuse together.
Which statements refer to sexual reproduction?

21 / 40

A herd of red deer live in a forest that contains snakes and a large variety of birds.
Which group of organisms is an example of a population?

22 / 40

Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates?

23 / 40

In a leaf, water moves from the surface of a mesophyll cell and then out of the leaf into the
atmosphere.
What is the correct order of the processes involved?

24 / 40

A person’s iris is damaged.
What is the effect of this?

25 / 40

26 / 40

Which nutrient is required to prevent scurvy?

27 / 40

Which structures ensure the one-way flow of blood in the human circulatory system?

28 / 40

Some human phenotypes are listed.
1 body mass
2 foot size
3 height
4 sex
Which features are examples of continuous variation?

29 / 40

30 / 40

With which kingdoms do bacteria share the same genetic code?

31 / 40

All living organisms release energy from nutrient molecules within their cells.

What is the name of this characteristic?

32 / 40

What is a chemical barrier to pathogens?

33 / 40

34 / 40

Which condition can be caused by a lack of fibre in the diet?

35 / 40

36 / 40

During vigorous exercise, lactic acid builds up in muscles leading to an oxygen debt.
Which statement describes a stage in the removal of the oxygen debt during recovery?

37 / 40

A student draws a diagram of a plant cell.
The diagram is 60mm wide. The actual plant cell is 0.03 mm wide.
What is the magnification of the diagram?

38 / 40

Which disease is caused by a pathogen?

39 / 40

What is an adaptive feature of an organism?

40 / 40

Why is excessive consumption of alcohol discouraged before someone operates machinery or
drives a vehicle?

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Biology (9-1) (0970)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Biology (9-1) (0970)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Why is excessive consumption of alcohol discouraged before someone operates machinery or
drives a vehicle?

2 / 40

Which statement about meiosis is correct?

3 / 40

Which description of cross-pollination is correct?

4 / 40

Sensory neurones conduct impulses from

5 / 40

6 / 40

What is an example of sexual reproduction?

7 / 40

8 / 40

Which hormone triggers the ‘fight or flight’ response?

9 / 40

Pea plants produce either yellow or green seeds. Yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y).
What are the most likely phenotypes of the offspring of a cross between YY and Yy plants?

10 / 40

Which statement about a function of xylem tissue is correct?

11 / 40

What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?

12 / 40

A deficiency of magnesium ions can cause plant leaves to become yellow between the leaf veins.
What is the reason for this?

13 / 40

Which element is found in proteins but is absent from fats?

14 / 40

After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water
passes?

15 / 40

16 / 40

According to the binomial system, how should a human be named?

17 / 40

The bonobo and the chimpanzee are two closely related species.
What is the most accurate method of deciding how closely related species are?

18 / 40

What happens to the mass of DNA in a nucleus before mitosis occurs?

19 / 40

When damaged tissues are repaired cells undergo division by

20 / 40

In guinea pigs, the allele for black fur is dominant and the allele for white fur is recessive.
A test cross can be used to determine the genotype of a black guinea pig.
What would be the expected result of the test cross if the black guinea pig was heterozygous?

21 / 40

Which process makes use of a genetically engineered organism?

22 / 40

Asexual reproduction can be used to produce crops.
Why might a disease be likely to spread throughout the whole crop?

23 / 40

24 / 40

What are the products when proteins are broken down?

25 / 40

26 / 40

27 / 40

In which part of a cell does photosynthesis take place?

28 / 40

29 / 40

Which type of molecule are enzymes made of?

30 / 40

The diagram shows a food chain in a rock pool.
seaweed → whelks → crabs → seagulls
What will happen if the number of secondary consumers increases?
There will be

31 / 40

Which cells produce mucus?

32 / 40

Which process is slower than normal in a person with very few platelets?

33 / 40

Which food-testing solution shows a positive result when it turns from blue to purple?

34 / 40

Which statement describes the effect of temperature on enzymes?

35 / 40

Which process uses the principal source of energy input to biological systems?

36 / 40

Which statement correctly identifies the enzyme and the products of fat digestion?

37 / 40

After passing through the root hair cells of a plant, what is the next tissue through which water
passes?

38 / 40

Which is an example of a transmissible disease?

39 / 40

Which cell contains a haploid nucleus?

40 / 40

A scientist studied wild birds that lived by a lake. He observed that one bird species had a beak
that was adapted to extract small insects from the water.
Which process would have occurred in the development of this specialised beak?

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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IGCSE – Chemistry (0971) (9-1)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

Ethene molecules react with each other to form poly(ethene).
What is the name given to this type of chemical reaction?

2 / 40

What is meant by the symbol ⇌?

3 / 40

The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.
When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

4 / 40

A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).
1) manufacture of cement
2) manufacture of iron
3) treating alkaline soils
Which suggestions are correct?

5 / 40

In terms of electron transfer, explain why copper is reduced in this reaction

6 / 40

Which property is shown by all metals?

7 / 40

Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?

8 / 40

9 / 40

Some properties of metal J are listed.
● J does not react with cold water.
● J reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
● No reaction occurs when the oxide of J is heated with carbon.
What is J?

10 / 40

Which processes produce methane?
1) complete combustion of carbon-containing compounds
2) decomposition of vegetation
3) digestion in animals
4) respiration in animals

11 / 40

A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).
1) manufacture of cement
2) manufacture of iron
3) treating alkaline soils
Which suggestions are correct?

12 / 40

This question is about iron and iron compounds
In a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron, carbon reacts with oxygen from the air to form carbon monoxide.
Complete the chemical equation for this reaction.
…….C + ……… 2CO

13 / 40

14 / 40

State which metal in the first 36 elements: reacts with air to form lime

15 / 40

Which statement about ethene is correct?

16 / 40

Which statement shows that a liquid is pure water?

17 / 40

When aqueous iodine is added to a solution of vanadium ions, V2+, the V2+ ions each lose one
electron.
Which property of transition elements is shown by this reaction?

18 / 40

19 / 40

Which statement about the reactions in the blast furnace is correct?

20 / 40

Which statements about unsaturated hydrocarbons are correct?
1) They contain both single and double bonds.
2) They turn aqueous bromine from colourless to brown.
3) They can be manufactured by cracking.

21 / 40

Which statement about the uses of sulfur dioxide is not correct?

22 / 40

Which property is shown by all metals?

23 / 40

Which statement explains why graphite can be used as a lubricant?

24 / 40

When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid
remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns.
Which process describes these changes?

25 / 40

Which statement about homologous series is not correct?

26 / 40

A student writes three statements about potassium nitrate, KNO3.
1) The relative formula mass of KNO3 is 101.
2) Potassium nitrate contains the three essential elements for plant growth.
3) Potassium nitrate could be used as a fertiliser.
Which statements are correct?

27 / 40

Which substance is used to produce alcohol by fermentation?

28 / 40

Which statement about pure water is not correct?

29 / 40

Ethanoic acid is a weak acid.
Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.
Which statements are correct?
1) Ethanoic acid molecules are partially dissociated into ions.
2) 1.0 mol / dm3 ethanoic acid has a higher pH than 1.0 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid.
3) Ethanoic acid is always more dilute than hydrochloric acid.
4) Ethanoic acid is a proton acceptor.

30 / 40

Which two gases make up approximately 99% of clean, dry air?

31 / 40

A chemical equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown.
2CH4 + zO2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O
What is the value of z?

32 / 40

Deduce the charge on the copper ion in CuI

33 / 40

Soluble salts can be made by adding a metal carbonate to a dilute acid.
Give the formula of the dilute acid which reacts with a metal carbonate to form a nitrate salt

34 / 40

Which property is shown by all metals?

35 / 40

36 / 40

37 / 40

Which statement describes a disadvantage of sulfur dioxide?

38 / 40

What term is used to describe atoms of the same element, such as  1224Mg and  1226Mg?

39 / 40

Which statements about hydrogen are correct?

1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released.
2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated.
3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.

40 / 40

Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.
1 The activation energy becomes lower.
2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles per second.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.
Which statements are correct?

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Chemistry (0620)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Chemistry (0620)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

One of the fractions obtained from the fractional distillation of petroleum is naphtha.
What is a major use of the naphtha fraction?

2 / 40

A white solid Z reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas.
The same gas is produced when compound Z is heated strongly.
What is Z?

3 / 40

Ethanol is manufactured by the catalytic addition of steam to compound P.
What is P?

4 / 40

What is the ionic half-equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode when molten
lead(II) bromide is electrolysed?

5 / 40

The particles in a substance are far apart, randomly arranged and moving.
The substance changes state and the particles are now close together. The particles are still
randomly arranged and able to move.
What is the change of state of the substance?

6 / 40

Element M forms both M+ and M2+ ions.
In which part of the Periodic Table is M placed?

7 / 40

Which statement about fuels is correct?

8 / 40

Solid X is heated strongly.
The colour of the solid changes from blue to white.
What is solid X?

9 / 40

Which reactions produce carbon dioxide?
1 heating a carbonate
2 reacting a carbonate with dilute acid
3 burning methane
4 cracking a hydrocarbon

10 / 40

A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons.
What is Q?

11 / 40

Which statements about hydrogen are correct?

1 When hydrogen is burned, heat energy is released.
2 When hydrogen is used in a fuel cell, electrical energy is generated.
3 When hydrogen is used as a fuel, water is the only product.

12 / 40

The equations for two reactions are shown.
1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
2) 2H2 + O2 →2H2O
Which statement about the reactions is correct?

13 / 40

A covalent molecule Q contains only six shared electrons.
What is Q?

14 / 40

Which statement about ethene is correct?

15 / 40

Petroleum is separated into useful fractions by fractional distillation.
Which fraction is used as a fuel for jet aeroplanes?

16 / 40

Which molecule contains more than one pair of shared electrons?

17 / 40

Which substances do not produce water as a product when they are reacted together?

18 / 40

Decane has a freezing point of –30 °C and a boiling point of 174 °C.
A small sample of decane is placed in an open beaker in an oven at a temperature of 120 °C and
at atmospheric pressure for 24 hours.
What happens to the sample of decane?

19 / 40

Which statement about the atoms of all the isotopes of carbon is correct?

20 / 40

Copper(II) oxide reacts with iron. The equation for the reaction is shown.
3CuO + 2Fe → 3Cu + Fe2O3
Why can this reaction be described as the reduction of copper(II) oxide?

21 / 40

Some properties of element E are listed.

It has a high density.
It has a high melting point.
What is E?

22 / 40

Which three elements are needed in fertilisers?

23 / 40

Which statement about ions and ionic bonding is correct?

24 / 40

Which statement about petroleum fractions is correct?

25 / 40

Petrol burns in a car engine to produce waste gases which leave through the car exhaust.
One of these waste gases is an oxide of nitrogen.
Which statement describes how this oxide of nitrogen is formed?

26 / 40

Carbon dioxide is produced during the extraction of aluminium from bauxite.
Which statement describes how this carbon dioxide is made?

27 / 40

Processes involved in the extraction of zinc are listed.
1 Heat zinc oxide with carbon.
2 Condense zinc vapour.
3 Vaporise the zinc.
4 Roast zinc ore in air.
In which order are the processes carried out?

28 / 40

What are uses of sulfur dioxide?
1 as a bleach in the manufacture of wood pulp
2 as a food preservative
3 in the conversion of iron to steel
4 to kill bacteria in water treatment

29 / 40

Which hydrocarbon is the main constituent of natural gas?

 

30 / 40

The equation for the reaction between gaseous hydrogen and gaseous iodine to form gaseous
hydrogen iodide is shown.
H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
The reaction is exothermic.
Which statement explains why the reaction is exothermic?

31 / 40

An acid is neutralised by adding an excess of an insoluble solid base.
A soluble salt is formed.

How is the pure salt obtained from the reaction mixture?

32 / 40

The electronic structure of element Z is 2,8,1.
Which statements about Z are correct?
1 It is a metal.
2 It has two outer-shell electrons.
3 It is in Period 3.

33 / 40

Which statement about paper chromatography is correct?

34 / 40

Which statements about the uses of metals are correct?
1) Iron is used to make aircraft because iron has a low density.
2) Copper is used to make electric cables because copper is a good conductor of electricity.
3) Aluminium is used to make brass because aluminium is strong and hard.
4) Iron is mixed with additives to make an alloy used in chemical plant.

35 / 40

Which natural resource cannot provide a raw material for the manufacture of ammonia?

36 / 40

Aqueous ethanoic acid is a weak acid.
Aqueous sodium hydroxide is a strong base.
Aqueous ethanoic acid is neutralised by aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Which statements are correct?
1 Aqueous ethanoic acid accepts protons from hydroxide ions.
2 The aqueous ethanoic acid used is fully dissociated into ions.
3 The aqueous sodium hydroxide used is fully dissociated into ions.
4 The reaction produces a salt and water.

37 / 40

A piece of aluminium is dropped into dilute hydrochloric acid.
No immediate reaction is observed.
Which statement explains this observation?

38 / 40

What are the products when limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated strongly?

39 / 40

In which state does 1 dm3 of methane contain the most particles?

40 / 40

X is produced when petrol burns completely in air.
What is X?

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Economics (9-1) (0987)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (9-1) (0987)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

2 / 30

A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1.
Three years later it was 0.8%.
What can be concluded from this information?

3 / 30

What is the definition of diseconomies of scale?

4 / 30

What is most likely to result from a reduction in the value of a country’s currency if there are no
other changes in the economy?

5 / 30

An entrepreneur buys a workshop for $200 000 to make plastic boxes. In the first year of
operation he spends $70 000 on materials, employs ten production workers paid by the amount
produced (piece rate) at a total cost of $80 000 and buys two delivery vehicles for $10 000 each.
What are his total variable costs?

6 / 30

What is the most important factor that affects how much a family saves?

7 / 30

What is an advantage of a market economy?

8 / 30

What is not normally a function of the central bank of a country?

9 / 30

10 / 30

Which government policy will increase productivity?

11 / 30

What could discourage women from seeking employment?

12 / 30

In 2013, the European Union (EU) levied a 48% tariff on low-priced Chinese solar panels
because the low price was the result of subsidies from the Chinese government.
Which argument for protectionism was the EU using?

13 / 30

What is an advantage of competitive markets?

14 / 30

The demand for gas in a country becomes price-inelastic.
What will happen as a result?

15 / 30

16 / 30

A private sector firm is the only supplier of rail services between two cities.
What will stop the firm charging very high ticket prices?

17 / 30

A farmer sells land used for crops to a firm that will use the land for wind turbines to produce
electric power.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision by the farmer?

18 / 30

One aim of government policy is to redistribute income through taxation in order to reduce
inequality.
Which policy will achieve this aim?

19 / 30

A firm has a high price elasticity of supply for its product.
What does this indicate?

20 / 30

What is an example of expansionary monetary policy?

21 / 30

22 / 30

What is classified as one of the four economic resources?

23 / 30

24 / 30

What is included in microeconomics?

25 / 30

26 / 30

27 / 30

What usually decreases when there is a depreciation of a country’s foreign exchange rate?

28 / 30

What is characteristic of a monopoly market structure?

29 / 30

Which combination of policy measures would be effective in reducing the effects of a recession?

30 / 30

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Economics (0455)
Question Count : 30

Duration :45 minutes

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Economics (0455)

30 Different Questions Every time

1 / 30

2 / 30

Which supply-side policy measure would help to match the skills of workers to job vacancies?

3 / 30

A large bakery buys a flour mill.
Which form of integration is this?

4 / 30

Dimitry owns a firm that produces and sells bottles of lemonade. He only sells one size of bottle.
How would Dimitry calculate the total revenue of the firm?

5 / 30

Unlike the UK and US, a significant proportion of the shares on the stock exchanges of China and
Russia are of state-owned enterprises.
Which judgement about China and Russia can be made from this information?

6 / 30

7 / 30

A government lowers interest rates to encourage more borrowing and spending by households to
increase economic growth.
Why could this lead to a conflict with other government aims?

8 / 30

What could cause an increase in demand for a factor of production?

9 / 30

10 / 30

11 / 30

A multinational company (MNC) wishes to invest in a low-income country to expand its palm oil
production.
What is most likely to make this investment possible?

12 / 30

13 / 30

What is an example of an expansionary fiscal policy?

14 / 30

15 / 30

A country’s minister for agriculture said
“the biggest challenge the country faces is to develop irrigation so that we
are not at the mercy of the weather for crucial export earnings”.
Which type of country is this most likely to be?

16 / 30

When will a firm maximise its profits?

17 / 30

A government wishes to increase agricultural output. It gives farmers the tools to irrigate the
farmers’ fields.
Which factors of production are provided by the farmers?

18 / 30

19 / 30

What is a fiscal policy measure?

20 / 30

Which statement about interest rate changes is accurate?

21 / 30

A country’s inflation rate, measured by the Consumer Prices Index (CPI), was 3% in year 1.
Three years later it was 0.8%.
What can be concluded from this information?

22 / 30

What suggests that there is market failure?

23 / 30

What is the most likely benefit for a low-income economy if it removes tariffs on imported goods
and services?

24 / 30

What would cause a favourable change in the Kenyan trade in services (invisible) account?

25 / 30

What is a characteristic of tertiary industries?

26 / 30

27 / 30

28 / 30

Which increase is most likely to cause a rise in the output of an economy?

29 / 30

What would cause an outward shift of a country’s production possibility curve (PPC)?

30 / 30

In Uganda, the rate of inflation fell from 5% in 2014 to 2% in 2015.
Which conclusion can be drawn from this information?

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Physics (9-1) (0972)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (9-1) (0972)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in
the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s.
What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?

2 / 40

3 / 40

4 / 40

Three students are describing the structure of an atom.
student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus.
student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus.
student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus.
Which students are making a correct statement?

5 / 40

One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.
Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

6 / 40

7 / 40

A rocket is travelling vertically upwards. Three vertical forces act on it.
The thrust acts upwards and is equal to 100 000N.
The weight acts downwards and is equal to 80 000N.
What is the air resistance force acting on the rocket when it is travelling upwards at constant
speed?

8 / 40

An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted
on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object
increases to 6.0 m / s.
What force is exerted on the object?

9 / 40

A plane mirror is fixed to a vertical wall.
A boy looks at the image of himself in the mirror.
Which statement describes the image formed?

10 / 40

11 / 40

12 / 40

In which form is energy stored by stretching a spring?

13 / 40

Small pollen particles are suspended in water.
When viewed with a microscope, the pollen particles can be seen to be moving about irregularly.
What causes this movement?

14 / 40

Which are examples of friction?
1 tension in a spring
2 air resistance
3 weight

15 / 40

16 / 40

17 / 40

18 / 40

19 / 40

The information describes the currents in three different circuits.
Circuit P has a steady current of 0.52A in one direction.
Circuit Q has a current that continually changes between 0.25A and 0.35A but is always in the
same one direction.
Circuit R has a peak current of 0.52A that changes direction periodically.
Which circuits contain a direct current?

20 / 40

The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z.
What is a consequence of this?

21 / 40

22 / 40

A plastic rod is brought near to a small plastic sphere suspended from a stand. The sphere is
repelled by the rod.
Why is this?

23 / 40

24 / 40

25 / 40

26 / 40

27 / 40

28 / 40

A ball of mass 0.16kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.
What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

29 / 40

Four samples of materials with the same dimensions are tested.
Which material gives the highest rate of thermal conduction?

30 / 40

Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?

31 / 40

A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect.
Three suggestions for increasing the turning effect are given.
1 Increase the number of turns on the coil.
2 Increase the current in the coil.
3 Increase the strength of the magnetic field.
Which suggestions are correct?

32 / 40

33 / 40

34 / 40

35 / 40

Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used by a remote controller for a television?

36 / 40

In which substances is convection a method of thermal energy transfer?

37 / 40

38 / 40

What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

39 / 40

40 / 40

The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes.
What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?

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Physics (0625)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Physics (0625)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

Thermal radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
What is the name of this region of the spectrum?

3 / 40

The list gives three properties of different states of matter.
1 They cannot be compressed significantly.
2 They can flow.
3 They always completely fill their container.
Which properties are correct for liquids?

4 / 40

5 / 40

6 / 40

Which process causes a sound wave to produce an echo?

7 / 40

8 / 40

9 / 40

10 / 40

The thermal capacity of object Y is greater than that of object Z.
What is a consequence of this?

11 / 40

A box of mass 4.0 kg is pulled along a horizontal floor in a straight line by a constant force F.
The constant frictional force acting on the box is 2.0 N.
The speed of the box increases from 0.50 m / s to 2.5 m / s in 2.0 s.
What is the value of F?

12 / 40

Which statement explains why radioactive materials need to be handled carefully?

13 / 40

The atoms of an element can exist as different isotopes.
What is the difference between atoms of different isotopes of the same element?

14 / 40

15 / 40

16 / 40

Some nuclei are unstable. They emit radiation and change into nuclei of a different element.
What is this process called?

17 / 40

One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.
Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

18 / 40

Which energy source boils water to make steam in power stations?

19 / 40

20 / 40

21 / 40

22 / 40

23 / 40

24 / 40

Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38º.
What is the angle of reflection?

25 / 40

A girl is sitting on a rock in the sea looking at passing waves. She notices that five complete
wavelengths pass her in 20 s.
What is the frequency of this wave?

26 / 40

27 / 40

28 / 40

29 / 40

A student investigates sound waves from a loudspeaker.
The frequency of the sound wave is 25 000Hz. The student has normal hearing but she cannot
hear the sound.
What should she do if she wants to hear a sound from the loudspeaker?

30 / 40

31 / 40

32 / 40

There is a current I in a resistor for a time t. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor
is V.
A student calculates the product IVt.
In which unit is the student’s answer measured?

33 / 40

34 / 40

A nuclide has the symbol 146C.
Which statement about all atoms of this nuclide is correct?

35 / 40

36 / 40

Which type of waves are produced by a television remote controller?

37 / 40

A particular state of matter consists of molecules that move freely in random directions at high
speed. The average speed of the molecules is decreasing.
Which state of matter is being described?

38 / 40

39 / 40

40 / 40

A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it.
As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer?

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Science – Combined (0653)
Question Count : 40

Duration :45 minutes

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Science – Combined (0653)

40 Different Questions Every time

1 / 40

2 / 40

3 / 40

In which reaction is carbon dioxide not formed?

4 / 40

5 / 40

A girl holding a heavy load stands with her two feet flat on the ground.
Which change causes the pressure she exerts on the ground to increase?

6 / 40

7 / 40

Which statement about forces is always correct?

8 / 40

9 / 40

A fixed mass of argon gas in a sealed container is heated.
The pressure inside the container increases.
Which statement explains why the pressure increases?

10 / 40

11 / 40

12 / 40

13 / 40

14 / 40

15 / 40

16 / 40

17 / 40

In the process of eutrophication, what causes the increased growth of producers?

18 / 40

19 / 40

Alkenes are hydrocarbons that belong to the same homologous series.
What are the general properties of a homologous series?

  1. same general formula
  2. same melting point
  3. similar chemical properties

20 / 40

Which type of substance undergoes electrolysis?

21 / 40

Substance Z exists as molecules that contain only one type of atom.
What is Z?

22 / 40

A metre rule has a mass of 120 g. The gravitational field strength g is 10N/ kg.
What is the weight of the metre rule?

23 / 40

A motor is used to lift a load of 3000 N through a vertical distance of 40 m in 2.0 minutes.
How much useful power does the motor produce?

24 / 40

25 / 40

What is a property of infra-red radiation?

26 / 40

27 / 40

28 / 40

Electricity is generated in different power stations that use coal, hydroelectric dams, nuclear
fission or geothermal resources.
How is a hydroelectric power station different from the other three types of power station?

29 / 40

What are effects of increased adrenaline production in humans?

30 / 40

What are properties of transition elements?

  1. They can act as catalysts.
  2.  They only form white compounds.
  3. They have high densities.

31 / 40

Which statement about enzymes is correct?

32 / 40

During sexual intercourse the penis transfers sperm cells to the vagina.
What is the pathway for sperm cells from their site of production to the vagina?

33 / 40

34 / 40

35 / 40

What is used to identify chlorine?

36 / 40

Which two energy resources are both non-renewable?

37 / 40

38 / 40

Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using carbon electrodes is
correct?

39 / 40

40 / 40

Which substances conduct electricity when molten?

  1. sodium chloride
  2. naphtha
  3. brass

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